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Phase 2a Summaries > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

How would you detect staph aureus?

A

Gram +ve
Catalase +ve = staph
Coagulase +ve

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2
Q

Give 3 infections staph aureus causes?

A

Skin infections - cellulitis
Osteomyelitis and septic arthritis
Pneumonia
Endocarditis

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3
Q

How would you detect staph epidermidis?

A

Gram +ve
Catalase +ve = staph
Coagulase -ve

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4
Q

Give an example of an infection caused by staph epidermidis?

A

Endocarditis on prosthetic valves

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5
Q

How would you detect strep pneumoniae?

A

Gram +ve cocci
Catalase -ve = Strep
Alpha haemolytic
Optochin sensitive

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6
Q

Give three examples of when you would use amoxicillin?

A
  1. Strep Pneumoniae (mild)
  2. With clauvulonic acid in beta lactase resistance or severe pneumonia
  3. Meningitis >55 and immunocompromised as well as IV cefotaxime
  4. PPI + Clarithromycin for H.pylori
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7
Q

How would you detect strep virdidans?

A

Gram +ve cocci
Catalase -ve = Strep
Alpha haemolytic
Optochin resistant

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8
Q

Give an example of an infection caused by strep viridian’s?

A

Endocarditis - rheumatic patients in dental

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9
Q

How would you detect strep pyogenes?

A

Gram +ve
Catalase -ve
Beta Haemolytic
Group A lancefield

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10
Q

How would you treat strep viridian’s?

A

Benzylpenicillin and gentamycin

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11
Q

How would you diagnose listeria monocytogenes?

A

Gram +ve bacilli - aerobic (found in cheese)

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12
Q

Give an example 2 infections caused by strep pyogenes?

A

Necrotosing faciatis / cellulitis

Strep throat

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13
Q

How would you detect E. coli?

A

Gram -ve bacteria. lactose fermenter, pink on MacConkey

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14
Q

What disease does listeria cause?

A

Meningitis in immunocompromised

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15
Q

How would you treat listeria?

A

Amoxicillin and gentamicin

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16
Q

Give 2 examples of gram -ve cocci?

A

Neisseria meningitides

Neisseria gonorrhoea

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17
Q

Which components of MacConkey agar inhibit growth of gram positives?

A

Bile salts and crystal violet

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18
Q

How would you detect Klebsiella pneumoniae?

A

Gram -ve bacilli, lactose fermenter, pink on MacConkey

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19
Q

How would you treat Klebsiella?

A

Cefotaxime

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20
Q

How would you differentiate between E.coli and klebsiella?

A

API strip and sensitivity tests

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21
Q

How would you detect haemophilia influenza?

A

Gram -ve cococbaccili

Chocolate agar

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22
Q

How would you treat Haemophilus influenza?

A

Cefotaxmine

2nd Line Chlomphenicol

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23
Q

Give 2 examples of disease caused by haemophilus influenzae?

A

Meningitis

Pneumonia

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24
Q

How do you detect legionella pneumophillia?

A

Gram -ve cococobaccili - urine antigen test

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25
Q

How would you detect pseudomonas aurginosa?

A

Gram -ve bacilli, non-lactose fermentor, oxidative +ve

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26
Q

Which two diseases/infections can pseudomonas aurginosa cause?

A

UTI in catheterised

Pneumonia - bronchiectasis

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27
Q

How would you treat helicobacter pylori?

A

Omeprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin

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28
Q

Which virus is detected by presence of inclusion bodies?

A

Herpes Simplex

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29
Q

How do you detect EBV?

A

Immunoflourecent anti-IgG

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30
Q

What is the treatment for glandular fever?

A

None

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31
Q

Name 2 infectitions cause by herpres varicella zoster?

A

Chicken pox and shingles

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32
Q

How do you treat herpes varicella zoster in a) children and b) adults?

A

Children - calamine

Adults - Acyclovir

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33
Q

How would you detect cytomegalovirus?

A

Owl eye - inclusion bodies

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34
Q

Which agar would you grow candida albicans on?

A

Sabourad agar

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35
Q

How would you detect PCP?

A

PCR detection

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36
Q

Give 3 occasions when you would use metronidazole?

A
  1. C.difficile
  2. Appendicitis
  3. Giardia Lambia
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37
Q

What would you see on microscopy of patient with giardia?

A

Trophozoites and cysts - travel

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38
Q

Give two infections that candida albicans can form?

A

Thrush

Endocarditis - immunocompromised with Hickman line

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39
Q

How would you detect hepatitis A?

A

IgM antibody +ve

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40
Q

How do you treat chronic Hepatitis B infection?

A

PEG interferon alpha

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41
Q

What is used to assess the risk of complications of infections caused by strep pyogenes?

A

Anti- SLO titre

Looking for antibodies against strepyloysin O

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42
Q

Give 4 components of the structure of mycobacteria ?

A
  1. Peptidoglycan cell wall
  2. Arabinogalactan
  3. Mycolic acids form thick waxy coat
  4. High molecular weight plasma membrane
43
Q

Give 3 characteristics of fungi?

A

Exist in yeast or mould form, chitinous cell wall, eukaryotic

44
Q

What are the 6 stages of viral replication?

A
  1. Attachment
  2. Cell Entry
  3. Interaction with host cells
  4. Replication
  5. Assembly
  6. Release
45
Q

Which 4 antibiotic classes work by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?

A

Glycopeptides (vancomycin) and the beta lactams which are penicillins, cephalosporins and carbapenems

46
Q

How do penicillins work?

A

Inhibit beta-lactamases which are responsible for cross-linking peptidoglycan in bacterial cells. This weakens them preventing maintenance of osmotic gradient lead to cells death.

47
Q

What are the 2 uses of trimethoprim and how does it work?

A

UTI (1st line-uncomplicated)
Combined as Co-trimaxole for PCP
Inhibits folate acid synthesis and thus DNA synthesis

48
Q

How do Quinolones (eg ciproflaxcin) work?

A

Inhibit DNA gyrase which helps DNA to fold

49
Q

What is a bacteriostatic antibiotic?

A

Stop bacteria growth and replication but do not kill them instantly

50
Q

What is a bacteriocidal antibiotic?

A

Directly kills the bacteria

51
Q

When are bactericidal antibiotics useful?

A

Poor penetration eg endocarditis
Difficult to treat infections eg TB
Need to eradicate infection quickly eg meningitis

52
Q

How do bacteria develop acquired resistance?

A
  1. Spontaneous gene mutation

2. Horizontal gener transfer - conjugation, transduction and transformation

53
Q

Other than MRSA give an example of gram positive bacteria that exhibits resistance?

A

Vancomycin resistant enterococci

54
Q

Which 4 classes of drugs inhibit protein synthesis in bacteria?

A

Amazing Claire Marie Trudgian

Aminoglycasides, chloramphenicol, macrocodes, tetracyclines

55
Q

What class of drug is vancomycin and when is it used?

A

Glycopeptides - Used in treatment of severe C.difficile and MRSA

56
Q

Give 2 examples of a serology technique?

A
  1. Complement fixation test

2. ELISA - enzyme linked immunosorbent assays

57
Q

When would you use chocolate agar?

A

Neisseria and H.influezea

58
Q

When would you used CLED agar?

A

Use to differentiate micro-organisms in urine

59
Q

What colour is a non-lactose fermentor on MacConkey agar?

A

yellow

60
Q

When is XLD agar used?

A

Selective growth medium to isolate growth of salmonella and shigella

61
Q

What colour is Salmonella on XLD agar?

A

Yellow and shigella remains red

62
Q

What are 4 of the key principles for taking blood cultures?

A
  1. Take blood culture before giving antibiotics
  2. Take good volumes
  3. Take from more than one site
  4. Take on more than one occasion
63
Q

What colour is a viral swab?

A

Green

64
Q

What is a disadvantage of PCR use?

A

Vulnerable to contamination and may give false positive

65
Q

When is electron microscopy useful for diagnosing viruses?

A

When new virus appears

66
Q

What is the supportive management of glandular fever?

A

Supportive therapy and avoid contact sport for at least 6 weeks

67
Q

In a patient with suspected Influenza what should you do whilst awaiting results of PCR?

A

Isolate patient and treat with neuroaminidase inhibitors

68
Q

How can you detect if it is a primary disease or reactivation?

A

IgG remains for life and will rise in re-infection

IgM detects acute infection

69
Q

What are the steps in performing a gram stain?

A

1.Apply crystal violet, apply iodine and wash with acetone

70
Q

Name 4 sterile sites of the body?

A

Gallbladder, kidney, lungs, pleural fluid and blood

71
Q

Which special stain identifies corynebacterium diphtheria?

A

Methylene blue

72
Q

Which organism shows draughtsman colonies on blood culture?

A

Strep pneumoniae

73
Q

Which genetic condition is a predisposition for pseudomonas infections?

A

Cystic fibrosis - excess secretions provide environment for bacterial growth

74
Q

Which selective media can you culture mycobacterium in?

A

Lowestein-Jenson

75
Q

Name 3 components of a virus?

A
  1. Nucleic acid core
  2. Lipid envelope
  3. Protein caspid
  4. Spike projections - cell receptors
76
Q

Give 3 investigations of TB?

A

Sputum (x3), Induce sputum, broncho-alveolar lavage, tissue sample

77
Q

What is meant by dysentry?

A

Inflammatory disorder of GI tract, often associated wutg blood and pus in faeces and accompanied by symptoms of pain, fever, abdominal cramps

78
Q

Give 3 investigations of UTI?

A

Mid-stream urine, direct microscopy and culture

79
Q

Give 3 viral causes of meningitis?

A

Mumps, echo virus, coxsackie virus, herpes simplex virus

80
Q

How would you treat legionella causing pneumonia?

A

Clarithromycin

81
Q

Which antibiotics would you use to treat strep pyogenes?

A

Benzylpenicillin

82
Q

Name a severe fungal infection of the eye?

A

Endothalmitis - severe fingal infection of vitreous humour in the eye

83
Q

How can you further differentiate salmonella?

A

Kauffman-white scheme - according to presence of different O and H surface antigens

84
Q

Which antibiotic do you use to treat enterococcus?

A

Amoxicillin and gentamicin

85
Q

How do you treat endocarditis caused by strep viridian’s?

A

Gentamicin and benzylpeniciilin

86
Q

Which three drugs do you use to treat HIV?

A

2 nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors and 1 non-nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor or protease inhibitor

87
Q

Which medium cultures campylobacter?

A

CCDA

88
Q

Give a treatment method for helminths eg schistosomiasis?

A

Praziquentel

89
Q

What are the 3 generations of cephalosporins?

A
  1. Cephlaxen
  2. Cefuroxime
  3. Ceftriaxone
90
Q

Name 3 broad spectrum antibiotics?

A
  1. Cephalosporins
  2. Carbapenems
  3. Tetracyclines (Doxycycline )
91
Q

Give two uses of cephalosporins?

A

Surgical prophylaxis, Meningitis (1st line)

92
Q

Give an example of when you would use carbapenems eg Imipenem?

A

Treatment of severe/complicated or drug resistance infections

93
Q

Give 3 occasions when you would use a macrolide eg erythromycin?

A
  1. Atypical pneumonia + penicillin
  2. Penicillin allergies eg cellulitis
  3. For H.pylori in peptic ulcer disease with PPI + amoxicillin
94
Q

What is the mechanism of macrolides?

A

Bind to 50s subunit on ribosome so ribosome can’t produce protein

95
Q

Give 3 examples of when you would use doxycycline?

A

Acne vulagaris, chlamydia, malaria, pelvic inflammatory disease and chronic bronchitis

96
Q

How do tetracyclines work?

A

Bind to 30S subunit on ribosomes to tRNA can’t bind to mRNA so no polypeptide formation

97
Q

Give 2 examples when you would use gentamicin?

A 
Infective endocarditis (with benzylpenicillin) - synergistic 
Pyelonephritis and complicated UTI
98
Q

Which 4 antibiotics work by inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis?

A

Trimethroprim, quinolines, metranidazole, rifampicin

99
Q

Give 3 occasions when you would use quinolines eg ciprofloxacin?

A

2nd line UTI
Cystic fibrosis (vulnerable to pseudomonas - common in cf)
Severe GI infections

100
Q

How does rifampicin work?

A

Binds to RNA polymerase, this stops its synthesis from mRNA so bacteria can’t grow

101
Q

Which antibiotic works for infections caused by anaerobes?

A

Metronidazole

102
Q

Describe the 3 methods of horizontal gene transfer in acquiring antibiotic resistance?

A
  1. Conjugation - transfer plasmid via sex pillus
  2. Transduction - DNA packaged into viral particle and transferred
  3. Transformation - take up free DNA from environment
103
Q

How can bacteria be resistance to antibiotics?

A
  1. Change antibiotic target
  2. Destroy the antibiotic
  3. Prevent antibiotic access
  4. Remove antibiotic from bacteria

Phase 2a Summaries (12 decks)

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