Microbiology and infectious diseases in Nursing Flashcards

1
Q

What are microbes?

A

Single-celled organisms so tiny that millions can fit into the eye of a needle- eg bacteria, archaea, helmiths, viruses, small parasites

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2
Q

What are the major features of prokaryotes?

A

No organelles
Unbound circular genome.
Rigid cell wall

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3
Q

What are the major features of eukaryotes?

A

True nucleus and linear genome, complex, organelles, flexible cell wall

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4
Q

What are methods of disease transmission?

A

Respiratory droplets, dust, contaminated water, injection of contaminated soil, contaminated food, contact with contaminated objects, anthropod bites, contact with animals

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5
Q

What are portals of exit for disease?

A

Coughing and sneezing; insect bites; removal of blood; faeces; urine; skin cells and open lesions

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6
Q

What are 8 signs and symptoms of meningitis in children and adults?

A

Stiff neck, headache, fever, vomiting, light sensitivity, drowsiness or confusion, joint pain, fitting

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7
Q

What are 8 signs and symptoms of meningitis in infants?

A

Fever, possibly with cold hands and feet, refusing feeds or vomiting, high pitched moaning, cry or whimpering, dislike of being handled or fretful, neck retraction with arching of back, blank and staring expression, child is difficult to wake, lethargic, pale, blotchy complexion

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8
Q

What is meningitis?

A

Inflammation of the meninges covering the breain

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9
Q

What is a key sign of meningitis?

A

Headache, can’t move chin to chest

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10
Q

How is meningitis spread?

A

By close contact with infected person or sharing food and drink

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11
Q

When caring for a meningitis patient in a hospital room, what needs to be done?

A

Keep room darkened as patient has photophobia

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12
Q

What are the causes of pyogenic meningitis?

A

Neonates- Group B strep, E.Coli, citrobacter, salmonella

Children: N. Meningitidis, Haemophilus influenza b, strep pneumoniae

Adults: N. Meningitidis, strep pneumoniae, staph aureus, cryptococcus neoformans, listeria monocytogenes, M.tuberculosis.

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13
Q

What are the causes of aseptic meningitis?

A

Partially-treated bacterial meningitis (antibiotics given before LP); viral meningitis (echo virus, coxsacki B), viral encephalitis (eg herpes simplex, enteroviruses, varicella zoster, CMV), M.tuberculosis, fungal meningitis, acute leptospirosis, neurosyphillis, cerebral toxoplasmosis, HIV

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14
Q

What is the best test for a sore throat?

A

Cultures- throat swab

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15
Q

What is the main aim of antibiotic therapy for strep?

A

To prevent recurrent infections and rheumatic heart disease with permanent heart valve damage

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16
Q

What is acute otitis media?

A

Bacteria colonising the oropharynx enter the middle ear via the eustachian tube. Triggered by viral infection, obstruction, colonisation with new strains of bacteria, age, race, nutrition

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17
Q

What are the principle pathogens for acute otitis media?

A

S.pneumoniae, H.influenzae, M.catarrhalis, viruses.

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18
Q

What are the microbial causes of UTI?

A
E.coli
Proteus sp
Klebsiella sp
Enterococcus
Pseudomonas
Enterobacter
St.saprophyticus

UTI’s in hospital tend to be caused by the more antibiotic resistant organisms

19
Q

What are the classic presentations of a UTI?

A

Dysuria, frequency, urgency, supra-pubic pain.

20
Q

What is the drug for UTIs?

A

Trimethoprim 300mg OD TDS

21
Q

What are the complicating features requiring urine culture in woman?

A

Abnormal urinary tract eg stone, reflux, catheter; impaired host defences eg pregnancy, diabetes, immunosupression; impaired renal function; suspicion of pyelonephritis; more that 3 UTIs in one year, UTI recurrence within 2w.

22
Q

What are complicated UTIs?

A

Men, children, pregnancy, people with suspected pyelonephritis, people with recurrent UTI, failed antibiotic treatment or persistent symptoms, catheterised patients, hospital-acquired infections, recent urinary tract instrumentation, impaired host defences, structural abnormalities of GU tract, people with renal impairment.

23
Q

What is the treatment for chlamydia?

A

1g Azithromycin stat or 7 days 100mg doxycycline

24
Q

What is the causative agent of gonorrhoea?

A

Neisseria gonorhoeae

25
Q

What are the symptoms of gonorrhoea in men?

A

Urethral discharge, dysuria within 2/5 days of exposure

26
Q

What are the symptoms of gonorrhoea in women?

A

Asymptomatic up to 50%; increased or change in vagina discharge, lower abdominal pain, dysuria.

27
Q

What is the last empiric therapy left for gonorrhoea?

A

Ceftriaxone IM

28
Q

What is the STI that most commonly leads to infertility if untreated?

29
Q

A person is most likely to get chlamydia and gonorrhoea?

A

Multiple partners, have unprotected sex or an early age of sexual debut

30
Q

What are types of foodborne diseases?

A

Food poisoning- disease that results from ingestion of foods containing preformed microbial toxins (don’t have to grown in host)

Food infection- microbial infection resulting from the ingestion of pathogen- contaminated food followed by growth of pathogen in the host

31
Q

What is a common cause of bacterial foodborne infection in NZ?

A

Campylobacter spp. Transmitted to humans via contaminated poultry, pork, raw shellfish or in surface waters. Replicates in SI. Causes high fever, headache, malaise, nausea, abdominal cramps, bloody stools

32
Q

What is the cause of listeriosis?

A

Listeria monocytogenes- may lead to bacteremia and meningitis- mortality 20%

33
Q

Who is most at risk of Listeria?

A

Pregnant women, the immunocompromised

34
Q

What is the cause of cervical cancer?

A

Prolonged infection with HPV

35
Q

How do we misuse antibiotics?

A

Indiscriminate prescribing of antibiotics; use of an inappropriate antibiotic (broad); non-completion of antibiotic cause (resistant strains); using left over antibiotics; environmental contamination with hospital antibiotics

36
Q

What is MRSA?

A

Staphylococcus aureus that is resistant to antibiotics.

37
Q

What are the vaccines recommended in NZ at 6W?

A

Rotavirus (start first dose before 15w)

Diphtheria/ tetanus/ pertussis/ polio/ Hep B/ Haemophilus influenzae type b (INFANRIX-hexa), pneumococcal (SYNFLORIX).

38
Q

What are the vaccines recommended in NZ at 3M?

A

Rotavirus; Diphtheria/ tetanus/pertussis/polio/Hep B/Haemophilus influenzae type be (INFANRIX-hexa), pneumococcal (SYNFLORIX)

39
Q

What are the vaccines recommended in NZ at 5m?

A

Rotavirus, diphtheria/tetanus/pertussis/polio/ HepB/ haemophilus influenzae type b, pneumococcal

40
Q

What are the vaccines recommended in NZ at 15m?

A

Haemophilus influenzae type b, MMR, pneumococcal

41
Q

What are the vaccines recommended in NZ at 4y?

A

Diphtheria/tetanus/pertussis/polio-infanrix IPV; MMR

42
Q

What are the vaccines recommended in NZ at 11?

A

Tetanus/diptheria/pertussis (BOOSTRIXS)

43
Q

What are the vaccines recommended at age 12 for girls?

A

HPV- Gardasil. 3 doses over 6 months

44
Q

What is the vaccination given at age 45 and 65

A

Diptheria/tetanus. Influenza