Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Prion Proteins

A

Smallest infective agents
No DNA/RNA
Mad cow disease
Can’t be sterilised - surgical instruments must be destroyed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Viruses

A

Contain DNA/RNA

Protein coat +/- lipid envelope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Bacteria

A

DNA+RNA
Cell membrane, cell wall
Coccus, bacillus, spirochates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Eukaryote

A

No cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Gram +ve (cell wall)

A

Purple

Many layers of peptidoglycan which holds on to the purple gram stain colour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Gram -ve (cell wall)

A

Pink

Thin layer of peptidoglycan which doesn’t hold on to the gram stain as much so shows up as a pink stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lipopolysaccharide

A

Gram -ve

Potent endotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How do bacteria replicate?

A

Binary fission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Bacterial growth curve

A

Lag
Log
Stationary
Decline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

“facultative”

A

Can grow with or without oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

“obligate”

A

Aerobe - requires O2

Anaerobe - Killed by O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Exotoxin

A

Mainly gram +ve

Produced inside the cell then EXported from the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Endotoxin

A

Mainly gram -ve

Part of the gram -ve cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Spores

A

Inactive forms of bacteria that can survive adverse conditions for many years but can’t replicate
(eg - C. diff)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do yeasts replicate?

A

Budding

eg: candida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Diagnostic investigations for bacteria

A
Microscopy
Culture
PCR
Antigen detection
Antibody detection IgM (serology)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cocci

A

Mainly gram +ve (purple)
Round
Can be in clusters or chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cocci chains

A

eg: streptococcus, enterococcus
gram +ve cocci in chains
Differentiate by: Haemolysis test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cocci clusters

A

eg: staphylococcus
gram +ve cocci in clusters
Bunch of grapes
Differentiate by: Coagulase test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Bacilli

A

Rod shaped

Can be large or small

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Spirochates

A

Spiral shaped

Does not stain with gram stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

a-haemolysis

A

Partial haemolysis
Denatured haemoglobin causes green discolouration
eg: strep pneumonia, strep viridans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

b-haemolysis

A

Complete haemolysis
Produce exotoxins that lyse red cells in the agar plate
Around the colony there will be a clear zone
eg: group A strep, group B strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

y-haemolysis

A

No haemolysis
Colony has not changed the agar plate at all
eg: enterococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Group A strep “strep pyogenes”

A

Most pathogenic strep

Commonly causes tonsilitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Coagulase +ve

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Coagulase -ve

A
All staph (apart from staph aureus) 
Common cause of prosthetic joint and prosthetic heart valve infections 
Don't produce toxins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Staph aureus

A

Can produce exotoxins - damage cells
Can produce endotoxins - food poisoning
Treatment of choice: flucloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Fever (mechanism)

A

Antigenic material interacts with macrophages
Macrophages release cytokines into bloodstream
Cytokines travel to hypothalamus
PGE is released which increases body thermal set point
Body perceives it’s cold and shivers to conserve heat
Results in fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Sepsis

A

Small blood cells become ‘leaky’ and loose fluid
Lower blood vol requires heart to work harder to maintain tissue oxygenation (tachycardia)
Poor tissue oxygen perfusion shuts of blood supply to organs to make sure there is enough blood supply for brain
Blood clotting system activated
Increased risk of haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Sepsis

A

Small blood cells become ‘leaky’ and loose fluid
Lower blood vol requires heart to work harder to maintain tissue oxygenation (tachycardia)
Poor tissue oxygen perfusion shuts of blood supply to organs to make sure there is enough blood supply for brain
Blood clotting system activated
Increased risk of haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Antibiotics

A

Active against bacteria

Not active against viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Antivirals

A

Active against viruses

end in -ivir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Virus detection investigation

A

PCR (detects viral nucleic acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Spread of infection (5 I’s)

A
Inhalation - droplet, airborne
Ingestion - contact
Intercourse - contact 
Inoculation - contact 
Mother to Infant - vertical
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Most commonly missed area of hand hygiene

A

Thumb

Fingertips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When to wash hands (5)

A
  1. Before patient contact
  2. Before aseptic task
  3. After body fluid exposure risk
  4. After patient contact
  5. After contact with patient surroundings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

PPE order

A

Apron
Gloves
Gloves
Apron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Black bag

A

Domestic waste

40
Q

Orange bag

A

Clinical waste

41
Q

Orange bag

A

Clinical waste

42
Q

Bacteriostatic

A

Inhibits the growth of bacteria

43
Q

Bacteriocidal

A

Kills bacteria

44
Q

Oral administration

A

Peak serum levels 1 hour after administration

45
Q

IV administration

A

Peak serum levels 15 mins after administration

46
Q

Cell wall synthesis

A

Targeted by b-lactam ring (penecillins, cephlasporins) and glycopeptide antibiotics

47
Q

Beta-lactam antibiotics

and examples

A

Broad spectrum
Consists of all antibiotic agents that contain a beta-lactam ring in their structures
Inhibit cell wall synthesis
eg: penecillins, carbapenems, cephlasporins
Advantages: safe, variety
Disadvantages: resistance, allergies, rapidly excreted

48
Q

Penecillins - overview

A
Act on bacterial cell wall 
Beta-lactam antibiotic
Safe in pregnancy 
Excreted rapidly via kidney 
Bacteriocidal
49
Q

Penecillins - Flucloxacillin

A

Narrow spectrum

Treatment of choice for staph aureus

50
Q

Penecillins - amoxicillin

A

Broad spectrum

Challenged by b-lactamases which destroy the beta lactic ring and eventually destroy amoxicillin

51
Q

Penecillins - co-amoxiclav

A

Broad spectrum
b-lactamase inhibitor, thus it is better than amoxicillin
Combination of amoxicillin + clavulanic acid

52
Q

Penecillins - temocillin

A

Narrow spectrum

Treatment of choice for coliforms

53
Q

IV form of penicillin

A

Benzylpenicillin (aka penicillin G)

54
Q

Antibiotics that act on the bacterial cell wall

A

Targeted by b-lactam ring
Penecillins
Cephlasporins
Glycopeptides

55
Q

IM form of penicillin

A

Benzathine penicillin

56
Q

Penecillins - overview

A
All end in "-cillin"
Inhibit cell wall synthesis by blocking peptidoglycan formation
Beta-lactam antibiotic
Safe in pregnancy 
Excreted rapidly via kidney 
Bacteriocidal
57
Q

Glycopeptides - overview

A
Inhibit cell wall synthesis by inhibiting peptidoglycan synthesis
NOT a beta-lactam antibiotic 
Bactericidal 
Only works on gram +ve bacteria 
Excreted via kidneys and urine
58
Q

Glycopeptides - vancomycin

A

Administered IV

Used if MRSA is suspected

59
Q

Antibiotics which inhibit protein synthesis - e.g.

A

Attach to bacterial ribosomes

Mainly bacteriostatic - Usually protein synthesis resumes when antibiotic is removed
eg:
macrolides
tetracyclines

Some can be bactericidal
eg:
aminoglycosides

60
Q

Macrolides

A
Eg: clarithromycin, azithromycin, erythromycin 
Inhibit protein synthesis 
Bacteriostatic 
Erythromycin - safe in pregnancy 
Excreted via liver
61
Q

Tetracyclines

A
Eg: Clindamycin, doxycycline
Inhibit protein synthesis 
Bacteriostatic
Broad spectrum
Resistance is increasing
62
Q

Aminoglycosides

A
Eg: Gentamicin
Inhibit protein synthesis 
Bactericidal 
Mainly active against gram -ve aerobic organisms (coliforms)
Excreted in urine
63
Q

Antibiotics which inhibit nucleic acid synthesis - e.g.

A

Metronidazole
Quinolones
Fluoroquinolones
Trimethoprium

64
Q

Cephlasporins

A
All start in "ceph" or "cef" 
Act on bacterial cell wall to block peptidoglycan formation 
Beta-lactam antibiotic
Bacteriocidal 
Broad spectrum 
Safe in pregnancy 
Excreted via urine and kidneys
65
Q

Quinolones

A

Eg: ciprafloxicin
Inhibit nucleic acid synthesis
Bacteriocidal

66
Q

Fluoroquinolones

A

Inhibit nucleic acid synthesis
Bacteriocidal
Broad spectrum
Excreted via urine

67
Q

Trimethoprium

A

Inhibit nucleic aid synthesis
Broad spectrum
Excreted via urine

68
Q

4 C’s

A

Ciprofloxacin - quinolone
Cephlasporins -
Co-amoxiclav - penecillin
Clindamycin - tetracycline

69
Q

Tetracyclines

A
Eg: Clindamycin, doxycycline
Inhibit protein synthesis 
Bacteriostatic
Broad spectrum
Resistance is increasing
70
Q

Aminoglycosides

A
Eg: Gentamicin (IV)
Inhibit protein synthesis 
Bactericidal 
Mainly active against gram -ve aerobic organisms (coliforms)
Excreted in urine
71
Q

Combination of antibiotics in TB

A

To prevent development of resistance

72
Q

Metronidazole

A

Inhibit nucleic acid synthesis due to strand breaking of DNA
Administered oral/IV
Used for anaerobes (clostridium, bacteroides)
Avoid alcohol

73
Q

Is it safe to combine bacteriocidal and bacteriostatic antibiotics?

A

NO

74
Q

Fluoroquinolones

A

Inhibit nucleic acid synthesis
Bacteriocidal
Broad spectrum
Excreted via urine

75
Q

B-lactamases

A

Act on and destroy antibiotics with a beta lactam ring

76
Q

4 C’s

A

Ciprofloxacin - quinolone
Cephlasporins -
Co-amoxiclav - penecillin
Clindamycin - tetracycline

77
Q

Resistance to antibiotics

A

Giving unnecessary antibiotics
Giving sub-therapeutic doses
Genetic mutation - due to fast replication which can cause misreading of DNA

78
Q

Name the most common antibiotic which is given for anaerobe infection?

A

Metronidazole

79
Q

Name 4 antibiotics which work on anaerobes

A

Metronidazole
Clindamycin
Co-amoxiclav
Carbapenems

80
Q

Pseudomonas is a strict aerobe/anaerobe?

A

Strict aerobe

81
Q

Name an example of a spirochete?

A

Syphilis

82
Q

Gram +ve diplococci

A

Strep pneumonia

83
Q

Treatment of choice for strep infection?

A

Penicillin

84
Q

Enterococcus is treated with penicillin. True or false?

A

False

85
Q

Where is most gram -ve bacilli found

A

In the gut and urinary tract

86
Q

E coli

A

Gram -ve
Rod shaped bacilli
Lactose fermenter

87
Q

Gram -ve intracellular diplococci

A

Neisseria species

88
Q

Which drug is used for gram -ve organisms if gentamicin is contra-indicated?

A

Astreolam

89
Q

What does vancomycin treat?

A

MRSA

Clostridium (c diff)

90
Q

What happens to the agar plate if a bug is resistant to an antibiotic?

A

There will be growth right up to the disc, the antibiotic doesn’t stop the organism from growing

91
Q

What happens to the agar plate if a bug is sensitive to an antibiotic?

A

There will be a clear area (the drug will stop the bug from getting into that zone)

92
Q

What causes C. diff infection?

A

Use of broad spectrum antibiotics

93
Q

What is more beneficial: high dose antibiotic therapy for shorter duration? OR low dose antibiotic therapy for longer duration?

A

High dose for shorter duration

94
Q

Where are gram positive organisms usually found in the body?

A

Skin and mucous membranes

  • pneumonia
  • cellulitis
  • osteomyelitis
  • wound infection
  • line infection
95
Q

Where are gram negative organisms usually found in the body?

A

GI tract

  • UTI
  • peritonitis
  • biliary infection
  • pancreatitis
96
Q

Where are anaerobes usually found in the body?

A

Mouth, teeth, throat, sinuses, lower bowel

  • abscesses
  • dental infections
  • peritonitis
  • appendicitis
97
Q

Carbepenems

A

Active against ESBL producers
Eg meropenem
Reserve antibiotics