Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Where do antibiotics target?

A
Cell wall
Ribosomes
DNA replication 
DNA gyrases
Metabolic pathways
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two types of bacteria and how are they different?

A

Gram positive - has a double layered cell wall

Gram negative - has a single layered cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which antibiotics act on the cell wall?

A

Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Glycopeptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do penicillins and cephalosporins (beta-lactams) work?

A

They are bacteriocidal and blocks synthesis of the cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the types of penicillins and what type of bacteria do they act on (+ve or -ve)?

A
Flucloxacillin - Gm +ve
Amoxicillin - Gm +ve and -ve
Co-amoxiclav - Gm +ve and -ve
Temocillin - Gm-ve
(Piperacillin/tazobactam) - Gm +ve and -ve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 4 C’s you should avoid using?

A

Cephalosporins
Co-amoxiclav
Ciprofloxacin
Clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why should you avoid using the 4 C’s?

A

They are broad spectrum antibiotics so have a higher risk of c. Difficile infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Protozoa is a eukaryote. True or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of microorganism can undergo haemolysis?

A

Streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are some microbiological tests?

A
Blood culture
Urine culture
Faeces culture
Swab of pus
PCR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does exogenous microorganisms mean?

A

Not normal flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does virulence mean?

A

The ability of a microbe to cause damage to a host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a pathogen?

A

A harmful organism producing a pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Commensal bacteria is part of your normal flora, ture or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where would an opportunistic pathogen be found?

A

In an immunocompromised patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Give examples of some gram negative bacteria.

A

Neisseria
Escherichia
Salmonella
Shigella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Give examples of gram positive bacteria.

A

Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Enterococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Give examples of fungi

A

Candida spp. (Yeast)

Aspergillus (mould)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Give examples of protozoa

A

Malaria

Toxoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do viruses work?

A
Attach
Enter (non-enveloped enter via endocytosis, enveloped ones fuse their membrane and the cells membrane)
Uncoat
Nucleic acid and protein synthesis
Assembly
Release (exocytosis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a coliform?

A

Species of GM-ve bacilli that look like Escherichia coli on gram film and when cultured on blood agar

Note many are part of normal gut flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the first line antibiotic used to treat coliform infections?

A

Gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why is haemolysis of streptococci used?

A

To help classify the streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What happens in alpha-haemolysis?

A

Partial haemolysis- causes a greenish decolourisation around the colony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What happens in beta-haemolysis?

A

Complete haemolysis - there is a complete clearing around the colony (looks like its glowing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What happens in gamma-haemolysis?

A

No haemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the most pathogenic streptococci?

A

Beta-haemolytic group A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What causes scarlet fever?

A

Streptococci in group A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Enterococci is non-haemolytic, true or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Give examples of staphylococcus bacterium.

A

S. Aureus (+ve)

S. Epidermidis (-ve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does neisseria spp cause?

A

STD/STI

Meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Where does escherichia coli effect?

A

GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the 5 i’s of infection?

A
Inhalation
Ingestion
Inoculation 
Mother to infant
Intercourse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What genus does a gram positive sample belong to if it is cocci in clusters?

A

Staphylococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is haemolysis?

A

The ability of the bacterium to break down the red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How can you physically tell the difference between streptococci and staphylococcus?

A

Streptococci = chains

Staphylococcus = clusters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does MRSA stand for?

A

Methicillin resistant staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What categaries does streptococci subdivide into?

A

Alpha beta and gamma haemolytics

39
Q

What bacteria is alpha haemolytic?

A

Strep. Pneumoniae

Strep. Viridans

40
Q

What bacteria is beta haemolytic?

A

Group A strep. (Strep pyogens)

Group B strep (neonatal meningitis)

41
Q

What does non-haemolytic bacteria called?

A

Enterococcus sp.

42
Q

What is c. Difficile?

A

Anaerobic bacilli

43
Q

Are coliforms gram positive or negative?

A

Gram negative

44
Q

What is virulence?

A

degree of pathogenicity (ability of pathogen to cause disease) of an organism

45
Q

what are the 3 types of atmostphere that bacteria can grow in?

A

Aerobic
Microaerophilic (reduced O2 and more CO2)
Anaerobic

46
Q

What type of bacteria release exotoxins?

A

Gram positive

47
Q

what type of bacteria release endotoxin?

A

Gram negative

48
Q

what is an exotoxin?

A

Toxin produced inside gram positive bacterial cells that is exported out

49
Q

what is an endotoxin?

A

Toxin found in gram negative bacterial cell wall.

50
Q

Give examples of fungi.

A

Mould (aspergillus)

Yeasts (candida)

51
Q

what are the different types of gram positive cocci?

A

Streptococcus
Enterococcus
Staphylococcus

52
Q

how do you differentiate between staphylococcus?

A

coagulase test

53
Q

How do you distinguish between streptococcus and enterococcus and why?

A

Haemolysis as strep will either be alpha or beta, enterococcus will be gamma

54
Q

if gram positive cocci are found in clusters what does this suggest?

A

Staphylococcus

55
Q

How do you identify staph aureus?

A

Gram positive cocci, in cluster, that is coagulase positive, appearing golden

56
Q

what is the antibiotic of choice to treat staph aureus infection?

A

Flucloxacillin

57
Q

what would coagulase negative staphylococcus suggest (including common cause of infection), and what is this?

A

Staph epidermidis

normal skin commensal, can be found in IV line infections

58
Q

why does the immune system give rise to fever?

A

Growth of pathogens is slow if temp increases

59
Q

How are gram negative cocci orientated?

A

Diplococci

60
Q

Give examples of gram negative cocci bacterium (2)

A

Neisseria gonorrhoea

Nisseria meningitidis

61
Q

What are coliforms?

A

Gram negative bacilli

which can be aerobic or anaerobic

62
Q

Give examples of coliforms both commensals and pathogens.

A
Gut commensals:
- E coli
- Klebsiella
- Proteus
Gut pahtogens:
- Salmonella
- Shigella
- E coli 0157
63
Q

give examples of strict aerobes.

A

Gram negative bacilli:
pseudomonas aeruginosa
Legionella pneumophilia

64
Q

What type of bacterium is campylobacter and what does it cause?

A

Spiral or curved gram negative bacilli causing food poisoning

65
Q

what group of bacterium is haemophilus influenzae caused by?

A

small gram negative bacillus

66
Q

what is clostridium spp. and where is it normally found

A

gram positive anaerobic bacilli that is part of normal bowel flora

67
Q

what is the first line antibiotic used to treat coliforms?

A

Gentamicin

68
Q

what is the first line treatment for infections caused by anaerobes?

A

metronidazole

69
Q

what type of bacteria is TB

A

Microbacteria characterised by thick waxy outer coat

70
Q

what are the different ways of bacterial gene transfer and how do they work?

A

Transformation (DNA from dead bacteria taken up)
Conjugation (fimbria to transfer plasmid DNA - sex)
Transduction (viruses infecting bacteria can transfer from one to the other)

71
Q

give an example of a narrow and broad spectrum antibiotic.

A
Narrow = penicillin
Broad = tetracycline
72
Q

what type of cell wall do gram positive organisms have?

A

Thick layer of peptidoglycan and single phospholipid bilayer

73
Q

What type of cell wall do gram negative organisms have?

A

Thin layer of peptidoglycan and two phospholipid bilayers

74
Q

why are cephalosporins limited to hospital?

A

May induce clostridium difficile infection

75
Q

what type of antibiotic is vancomycin and what does it act on?

A

Glycopeptide which acts on gram positive cell walls

76
Q

which groups of antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis?

A

Macrolides
Tetracyclines
Aminoglycosides

77
Q

What group is erthromycin in?

A

Macrolides

78
Q

Give an example of a tetracycline.

A

doxycycline

79
Q

What group is gentamicin in?

A

Aminoglycosides

80
Q

How do macrolides and tetracyclines work?

A

Bacteriostatic attaching to bacterial ribosomes to prevent protein synthesis

81
Q

How do aminoglycerides work?

A

Bactericidal binding to ribosomes so kill that protein.

82
Q

what are the side effects of gentamicin?

A

Kidney damage

Damage of CN VIII resulting in deafness and dizziness

83
Q

which antibiotics act on bacterial DNA?

A

Metronidazole
Trimethoprim
Fluoroquinolones

84
Q

How does metronidazole work and what is it used to treat?

A

Causes strand breakage of bacterial DNA

Treats true anaerobic infections

85
Q

How does trimethoprim work and what does it treat?

A

Inhibits bacterial folic acid synthesis

Works against gram positivie and negative bacteria

86
Q

Give examples of fluoroquinolones.

A

Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin

87
Q

how do fluoroquinolones work?

A

Bactericidal and prevent supercoiling of bacterial DNA

88
Q

why should you avoid broad spectrum antibiotics?

A

increase risk of C. difficile

89
Q

which antibiotics should you avoid in pregnancy?

A

Gentamicin, tetracycline, fluoroquinolones (avoid trimethoprim and metronidazole in first 3 months)

90
Q

how do viruses replicate?

A

Attachment
Entry
Uncoating
Nucleic acid and protein synthesis (using host ribosomes)
Assembly
Release (budding - released in envelope - or lysis - cell burst, and virus escapes)

91
Q

which antibodies neutralise viruses and how do they do this?

A

IgG and IgM, prevent virus binding to cellular receptors

92
Q

how do you detect viruses clinically?

A

PCR and antigen detection

93
Q

which groups of antibiotics act by inhibiting protein synthesis?

A

macrolides, aminoglycerides, clindamycin, tetracylines

94
Q

which groups of antibiotics act on bacterial DNA?

A

metronidazole, trimethoprim/co-trimoxazole, fluroquinolones