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phase 2 > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Define pathogen

A

An organism that causes or is capable of causing disease

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2
Q

Define commensal

A

An organism which colonises a host but causes no disease under normal conditions

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3
Q

Define opportunistic pathogen

A

A microbe that only causes disease if the host’s defenses are compromised

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4
Q

Define virulence/pathogenicity

A

The degree to which a given organism is pathogenic

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5
Q

Define asymptomatic carriage

A

When a pathogen is harmlessly carried at a tissue site where it causes no disease

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6
Q

What is a bacillus

A

rod shaped

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7
Q

What is a cocci

A

round

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8
Q

What does purple suggest

A

Gram positive

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9
Q

What does pink suggest

A

Gram negative

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10
Q

What is a diplococcus

A

Two cocci

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11
Q

What is a vibrio

A

A curved rod

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12
Q

What is a spirochaete

A

A spiral rod

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13
Q

What are the sterile sites in the body

A

Lungs, gall bladder, bladder, kidneys

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14
Q

In what form is bacterial DNA found

A

Double stranded circular DNA

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15
Q

What stain is needed to identify TB and why

A

Zeill Neeson as the TB has a thick waxy surface

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16
Q

What causes toxic shock

A

When the inate immune system acts against lypolysaccharide

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17
Q

How long can spores last and what temperatures can they survive in

A

50years in water and 120 degrees heat

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18
Q

What is dessication

A

A state of extreme drying

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19
Q

What temperatures can bacteria tolerate

A

-80 to 80

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20
Q

What pH can bacteria tolerate

A

4 to 9

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21
Q

How do bacteria divide

A

binary fission

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22
Q

What is an endotoxin

A

From gram negative LPS cell wall, weak non specific antigen. Heat stable and cant be converted to toxoid

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23
Q

What is an exotoxin

A

A protein secreted by mainly gram positive, specific action with high antigenicity. Heat labile and can be converted tot toxoid

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24
Q

What is a toxoid

A

A toxin which has been treated so that it loses it’s toxicity but retains it’s antigenicity

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25
Q

What is used for transformation

A

Plasmid

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26
Q

What is used for transduction

A

phage

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27
Q

What is used for conjugation

A

sex pillus (between recipient and donor)

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28
Q

What genes does a plasmid contain

A

Transfer promotion, plasmid maintenance and antibiotic or virulence determining genes

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29
Q

Which bacteria cant be cultured artificially

A

Obligate intracellular bacteria

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30
Q

Which shaped bacteria are tested with ZN stain

A

Rods

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31
Q

What is a bacteriaphage

A

Where one bacteria phages another and steals DNA by transduction

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32
Q

Examples of obligate intracellular bacteria

A

Rickettsia, chlamydia, coxiella

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33
Q

Bacteria with no cell wall (mollicutes)

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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34
Q

Bacteria which grow as filaments

A

Actinomyces, streptomyces

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35
Q

Why is gonorrhoea more painful in men

A

As they have a longer urethra

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36
Q

What does large gram positive rods suggest

A

Clostridia

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37
Q

What stain is used at first in gram staining

A

Crystal violet

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38
Q

What is added in gram staining to fix the cell wall

A

Iodine

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39
Q

What is used to decolourise in gram staining

A

Ethanol or acetone

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40
Q

What is used to counterstain in gram staining

A

Safronin (pink)

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41
Q

What are gram positive clusters

A

Staphlococci

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42
Q

What are gram positive chains

A

Streptococci

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43
Q

Why do gram positive stain purple

A

1 cell wall. Decolouriser dehydrates cell, CV-1 gets stuck in peptidoglycan. The counterstain isnt taken so the cell stays purple

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44
Q

Why do gram negative stain pink

A

Decolouriser interacts with lipid and causes loss of CV-1 and outer LPS membrane. Cell appears pink with counter stain

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45
Q

Anaerobic gram negative cocci

A

Veillonella

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46
Q

Aerobic gram negative cocci

A

Neisseria

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47
Q

Anaerobic gram positive cocci

A

Peptostreptococcus

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48
Q

Aerobic gram positive cocci

A

Staphylococcus or streptococcus

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49
Q

Name a commensal of the skin

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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50
Q

Alpha haemolytic streptococcus

A

S. pneumoniae, S. oralis, S. milleri

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51
Q

Lancefield A beta haemolytic streptococcus

A

S. pyogenes

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52
Q

Lancefield B beta haemolytic streptococcus

A

S. algalactiae

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53
Q

What does S. algalactiae cause

A

UTI or meningitidis

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54
Q

Non haemolytic streptococcus

A

S. bovis

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55
Q

Enterococcus Streptococcus

A

E. faecalis (Lancefield D)

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56
Q

What is catalase testing

A

Distinguishs strep and staph. Catalase converts H2O2 from flavoproteins into water and oxygen

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57
Q

Positive catalase test result

A

Staph, gram negatives and funghi

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58
Q

Negative catalase test result

A

Strep

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59
Q

What is coagulase testing

A

Distinguishes staph. Coagulase activates prothrombin and therefore fibrin to fibrinogen

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60
Q

How is free coagulase detected

A

tube coagulase test

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61
Q

How is bound coagulase detected

A

Slide coagulase test

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62
Q

What is a positive coagulase test

A

Clot formation, Staph aureus

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63
Q

What is a negative coagulase test

A

Clear, staph epidermidis

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64
Q

How is reduced sensitivity to penicillin detected

A

Oxacillin disc

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65
Q

What does a positive latex test suggest

A

Staph aureus

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66
Q

What is haemolysis

A

Ability of bacteria to break down red blood cells on blood agar. Used for differentiating streptococci

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67
Q

Alpha haemolysis

A

Green due to hydrogen peroxide production

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68
Q

Which bacteria cause alpha haemolysis

A

S. pneumoniae, S. oralis, S. milleri

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69
Q

Beta haemolysis

A

Clear/white due to blood cell lysis by haemolysin

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70
Q

Which bacteria cause beta haemolysis

A

S pyogenes and S algalactiae

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71
Q

Gamma haemolysis

A

No haemolysis

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72
Q

Which bacteria cause gamma haemolysis

A

E. faecalis and S. epidermidis

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73
Q

Which bacteria is sensitive to optochin disc

A

Strep pneumoniae

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74
Q

What does tetanus cause

A

Muscle locks due to over stimulation of nerves

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75
Q

What does botulin cause

A

Muscle relaxes, blocks nerves

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76
Q

What type of infection is caused by pseudomonas

A

Oppurtunistic

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77
Q

ZN positive mycobacteria

A

M tuberculosis, M leprae, M avium intracellulare

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78
Q

Gram positive anaerobic rods

A

Clostridium and proprioribacterium (p.acnes)

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79
Q

How to remember propriobacterium acnes as a anaerobic rod

A

No air to spots. Spots stop you procreating with your rod, and getting a positive pregnancy test.

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80
Q

Gram positive aerobic rods

A

Corynebacterium (C. diptheriae), listeria, bacillus, erysipelothrix

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81
Q

Gram negative anaerobic

A

Bacteriodes

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82
Q

Gram negative aerobic

A

Coliforms (Shigella, salmonella), pseudomonas, parvobacteria (H. influenzae), vibrio (V. cholera)

83
Q

Selective indicator media for gram negative bacilli

A

MacConkey agar and CLED (cysteine, lactose, electrolyte deficient)

84
Q

How is motility used to differentiate between bacteria

A

Flagella staining patterns

85
Q

Positive lactose fermentors (g-ve anaerobes)

A

E coli, klebsiella, enterobacter, citrobacter

86
Q

Negative lactose fermentors (g-ve anaerobes)

A

Salmonella and shigella

87
Q

Positive oxidative test

A

Vibrio, helicobacter, pseudomonas

88
Q

Negative oxidase test

A

Colioforms, parvobacteria

89
Q

Why do gram positive bacteria take up the gram stain

A

They have a thick peptidoglycan wall

90
Q

Antibiotic for staph auresu

A

Flucoaxacillin

91
Q

Where are staphlococcus normally found

A

Nose and skin

92
Q

What is coagulase

A

An enzyme produced by bacteria which helps fibrin clots form around bacteria, protecting them from phagocytosis

93
Q

In which type of infections do staphaloccus coagulase negative species cause

A

Oppurtunistic infections

94
Q

Which organism causes 90% of osteomyelitis

A

Staph aureus

95
Q

which antibiotics is MRSA resistant to

A

Beta lactams, gentamicin, erythromycin and tetracycline

96
Q

Staph aureus virulence factors

A

Pore forming toxins (alpha haemolysin, PVL), proteases (exfoliatin), toxic shock syndrome (stimulates cytokine release), protein A (binds to and immobilises IgG)

97
Q

Pyogenic staph aureus associated conditions

A

Wound infections, abscesses, impetigo, septicaemia, osteomyelitis, pneumonia and endocarditis

98
Q

Toxin staph aureus associated conditions

A

Scalded skin syndrome, toxic shock syndrome, food poisoning

99
Q

Coagulase negative Staph conditions

A

Infected implants, endocarditis, septicaemia

100
Q

Staph epidermidis associated infections

A

Oppurtunistic

101
Q

Staph epidermidis virulence factors

A

Ability to form persistent biofilms

102
Q

Who gets oppurtunistic infections

A

Debilitated, prostheses and catheters

103
Q

Staph saprophyticus infection

A

Acute cystitis

104
Q

Staph saprophyticus virulence factors

A

Haemogglutinin for adhesion, urease which causes kidney stones

105
Q

How do (staph epidermidis) bio films work

A

Antibiotics struggle to get through and a layer of metabolically inactive cells at the base protect the remaining cells

106
Q

Features of streptococcus pyogenes

A

Beta haemolytic, group A lancefield. Faculative anaerobe, penicillin sensitive

107
Q

What happens in alpha haemolysis

A

H2O2 reacts with Hb, causes partial greening

108
Q

What happens in beta haemolysis

A

Haemolysins O and S, complete lysis

109
Q

What happens in gamma haemolysis

A

No lysis

110
Q

What are the three ways in which streptococci can be classified

A

Haemolysis, lancefield typing, biochemical properties

111
Q

What is lancefield typing

A

Categorises catalase negative, beta haemolytic strep according to baceterial carbohydrate cell surface antigens. Clumpy indicates recognition

112
Q

Name a Lancefield group A

A

Strep pyogenes

113
Q

Name a lancefield group B and the infections it causes

A

S. agalactiae, neonatal infections

114
Q

Examples of strep pyogenes infections

A

Wound infections, tonsilitis, pharyngitis, otitis media, impetigo, scarlet fever

115
Q

Complications of strep pyogenes infections

A

Rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis (antiSLO test used to assesss severity

116
Q

S pyogenes virulence factors, on surface

A

Capsule, M protein encourages complement degradation

117
Q

S pyogenes virulence factors, enzymes

A

Hyaluranidase (for spreading), Streptokinase (breaks down clots), C5a peptidase (reduces chemotaxis)

118
Q

S pyogenes virulence factors, toxins

A

Streptolysins O and S (bind cholesterol) reason for Beta haemolysis. Erythrogenic toxin SB(beta)eA

119
Q

S. pneumoniae features

A

Rust coloured sputum, chest consolidation, draughtman colonies

120
Q

What is sputum

A

Fluid from the lower respiratory tract

121
Q

What can make s.pneumonia change from a normal commensal of the oropharynx to pathogenic

A

Hypogammaglobulinaemia and asplenia

122
Q

Which infections are caused by s.pneumoniae

A

Pneumonia, otitis media, sinusitis and meningitis

123
Q

S pneumoniae virulence factors, capsule

A

Polysaccharide (antiphagolyic), polyvalent vaccine (children under 2 have different surface proteins so are at a higher risk)

124
Q

S pneumoniae virulence factors, inflammatory wall consitituents

A

Teichoric acid (chlorine), peptidoglycan

125
Q

S pneumoniae virulence factors, cytotoxin

A

Pneumolysin

126
Q

What is viridans strep

A

General name for oral strep. alpha or non haemolytic. They cause abscesses or infective endocarditis. Milleri group are the post virulent

127
Q

Which alpha haemolytic strep is optochin sensitive

A

S. pneumoniae

128
Q

What are irregular gram positive rods

A

Cornyebacterium diptheriae

129
Q

What is the treatment for cornyebacterium diptheriae

A

Erythromycin and antitoxin

130
Q

How is diptheria spread

A

Droplets

131
Q

What does diptheria require for growth

A

Potassium telluite

132
Q

What does diptheria toxin do

A

Inhibits protein synthesis

133
Q

What does diptheria vaccine consist of

A

Toxoid

134
Q

What is a feature of gram positive bacteria

A

More peptidoglycan

135
Q

What is a feature of gram negative bacteria

A

Both inner and outer membranes

136
Q

What are the three components of LPS endotoxin

A

Outer lipid A component, Core R oligosaccharide antigen and Somatic O antigen of repeating carbohydrate units

137
Q

Which part of LPS is responsible for toxicity

A

Outer lipid A component

138
Q

Why dont mycobacteria gram stain

A

Outer mycolic acid lipid layer

139
Q

Why dont mycoplasms gram stain

A

No peptidoglycans

140
Q

Why group are mycobacteria and mycoplasms in

A

Gram negative

141
Q

Gram negative virulence factors

A

Colonisation factors (adhesins, invasins, nutrient acquisition and defense) and toxins (usually secreted proteins which cause damage and subversion)

142
Q

What are gamma proteobacteria

A

Enterobacteria (colioforms)

143
Q

Describe enterobacteria

A

Rods which are covered in flagella. some are intestinal parasite. Faculative anaerobes as the gut is largely anaerobic. Mac conkey is used to culture

144
Q

Lac positive phenotype of macconkey (latose fermenters, macconkey pink)

A

Commensal EColi

145
Q

Lac negative phenotype on macconkey (non-lactose fermenters, macconkey pale)

A

Salmonella, shigella, proteus

146
Q

How to differentiate between salmonella and shigella

A

Serology, shigella has no H antigen as it has no flagella

147
Q

What is an example of a serotype

A

H antigen on flagella

148
Q

What is an example of a serogroup

A

O antigen on LPS

149
Q

Where is K angtigen found

A

EPS (capsule)

150
Q

Whats the difference between bacteraemia and sepsis

A

Sepsis is bacteraemia when theres symptoms

151
Q

Diseases caused by E coli

A

Wound infections, UTIs, Gastroenteritis, travellers diarrhoea, bacteraemia and a meningitis

152
Q

Which Ecoli target the small intestine and what is the result of this

A

ETEC and EPEC and cause watery diarrhoea

153
Q

Which Ecoli target the large intestine and what is the result of this

A

EHEC and EIEC and cause bloody diarrhoea

154
Q

Which Ecoli causes chronic diarrhoea and where does it target

A

EAEC (aggregatitive) and it targets the large intestine

155
Q

Which Ecoli targets the urinary tract and can cause cystitis

A

UPEC

156
Q

Which toxins are produced by ETEC

A

Heat labile and heat stable toxin

157
Q

What is the action of Heat labile toxin

A

Modifies Gs protein and locks it into the active GTP state, it permanently activates adenyl cyclate= more cAMP= more phosphorylation of CFTR ion transporter= more Cl- excretion= water cotransported= diarrhoea

158
Q

What is the action of Heat stabile toxin

A

Mimics guanylin peptide hormone, activates GC-2C receptor causing more cGMP and CTFR activity etc. But has a smaller effect than heat labile

159
Q

How do EHEC and EPEC work

A

Induce pedestal formation, adhere turn on TTSS. Microvilli rearrange into pedestal allowing the entry of the bacteria

160
Q

Dysentry is a version of which bacteria

A

Shigella

161
Q

Shigella has pathology like which Ecoli

A

EIEC

162
Q

Symptoms of shigella

A

Severe bloody diarrhoea, frequent passage of stools, small volume. blood and pus, cramps and pain

163
Q

Shigella infectiivty

A

Acid tolerance good so only a small infective dose is needed. Person to person spread of via contaminated food/water. It overlies lymphoid follicles in peyers patches

164
Q

How does shigella cause disease (exciting)

A

Induces apoptosis and reinfects adjacent cells from the basolateral membrane, host actin monomers are polymerised into actin rockets to propel through the cytoplasm. Apoptotic macrophages release cytokines and cause inflammation

165
Q

Which Ecoli also produces shigella toxin

A

EHEC

166
Q

What are the virulence features of shigella

A

Catalytic (glycoside which cleaves N-adenosine band in RNA) and receptor binding region

167
Q

Which is the main type of salmonella

A

Salmonella enteritica

168
Q

Which infections are caused by salmonella

A

Gasteroenteritis, enteric fever (typhoid, systemic disease) and bacteraemia rarely

169
Q

How is salmonella caught

A

Ingested contaminated food/water

170
Q

Describe the mechanism of salmonella infection

A

Invasion of small intestine epithelium, infalmmatory response, transcytosed to the basolateral membrane, enters submucosa, intracellular replication, membrane ruffling, systemic infections due to dissemination with m φs

171
Q

Where are peyers patches

A

ileum

172
Q

Describe the mechanism of gastroenteritis

A

Bacteria mediated endocytosis, induction of chemokine release, neutrophil recruitment and migration, neutrophil induced tissue injury. Inflammatory necrosis of mucosa. Fluid+electrolyte loss=diarrhoea

173
Q

Enteric fever mechanism

A

Bacterial mediated endocytosis, transcytosis to basolateral membrane, survival in M φ, systemic spread. Initially little damage to the gut mucosa

174
Q

What is a key feature of typhoid fever

A

Inflammation and ulceration of peyers patches

175
Q

What is klebsiella

A

An environmental, oppurtnistic hospital acquired infective agenet which colonises the GI tract and oropharynx

176
Q

Describe the stools in cholera

A

Rice water stools

177
Q

How is cholera acquired

A

Faeco-oral route, high dose required (optimum ph 8)

178
Q

Describe the appearance of cholera

A

Curved road with a single polar flagellum

179
Q

Virulence factors of cholera

A

TCP pilli needed for colonisation, cholera toxin causes uncontrolled cAMP production causes Cl-, Na+ and therefore water loss

180
Q

3 examples of localised acute infections

A

Burns/wounds, UTIs, keratitis

181
Q

Systemic acute infections

A

Bacteraemia

182
Q

Acute infection in ICU patients

A

Nosocomial penumonia

183
Q

What does nosocomial mean

A

Originating in hospital

184
Q

Who gets chronic infections

A

Cystic fibrosis patients

185
Q

How is H. influenzae spread

A

nasopharyngeal carriage

186
Q

Which H influenzae strains cause infections

A

Capsulate strains

187
Q

Who gets H influenzae infetions

A

Children or smokers

188
Q

How do you culture H influenzae

A

Chocolate agar as requires haem and NAD

189
Q

H influenzae virulence factors

A

Pilli, capsule (can penetrate nasopharynx), type B main cause of meningitis- Hib vaccine. LPS causes inflammation

190
Q

What is pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Oppurtunistic pathogen found in many locations, notoriously difficult to treat

191
Q

Legionella pneumophillia where is it found

A

Aquatic environments

192
Q

Describe the pathogenicity of legionella pneumophilia

A

Bacteria take over macorphages, covers in ribosomes using the ER, using this as camouflage and evading phagocytosis

193
Q

What causes symptoms in legionella pneumophilia

A

Upregulated inflammatory immune response caused by taken over macrophage. Causing more proinflammatory genes and excessive influx of neutrophils into the lungs

194
Q

Causes of low neutrophil count

A

Leukaemia, chemotherapy and AIDS

195
Q

Describe bordatella pertussis

A

Coccobacilli, fastiduous, low infective dose

196
Q

Where does bordatella pertussis effect

A

upper respiratory tract, it adheres to the cilliated epithelium

197
Q

Bordatella pertussis virulence factors

A

Pertussis toxin- locks Gi in off state which stops inhibition of adenylate cyclase= more cAMP. CγA toxin also increases cAMP

198
Q

Which is the only gram negative cocci

A

Neisseria

199
Q

Describe neisseria

A

Non flaggelated diplococci

200
Q

Where can Neisseria be found during infection

A

CSF or urethral discharge

201
Q

Name two neisseria

A

N. meningitidis (meningococcus) and N. gonorrhoeae

202
Q

Describe meningococcus

A

Found in nasopharynx, aerosol transmission, crosses nasopharyngeal epithelium causes bacteraemia and if it crosses the BBB it causes meningitis

203
Q

Which rash is distinctive of N. meningitidis

A

non blanching, petechial or purpuric rash

phase 2 (17 decks)

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