Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phase 2a Summaries > Cardiology > Flashcards

Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

Which congenital heart defect is associated with uneven blood pressure in each arm?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is eisenmengers syndrome?

A

Reversal of flow for L to R, due to pulmonary hypertension. Causes de-oxygenated blood to skip lungs and go back around the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of Eisenmengers syndrome?

A

Cyanosis, clubbing, heart failure, syncope, high RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name 3 complications of bicuspid aortic valve?

A

Infective endocarditis
Aortic Dilation
Aortic regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In patent ductus arterioles there is a persistent communication between which two structures?

A

Between proximal left pulmonary artery and descending aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which congenital heart defect presents with a machinery murmur?

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 4 components of the tetralogy of fallot?

A
  1. A large ventricular septal defect
  2. Pulmonary stenosis
  3. Right Ventricular Hypertrophy
  4. Overriding aorta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why may toddlers squat in tetralogy of fallot?

A

Increases total peripheral resistance, so helps alleviate some of the L –> R shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What would you see on an X-ray for a patient with tetralogy of fallot?

A

Boot-shaped heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which congenital heart defect is associated with Down’s syndrome?

A

Atrio-ventricular septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Name a treatment method for pulmonary stenosis?

A

Baloon valvuloplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

On ECG what does the PR interval represent?

A

Delay of AV node to allow ventricles to fill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

On ECG what does the ST segment represent?

A

Beginning of ventricle repolarisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does the cardiac axis measure?

A

Overall direction of the wave of ventricular depolarisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What would you see in Lead 1 and Lead 3 in right axis deviation?

A

Lead 1 Negative

Lead 3 Positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What would you see in Lead 1 and Lead 3 in left axis deviation?

A

Lead 1 Positive

Lead 3 Negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Give three causes of left axis deviation?

A
  1. LBBB
  2. Left Ventricular Hypertrophy
  3. Wolff-Parkinson white Syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the most common cause of right axis deviation?

A

Right ventricular overload, (RVH) or increased strain due to hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which valvular abnormality is associated with broad and notched M shaped P waves?

A

P. Mitrale

Mitral Valve Stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does the heart rate have to be to be classified as bradycardia?

A

< 60 beats per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the heart rate have to be to be classified as tacycardia?

A

> 100 beats per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the supra ventricular tachycardias have hidden P waves on ECG?

A

AVRNT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What type of tachycardia is Wolff-Parkinson White Syndrome?

A

Atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Name a treatment method for AVRNT?

A

Catheter ablation - radiofrequency energy directed at slow pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the ECG changes seen in AVRT?

A

Short PR Interval, delta wave at start of QRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What would you see on ECG of patient with AF?

A

Absent P waves

Irregular and Rapid QRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Name 4 causes of AF?

A 
Heart failure
Thyrotoxicosis (thyroid disease) 
Alcohol and obesity
Valve failure 
Hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Other than heparin and warfarin in anti-coagulation what else could you use?

A

NOAC/DOAC - Direct Xa Inhibitors

Rivaroxiban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Name a new treatment method for the early stages of AF?

A

Pulmonary vein isolation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Name the CHADS2VASc Criteria in assessing risk of stroke in patient with AF?

A 
Congestive HF 
Hypertension 
Age, >75 (=2), 65-74 (1) 
Diabetes 
Stroke or TIA = 2 
Vascular injury 
Sc- Sex (female)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does a CHADS2VASc score of 1 mean?

A

Consider oral anti-coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does a CHADS2VASc score of 2 mean?

A

Oral coagulation given eg warfarin or rivaroxiban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the acute management of AF?

A

Electrical (DC shock) or pharmacological (amiodarone) cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the long-term management of AF?

A

Rate control - BB, CCB or Digoxin

Rhythm Control - Amiodarone or electrical cardioversion + anti-coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the ECG changes seen in atrial flutter?

A

Sawtooth appearance

Narrow QRS complexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What would you expect the atrial and ventricular heart rate to be in atrial flutter?

A

Atrial - 300
Ventricular - 150
2:1 Heart block pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Name 4 extrinsic causes of bradycardia?

A

Drugs -BB and Digoxin
Hypothyroidism
Hypothermia
Increased ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Name 3 intrinsic causes of bradycardia?

A

SAN Infarction
Acute Ischaemia
Sick Sinus Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is sick sinus syndrome?

A

Bradycardia due to intermittent failure of the SAN depolarisation due to failure of sinus node to propagate to atria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What would you see on an ECG in someone with Sick Sinus Syndrome?

A

Long pauses between consecutive P waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which type of arrhythmia presents with blackouts?

A

Heart block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What would you see on ECG in patient with 1st degree heart block?

A

PR interval prolonged >0.2s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What would you see on ECG in patient with 2nd degree, Mobitz 1 heart block?

A

Progressive PR interval prolongation then sudden loss of QRS, then pattern re-sets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How would a patient with 2nd Degree Mobitz 1 heart block present?

A

Diziness, light headed, syncope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What would you see on ECG in patient with 2nd degree mobitz type 2 heart block?

A

Sudden unpredictable loss of AV conduction and loss of QRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How would a patient with 2nd Degree Mobitz 2 heart block present?

A

Chest pain, SOB and postural hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What would you see on ECG in patient with 3rd degree heart block?

A

P waves and QRS complex appear independently of each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

On auscultation what may you hear in a patient with RBBB?

A

Wide splitting of the second heart sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Name 3 causes of RBBB?

A
  1. Pulmonary embolism
  2. IHD
  3. Atrio-ventricular septal defect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Name 2 causes of LBBB?

A
  1. IHD

2. Aortic valve disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What would you see on an ECG of someone with RBBB?

A

M wave in lead 1

W wave in lead 5/6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What would you see on an ECG of someone with LBBB?

A

W wave in lead 1
M wave in lead 5/6
Abnormal Q waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

On auscultation what may you hear in a patient with LBBB?

A

Reverse splitting of the second heart sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Name 4 occasions when you would refer someone with an ectopic beat?

A
  1. Refractory to beta blockers
  2. High burden ectopy
  3. Structural heart defect
  4. Syncope
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the 3 main causes of heart failure?

A
  1. Ischaemic heart Disease
  2. Cardiomyopathy
  3. Hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is HFREF- Left Heart Failure?

A

Failure to contract = Ejection fraction <40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is HFPEF - Right Heart Failure ?

A

Inability to relax and fill. Ejection fraction >50%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the 3 main causes of HFREF (LHF)?

A

IHD, MI and cardiomyopathy

HTN, aortic disease, arrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the 3 main causes of HFPEF - Right heart failure ?

A

Constrictive pericarditis, cardiac tamponade, pulmonary hypertension, PE, tricuspid regurgitation,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the 3 compensatory changes in heart failure?

A
  1. Symapthetic stimulation - increase after load by peripheral vasoconstriction
  2. RAAS - increase after load and preload by salt and water retention
  3. Cardiac changes: ventricular dilation and myocyte hypertrophy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the definition of after load?

A

The pressure against which the heart must work to eject blood during systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

In which two cardiac conditions would you experience paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea?

A 
Heart failure (left sided) 
Aortic regurgitation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Name 3 signs of LV failure?

A
  • 3rd and 4th Heart sounds
  • Crepitations in lung base
  • Displaced apex beat
  • Weight loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Name 3 signs of RV failure?

A
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Ascites
  • Pitting oedema
  • Raised JVP
  • Pleural effusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Name 3 symptoms of LV failure?

A
  • Exertional dyspnoea
  • Fatigue
  • Paroxysmal nocturna dyspnoea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Name 3 symptoms of RV failure?

A
  • Peripheral oedema
  • Nausea
  • Anorexia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What blood test can be used to diagnose Heart failure?

A

BNP - if normal excludes diagnosis

68
Q

Why is BNP not specific?

A

Can also be raised in PE

69
Q

Name 4 complications of heart failure?

A
  1. Renal dysfunction
  2. Thromboembolism - DVT and PE
  3. Pleural effusion
  4. LBBB and bradycardia
70
Q

What is the first line medication for heart failure?

A

ACE-I and a Beta Blocker

71
Q

What is the second line treatment for heart failure ?

A

Aldosterone antagonist - spironolactone

72
Q

If you have heart failure and are ACE and ARB intolerant which drug would you use?

A

Hydralazine

73
Q

If all other drugs have failed in heart failure treatment what is the final medication you would try?

A

Digoxin

74
Q

Name 4 investigations you would do in heart failure?

A
  1. Chest Xray
  2. ECG underlying causes
  3. Bloods: FBC, LFT, U&E
  4. Echocardiogram
75
Q

Patient with radio-femoral delay, what disease is underlying cause? and how would you diagnose this?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

CT-angiogram

76
Q

What does the wells risk score calculate?

A

The risk of DVT

77
Q

What does the ABCD2 score calculate?

A

Risk of stroke after TIA

78
Q

What does the QRISK2 score calculate?

A

The risk of developing cardiovascular disease

79
Q

At what sats should you prescribe oxygen to a patient who has just had an MI?

A

Under 94%

80
Q

Name 2 advantages and 2 disadvantages of PCI?

A

Adv - Less invasive, convenient, repeatable

Dis - Risk of stent thrombosis , risk of restenosis

81
Q

Name 2 advantages and 2 disadvantages of CABG?

A

Adv - better prognosis, used in stable patients, deals with the disease
Dis - Long recovery and hospital stay, risk of stroke, can’t perform on frail

82
Q

When else would troponin levels be elevated?

A

PE, myocarditis, pericarditis , tacyarrhythmia, gram -ve sepsis, iatrogenic eg DC cardioversion

83
Q

Name 5 serious complications post MI?

A
  1. Heart failure
  2. AF
  3. Chronic pericarditis (due to dresslers)
  4. Bradyarrythmia
  5. Cardiac rupture
84
Q

What are the 6P’s of limb ischaemia?

A

Pain, Pallor, Paralysis, Parasethesia, Perishing cold, Pulseless

85
Q

After an Acute MI which drug is given for thrombolysis?

A

Streptokinase or plasminogen tissue activator

86
Q

What are the 4 components of an atherosclerotic plaque?

A

Lipid, necrotic core, connective tissue, fibrous cap

87
Q

What are the 5 stages of atherosclerosis?

A
  1. Fatty streak formation
  2. Intermediate lesions
  3. Fibrous cap
  4. Plaque rupture
  5. Plaque erosion
88
Q

What are the components of the fatty streak?

A

Foam cells (lipid laden macrophages) and T-lymphocytes within the intima of vessel wall

89
Q

What is the fibrous plaque composed of?

A

ECM proteins eg collagen and elastin, laid down by smooth muscle cells

90
Q

Where does the pain radiate to in pericarditis?

A

Trapezius Ridge

91
Q

Name 5 organisms which caused IE?

A 
Strep viridian's 
Strep pneumoniae and staph aureus (in normal valves) 
Candida alhbicans (yeast) 
Staph epidermidis 
Enterococci
92
Q

What type of anaemia do you see in a patient with IE?

A

Normocytic anaemia

93
Q

Name the 2 major criteria of Duke’s Criteria?

A
  1. Positive blood cultures (2 separate cultures, 3 .12 hours apart)
  2. Echo - show vegetation, abscess or new valvular regurgitation
94
Q

Name the 5 minor criteria in Duke’s classification?

A
  1. Predisposing eg IVDU
  2. Fever >38
  3. Valvular/immunological signs
  4. +ve blood culture (don’t meet major)
  5. Echo (doesn’t meet major)
95
Q

How would you treat strep virdans causing IE?

A

Benzylpenicillin and gentamycin

96
Q

How would you treat staph aureus causing IE?

A

Flucoxacillin

97
Q

How would you treat enterococci causing IE?

A

Amoxicillin + gentamycin

98
Q

What are the 3 clinical indications for ACE?

A

Hypertension, heart failure, diabetic nephropathy

99
Q

What are the 4 side effects of ACE related to reduced angiotensin 2 formation?

A

Hypotension, acute renal failure, hyperkalaemia, teratogenic effects in pregnancy

100
Q

Name 3 side effects of ARB?

A

Rash, symptomatic hypotension, hyperkalaemia, angio-oedema

101
Q

What are the 3 clinical indications for CCB?

A

Hypertension, IHD (angina) and arrhythmia (tachycardia)

102
Q

Which CCB commonly causes constipation?

A

Veramapril

103
Q

Which CCB acts as an artery; vasodilator?

A

Amlodipine

104
Q

Dihydropyradines (amlodipine) cause peripheral (artery) vasodilation, what are the side effects of this?

A

Flushing
Headache , oedema
Palpitations

105
Q

Name 4 side effects of beta blockers?

A

Erectile dysfunction
Hypotension
Cold peripheries
Bradycardia

106
Q

What are the side effects of diuretics?

A

Low serum K, Ca, Mg, Na
Raised uric acid –> gout
Hypovolaemia
Hypertension

107
Q

What is the mechanism of Abciximab?

A

Gp IIb/IIIa inhibitor so prevents fibrinogen binding to platelets

108
Q

What are the side effects of amiodarone?

A

Sun sensitivity, slate grey skin discolouration, optic neuropathy, corneal micro deposits, abnormal liver function

109
Q

What can drugs which cause QT prolongation (amiodarone and solatol) cause?

A

Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia

110
Q

What is the mechanism of Digoxin?

A

Cardiac glycoside, which inhibits the Na/K pump

111
Q

What are the side effects of Digoxin?

A

Narrow therapeutic range, nausea, diarrhoea, confusion

112
Q

Which three symptoms are associated with Ascending cholangitis?

A

Fever, rigors and jaundice (charcot’s triad)

113
Q

Give 3 secondary prevention strategies of angina?

A
  1. Lifestyle changes
  2. Control risk factors
  3. Aspirin and a statin
114
Q

To diagnose an MI which 3 factors need to be present?

A
  1. Raised troponin
  2. ECG changes consistent with MI
  3. Chest pain consistent with MI
115
Q

What are the acute management stages of STEMI?

A

MONA

Morphone, oxygen (if hypoxic), nitrates and aspirin

116
Q

Name 4 long term management strategies of acute coronary syndromes?

A
  1. Aspirin 75mg daily
  2. Beta blocker
  3. Statin
  4. ACE inhibitor
  5. No driving for a month
117
Q

Name 3 health conditions that hypertension causes?

A

Stroke, MI, Heart failure, peripheral vascular disease, renal failure

118
Q

Give 4 primary causes of hypertension?

A

Genetic factors, obesity, salt intake, alcohol, stress, idiopathic

119
Q

Give 3 endocrine causes of hypertension?

A

Conns, Adrenal hyperplasia, cushings, acromegaly

120
Q

Give 3 renal causes of hypertension?

A

PKD, glomerulonephritis, diabetic nephropathy

121
Q

Give 3 other causes of hypertension?

A

Pregnancy, coarctation of aorta, steroids

122
Q

Give 3 modifiable risk factors of hypertension?

A

Obesity, dietary salt intake, lack of physical activity, excess alcohol, stress

123
Q

What is the classification of stage 1 hypertension?

A

> 140, >90

124
Q

What is the classification of stage 2 hypertension?

A

> 160, >100

125
Q

Other than adulatory blood pressure monitoring give three other investigations you would do in hypertension?

A
  1. Urine dipstick for protein and blood
  2. Serum creatinine and electrolytes
  3. 12 lead ECG
  4. Echocardiography
126
Q

Give 5 non-pharmacological management steps of HTN?

A

Weight loss, reduced salt intake, regular exercise, smoking cessation, reduce alcohol intake

127
Q

When should you not treat a patient with hypertension?

A

Patients over 80 with stage 1 hypertension

128
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of heart failure?

A

Failing heart, reduced CO, activate RAAS, vasoconstriction and sodium retention, increased peripheral resistant –> failing heart

129
Q

What are the ABCDE signs you would see on an X-ray of heart failure?

A 
Alevolar oedema 
kerley B lines
Cardiomegaly 
Dilated upper lobe vessels 
pleural Effusion
130
Q

Name 3 non-pharmalogical management steps of heart failure?

A

Education, lifestyle measures, correct aggrevating medical factors eg anaemia, vaccinate against pneumonocaal disease and influenza

131
Q

Give 2 signs of an atrial septal defect?

A

Mid-systolic ejection murmur

Fixed splitting of S2

132
Q

Give 2 signs of ventricular septal defect?

A

Pansystolic murmur, left parasternal heave

133
Q

What are the indications for surgery in a ventricular septal defect?

A

LA and LV enlargement, pulomary HTN, HF symptoms

134
Q

Give 2 signs of tetraology of fallot?

A

Clubbing, harsh ejection systolic murmur

135
Q

Give 3 symptoms of coarctation of the aorta?

A

Headache and nose bleed due to HTN, claudification and cold legs

136
Q

Give 3 causes of aortic stenosis?

A

Calcification , congenital eg bicuspid valve, rheumatic fever, outflow obstruction

137
Q

Give 3 symptoms of aortic stenosis?

A

Exercise induced angina, syncope, breathlessness

138
Q

Give 3 signs of aortic stenosis?

A

Slow rising pulse
Sustained apex beat
Ejection systolic murmur - radiates to carotid
Soft S2

139
Q

Give 2 investigations of aortic stenosis?

A

ECG-LVH and Echo = diagnostic

140
Q

Which valve disease can you get acutely or chronically?

A

Aortic regurgitation

141
Q

Give 3 causes of a) Acute and b) chronic aortic regurgitation?

A

a) Rheumatic fever, IE, aortic dissection

b) Autoimmune, syphillis, bicuspid valve

142
Q

Give 3 signs of aortic regurgitation?

A

LVF - blood overloading heart
Waterhammer pulse
Early diastolic murmur

143
Q

What is the only cause of mitral stenosis?

A

Rheumatic fever - now rare in UK

144
Q

Give 2 symptoms of mitral stenosis?

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, orthopnoae, haemoptysis

145
Q

Give 3 signs of mitral stenosis?

A

Malar flush, AF, Mid diastolic murmur

146
Q

Give 3 causes of mitral regurgitation?

A

Mitral valve prolapse, IE, IHD

147
Q

Give 2 signs of mitral regurgitation?

A

Pansystolic murmur radiating to axilla

Third heart sound

148
Q

Give 2 viral causes of pericarditis? 2 bacterial causes? and 2 other causes?

A

a) Viral = coxsackie and echovirus
b) Pneumococci, TB
c) Dresslers, SLE

149
Q

Give 2 signs of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Atrial and ventricular arrythmia, carotid pulse, ejection systolic

150
Q

Give 2 medications you could give traduce risk of sudden death in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Amoidarone

Beta Blocker

151
Q

Give 2 causes of acute limb ischamia?

A

Embolism

Thrombosis

152
Q

Give 3 causes of heart block?

A

CAD, Cardiomyopathy, fibrosis in conducting tissue

153
Q

What do you see in QRS complexes of supraventricular tachycardias?

A

Narrow QRS

154
Q

Give 3 symptoms of supra ventricular tacycardia?

A

Rapid palpitations, dizziness, dysnpnoea, central chest pain, syncope

155
Q

Give 3 causes of atrial flutter?

A

IHD, cardiomyopathy, thyrotoxicosis, pneumonia, pericarditis

156
Q

Which two biochemical markers would you test for in a patient with ACS?

A

Troponin, creatinine kinase, myoglobin

157
Q

What is the most common cause of aortic stenosis?

A

Calcification of the valve

158
Q

Which organism causes rheumatic fever?

A

Strep pyogenes

159
Q

In pericarditis what may you hear on a) auscultation and b) CXR?

A

a) Pericardial rub

b) Pericardial effusion

160
Q

How does angiotensin 2 work?

A

Vasocontriction, stimulates aldosterone release which promotes sodium retention from kidneys

161
Q

Where does angiotensin 2 act?

A

Efferent glomerular arteriole

162
Q

How do beta blockers control heart rate?

A

Prolong refractory period of AV node

163
Q

Give 4 medications you would use in a patient with NSTEMI and unstable angina?

A

Antiplatelts eg Tirofiban
Anticoagulation eg fondaparinoux
Beta blockers, nitrates and ACE

164
Q

Give 3 differences in the ECG with NSTEMI and STEMI?

A

STEMI - ST elevation, Q waves, T wave inversion

NSEMI - ST depression, no Q waves and T wave inversion

165
Q

What is the 3rd line medication for a 52 year old man with hypertension?

A

ACE/ARB + CCB + Thiazide like diuretic

166
Q

If all hypertensive medications are failing what would you consider using?

A

Spironalactone, digoxin, beta blocker

167
Q

Give 4 general management advice for heart failure?

A
  1. Education
  2. Pneumococcal vaccine
  3. Optimise risk factors
  4. Lifestyle measures

Phase 2a Summaries (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions