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RMT BY MARCH 2017!!! > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Organisms under Prokaryotes

A

Eubacteria
Cyanobacteria
Archaebacteria

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2
Q

DNA of Prokaryotes

A

Not enclosed within a membrane and usually a singular circularly arranged

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3
Q

Membrane-bound organelles of Prokaryotes

A

Absent

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4
Q

Main component of prokaryote CW

A

Polysaccharide peptidoglycan

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5
Q

Replication of prokaryotes

A

Binary fission

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6
Q

Only prokaryote/s without CW

A

Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma

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7
Q

Cytoplasmic membrane of prokaryotes

A

Fluid phospholipid bilayer WITHOUT CHO and sterol

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8
Q

Only prokaryote/s with CHO and/or sterol in their cytoplasmic mebrane

A

Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma (sterol)

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9
Q

Site of energy production in prokaryotes

A

Cytoplasmic membrane

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10
Q

Site of protein synthesis in prokaryote

A

Free ribosomes

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11
Q

Components of the peptidoglycan layer of prokaryotes

A

Chains of alternating N-acetyl-d-glucosamine and N-acetyl-d-muramic acid

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12
Q

Other term for the peptidoglycan layer

A

Murein layer

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13
Q

Structure special to Gram-positive bacteri

A

Teichoic Acid

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14
Q

Function of teichoic acid

A

Crystal violet-iodine-teichoic acid-Mg++ complex in insoluble to alcohol

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15
Q

Steps and reagents for Gram staining

A

1 stain: Crystal violet
Mordant: Gram’s iodine
Decolorizer: Acetone alcohol
2 stain: Safranin

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16
Q

Most critical step in Gram staining

A

Decolorization

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17
Q

General rule for gram staining: cocci

A

Gram positive except:
Neisseria
Brahamella
Veillonella

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18
Q

General rule for gram staining: bacilli

A 
Gram negative except:
/aerobic/
Bacillus
Corynebacterium
Erysipelotrix
Listeria
Mycobacterium
Nocardia
/anaerobic/
Actinomyces
Clostridium
Propionobacterium
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19
Q

Spore forming bacteria

A

Bacillus and Clostridium

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20
Q

Fungi-like bacteria:

A

Nocardia and Actinomyces

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21
Q

Bacteria seen in Blood film

A

Borrelia

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22
Q

Hot-staining AFS

A

Ziehl-Nelseen

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23
Q

Cold-staining AFS

A

Kinyoun

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24
Q

Steps and reagents for Ziehl-Neelsen Stain

A

1 stain: Carbol fuchsin
Mordant: Steam/heat
Decolorizer: Acid alcohol
2 stain: Methylene blue or malachite green

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25
Q

Preferred AFS for tissues

A

Kinyoun

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26
Q

Steps and reagents for Kinyoun Stain

A

1 stain: Carbol fuchsin
Mordant: Tergitol
2 stain: Acid alcohol
2 stain: Methylene blue or malachite green

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27
Q

Negative for AFS

A

Blue / Green

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28
Q

Positive for AFS

A

Red

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29
Q

Specific name for lipid inclusions; specify organism

A

Much granules; MTB

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30
Q

Specific name for polyphosphate inclusions; specify organism

A

Babes-Ernst/Metachromatic/Volutin granules; Corynebacterium

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31
Q

Stain for Babes-Ernst granules

A

Burke’s modified stain

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32
Q

Organism with bipolar bodies

A

Y. pestis

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33
Q

Stain for bipolar bodies

A

Wayson’s stain

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34
Q

Stain for spores

A

Shaeffer & Fulton
Dorner’s
Wirtz & Conklin

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35
Q

Composition of spores

A

Calcium dipicolinate / Dipicolinic acid

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36
Q

Test to differentiate spore-forming bacteria

A

/both are Gram-postive/

Bacillus: catalase + (aerobic)

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37
Q

Function of capsule

A

Increase virulence by preventing phagocytosis

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38
Q

Specific antigen for capsule

A

K antigen; Vi antigen for S. typhi

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39
Q

Composition of capsule

A

Continuous polysaccharide except for B. anthracis (polypeptide)

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40
Q

Capsular bacteria

A

H. influenze
N. meningitidis
S. pneumoniae
B. anthracis

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41
Q

Stains for capsule

A

Quelllung
Hiss
India Ink / Nigrosin

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42
Q

Bacteria with slime layer instead of capsule and causes prosthetic endocarditis

A

S. epidermidis

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43
Q

Synonymous to Fimbriae

A

Pili

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44
Q

Function of pili

A

Ordinary pili: attachment

Sex pili: conjugation

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45
Q

Atrichous

A

No flagellum

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46
Q

Monotrichous

A

Flagellum on one pole

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47
Q

Amphitrichous

A

Single lagellum at both poles

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48
Q

Lophotrichous

A

Tuft of flagellum on one or both poles

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49
Q

Peritrichous

A

Flagella all around the organism

All enterobactericae except Shigella and Klebsiella

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50
Q

Periplasmis flagella

A

Axial filaments

Found only in Spirochetes

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51
Q

Temperature for motility test

A

Room temp (25C)

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52
Q

Tests for Motility

A

Hanging Drop
Semisolid Medium (SIM)
Flagellar stains

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53
Q

Flagellar stains

A

Contain Tannic acid to precipitate and coat flagella

  • Leifson
  • Gray
  • Fisher and Conn
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54
Q

Tumbling motility

A

Listeria

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55
Q

Darting motility

A

Campylobacter

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56
Q

Gliding motility

A

Capnocytophaga

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57
Q

Component of Mycobacteria that is hard to gram stain

A

Mycolic Acid

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58
Q

Source of endotoxin

A

Gram negative bacteria

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59
Q

Differentiate exotoxin and endotoxin : release

A

Exo: by living cells; metabolically produced
Endo: part of CW; released when CW is lysed

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60
Q

Differentiate exotoxin and endotoxin :heat stability

A

Exo: labile
Endo: stable

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61
Q

Differentiate exotoxin and endotoxin : immunologic

A

Exo: converted to toxoids; easily neutralized with anti-toxin

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62
Q

Differentiate exotoxin and endotoxin : Pharmacologic

A

Exo:

  • cytotoxin: kills host cells
  • enterotoxin: damage GIT cells
  • neurotoxin: interferes with nerve impulses

Endo: non specific; fever, septic shock, DIC

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63
Q

Differentiate exotoxin and endotoxin : Toxicity

A

Exo: high
Endo: low

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64
Q

Test to detect endotoxin in body fluids and instruments

A

Limulus Lysaic Test
Reagent: blood of horseshoe cran
Positive result: clumping due to lysate

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65
Q

Fried rice pathogen

A

Bacillus cereus

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66
Q

Canned good pathogen

A

Clostridium botulinum

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67
Q

Pathogen in salad/coleslaw

A

Listeria

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68
Q

Most common pathogen causing food poisoning

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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69
Q

Obligate aerobes

A

Brucella, Bordetella, Francisella, Pseudomonas, Neisseria

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70
Q

Obligate anaerobe

A

Bacteroides, Clostridium

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71
Q

Facultative anaerobe

A

Staphylococcus, Streptococcus

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72
Q

Microaerophilic

A

Campylobacter (5% O2 10%CO2 85%N)

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73
Q

Capnophilic

A 
/HACEK/
Haemophilus
Actinobacillus
Cardiobacterium
Einella
Kingella
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74
Q

Stain/Test for anaerobes

A

Methylene blue

Negative: colorless colonies

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75
Q

Candle Jar is used to…

A

increase CO2 concentration

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76
Q

Temperature ranges for bacteria

A

Psychrophillic: less than 10C
Mesophillic: 20-40C
Thermophillic: 30-37C

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77
Q

pH ranges for growth of bacteria

A

Acidophile: pH 3
Alkaline: pH 8-10 (Vibrio)
Clinically relevant: 6.5-7.5

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78
Q

Describe each stage of the growth cycle of bacteria

A

Lag phase: little to no multiplication; adjustment period
Log phase: max multiplication; active metabolism
Stationary phase: growth = death; exhaustion of nutrients and buildup of toxins
Decline phase: increase in death; increase in toxins; low nutrients; unfavorable pH

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79
Q

Tissue media for Chlamydia culture

A

McCoy cells

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80
Q

Tissue media for viruses

A

Chick embryo, Vero cells

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81
Q

Tissue media from African green monkey

A

Vero cells

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82
Q

Tissue media from lung carcinoma

A

A549 cells

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83
Q

Tissue media from cervical carcinoma

A

HeLa cells

- Henrietta Lacks

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84
Q

Tissue media from laryngeal carcinoma

A

Hep2 cells

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85
Q

Culture media for most non-fastidious bacteria

A

Simple/General isolation/General purpose media

  • nutrient agar/broth
  • trypticase soy agar/broth
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86
Q

Culture media with nutrient supplementation

A

Enriched media

  • BAP
  • CAP
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87
Q

Culture media for enhance growth of specific bacteria

A

Enrichment media

  • Selenite and tetrathionate broth : Salmonella and Shigella
  • Alkaline Peptone Water: Vibrio
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88
Q

Culture media to select the growth of a particular organism and inhibit the growth of others

A

Selective media

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89
Q

Inhibitors for Gram positive bacteria

A 
Dyes:
- Gentian violet
- Crystal violet
Bile salt:
- Sodium desoxycholate
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90
Q

Inhibitors for Gram negative bacteria

A

Sodium azide
Potassium tellurite
Phenylethyl alcohol

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91
Q

Selective culture medium for MTB

A

Lowenstein-Jensen; Petragrani

Inhibitor: malachite green

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92
Q

Selective culture medium for C. diptheriae

A

Mueller tellurite

Inhibitor: potassium tellurite

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93
Q

Selective culture medium for N. gonorrhoeae

A

CAP with antibiotics

  1. Thayer Martin = vancomycin + colistin + nystatin
  2. Modified Thayer Martin = vancomycin + colistin + nystatin + trimethropim
  3. Martin Lewis = vancomycin + colistin + anisomycin + trimethoprim
  4. New York City Agar = vancomycin + colistin + amphotericin B + trimetoprim
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94
Q

Selective differential medium for Staphylococcus sp.

A

Mannitol Salt Agar

  • 7.5% NaCl
  • Mannitol
  • phenol red

MF: yellow colonies = S. aureus
NMF: pink colonies = S. epidermidis, S. saprophyticus

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95
Q

Selective differential media for Vibrio sp.

A

Thiosulfate Citrate Bile Salt

  • Sucrose
  • Bromthymol blue (A: yellow; K: green)

SF: yellow
NSF: green

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96
Q

Rapid lactose fermenters of Enterobacteriaceae

A

/EKE/
E. coli
Klebsiella
Enterobacter

– postive for lactose permease

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97
Q

Late lactose fermenters of Enterobacteriaceae

A 
/SSSCHY/
Serratia
Salmonella arizonae
Shigella sonici
Hafnia
Yersinia
Citrobacter

– positive for OMPG

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98
Q

Non-lactose fermenters of Enterobacteriaceae

A 
/EEMPPSS/
Edwardseialla
Erwinia
Morganella
Proteus
Providencia
Salmonella
Shigella
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99
Q

Eosin-Methylene Blue Agar

A

Lactose
LF: Pink to purple
NF: colorless

E. coli: pink colonies with green sheen
Klebsiella: pink mucoid colonies
Enterobacter: pink colonies with dark center (fish eye)

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100
Q

MacConkey Agar

A

Lactose
Crystal violet, Bile salt
Neutral red (A: red; K: colorless)

LF: pink colonies
NLF: colorless

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101
Q

Hektoen Enteric Agar

A

Lactose, sucrose, salicin
Bile salt
Bromthymol blue (A: yellow; K: blue)
Ferric ammonium sulfate

/SPACEd/: Green/colorless medium with black
- Salmonella, Proteus, Arizon, Citrobacter, Edwardsiella

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102
Q

Salmonella Shigella Agar

A

Lactose
Neutral red (A: red; K: colorless)
Ferric citrate

Salmonella: colorless colonies with black
Shigella: colorless colonies without black

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103
Q

Bile Esculin Agar

A

Group D enterococci

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104
Q

Bordet-Gengou agar

A

Isolation of B. pertussis (mercury droplet)

Potato-glycerol-based with defibrinated blood and methicillin

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105
Q

Buffered charcoal-yeast extract agar

A

Enrichment for Legionella spp.

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106
Q

CIN

A

Selective for Yersinia spp.

Cefsulodin, irgasan, novobiocin

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107
Q

Regain Lowe

A

Enrichment and selective medium for B. pertussis

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108
Q

Preferred isolation of B. pertussis

A

Regan Lowe

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109
Q

Skirrow Agar

A

Campylobacter (42-43C) and Helicobacter (35-37C)

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110
Q

Todd-Hewitt broth with antibiotics

A

Selective and enrichment for S. agalactiae

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111
Q

Human blood bilayer tween medium

A

G. vaginalis

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112
Q

Transport media for N. gonorrhea

A

Transgrow

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113
Q

Medium for susceptibility testing

A

Mueller-Hilton Agar
Depth: 4mm
pH: 7.2-7.4
24mm disk distance

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114
Q

Media for biochemical testing

A

TSI, LIA

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115
Q

Triple Sugar Iron Agar

A 
Lactose, Sucrose, Glucose
Phenol Red (A: yellow; K: red)
Ferrous sulfate (black)

Slant: LF and SF
Butt: GF, gas, H2S

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116
Q

All eterobacteriaceae are gas producers in TSI except

A

Shigella

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117
Q

Lysine Iron Agar

A

Glucose, lysine

Slant: Lysine deamination (+ red - purple)
Butt: Lysine decarboxylase (+ purple - yellow)

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118
Q

Lysine carboxylase positive

A

Salmonella

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119
Q

Lysine deaminase positive

A

Proteus
Providencia
Morganella

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120
Q

Min. Inhibitory Concentration

A

Minimum concentration that inhibits bacterial growth

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121
Q

Min. Bactericidal Concentration

A

Lowest concentration that kills bacteria

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122
Q

Disk diffusion / Susceptibility testing

A

Kirby bauer

Mueller-Hilton Agar

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123
Q

Causes increased resistance of P. aeruginosa to aminogycosides and decreased activity of tetracyclines to all organisms

A

Excessive Mg++ and Ca++

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124
Q

E-test

A

Susceptibility testing using plastic test strips with antimicrobial concentration gradient

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125
Q

Automated susceptibility testing

A

Measures optical density using Vitek systems and validated by Advanced Expert System (AES) software

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126
Q

Antimicrobial agents that interfere with CW synthesis

A

Beta-lactams (penicillin)
Bacitracin
Cycloserine
Glycopeptides

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127
Q

Antimicrobial agents that interfere with Protein synthesis

A

Aminoglycosides (-mycin, -micin)
Tetracycline (inhibit bone growth)
Chloramphenicol (last resort! causes aplastic anemia)

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128
Q

Antimicrobial agents that interfere with Nucleic Acid synthesis

A

Sulfonamides (inhibit folic acid)

Rifampicin (causes orange-red secretions)

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129
Q

Antimicrobial agents that interfere with cell membrane function

A

Polymyxin

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130
Q

Antimicrobial agents that interfere with fungi

A

Amphotericine B, nystatin, anisomycin

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131
Q

Sterilization vs Disinfection vs Antiseptic

A

Sterilization: kills ALL forms of microbial life
Disinfection: destroy all pathologic organisms but not necessarily all organisms
Antiseptic: Microbiostatic agents used on living tissues

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132
Q

Most effective method of sterilization

A

Autoclave

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133
Q

Specifics for autoclave (media and instruments)

A

121C at 15lbs psi for 15mins

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134
Q

Specifics for autoclave (medical waste)

A

132C for 30-60mins

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135
Q

Quality control for autoclave

A

Spores of Bacillus stearothermophilus

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136
Q

Types of fractional sterilization

A

a. Tyndallization

b. Inspissation

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137
Q

Flowing steam 100C for 30mins for 3 days

A

Tyndallization

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138
Q

75-80C for 3 hours for 3 days

A

Inspissation

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139
Q

Alternate heating, incubation, heating

A

Fractional sterilization

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140
Q

For sterilization of inoculating loops and needles

A

Flame

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141
Q

Oven for sterilization - temp and time

A

160-180C for 90-120min

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142
Q

Quality control for oven

A

Spores of Bacillus subtilis

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143
Q

Most common method for treating infectious waste;

870-980C

A

Incinaration

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144
Q

98% effective filter

A

Asbestos filter

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145
Q

100% bacterial sterility

0.22 micrometer

A

Membrane filter

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146
Q

Filtration of air

A

High-efficiency particulate filters

0.2 micrometer

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147
Q

Sterilizing plastic syringes, catheters, or gloves

A

Ionizing radion

Gamma rays = short wavelength, high energy

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148
Q

Most common chemical sterilant
Cold sterilization
For materials that cannot be autoclaved

A

Ethylene oxide

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149
Q

Sterilize HEPA filters in BSCs

A

Formaldehyde vapor and vapor phase hydrogen perocide

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150
Q

Sporicidal
Does not corrode lenses, metal, or rubber
Cold sterilization

A

Glutaraldehyde

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151
Q

Effective in the presence of organic material

Cold sterilization

A

Peracetic acid

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152
Q

Boiling as disinfectant

A

100C for 15mins

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153
Q

Disinfectant to eliminate food-borne pathogens

A

Pasteurization

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154
Q

Pasteurization at 63C for 30 mins

A

Batch Method

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155
Q

Pasteurization at 72C for 15 mins

A

Flash Method

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156
Q

Long wavelength, low energy

A

Non-ionizing radiation

e.g. mercury lamps

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157
Q

Phenol, phenolics, QUATs, chlorine, 2% aqueous glutaraldehyde

A

Disinfectant

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158
Q

Alcohol, tincture iodine, iodophor

A

Antiseptic

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159
Q

Why is 70% ethyl alcohol more effective than 95%?

A

Water hydrolizing bonds in protein molecules make the killing more effective

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160
Q

Can be used as a disinfectant to kill endospores but toxic to humans

A

Aldehydes: formaldehyde, glutaraldehyde

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161
Q

Iodine or chlorine disinfectant

A

Halogens

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162
Q

Composition of iodophor

A

Iodine + detergent

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163
Q

Neutralize chlorine with…

A

sodium thosulfate

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164
Q

Examples of heavy metals as disinfectants

A

Hg: merthiolate; antiseptic, antifungal
Cu: Algicide
Ag(NO3): Credes prophylaxis

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165
Q

Expression of the bactericidal power of a particular substance as compared to pure phenol

A

Phenol coefficient = highest dilution of sample needed / highest dilution of phenol needed

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166
Q

Quality control for ionizing radiation

A

Bacillus pumilis

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167
Q

Quality control for ethylene oxide

A

Bacillus sibtilis var. globii

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168
Q

BSC: open front, negative pressure, sterilize air going out

A

BSC Class 1

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169
Q

BSC: sterilize air going in and out; also known as LAMINAR FLOW BSC

A

BSC Class 2

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170
Q

BSC: system is entirely clode; air entering and leaving is sterilized by HEPA filter

A

BSC Class 3

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171
Q

Airflow patter of BSC Class 1

A

Enter front –> rear –> top –> through HEPA filter

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172
Q

Airflow patter of BSC Class 2-A

A

70% recirculated through HEPA

vExhaust via HEPA

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173
Q

Airflow patter of BSC Class 2-B1

A

30% recirculated through HEPA

Exhaust via HEPA and hard-ducted

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174
Q

Airflow patter of BSC Class 2-B2

A

No recirculation

Total exhaust via HEPA and hard-ducted

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175
Q

Airflow patter of BSC Class 2-B3

A

Same with Class 2-B2 but under negative pressure

Exhaust air is ducted

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176
Q

Airflow patter of BSC Class 3

A

Supply air inlets through 2 HEPA filters

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177
Q

Examples of critical values in microbiology

A
  • positive blood culture
  • postive CNS gram stain or culture
  • postive cryptococcal antigen test or culture
  • postive blood smear for malaria
  • S. pyogenes from a sterile site
  • MTB culture positive
  • S. agalactiae or herpes simplex virus from genital site of pregnant woman
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178
Q

Signs of growth in blood culture

A

Turbidity
Clot
Hemolysis
Bubbles

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179
Q

Additive in blood culture media set

A

SPS 0.025% (yellow top)

  • prevents phagocytosis
  • neutralizes bactericidal effect of blood serum (complement)
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180
Q

When patient is on antimicrobials

A

use thiol broth or antimicrobial removal device

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181
Q

Culture for throat and nasopharyngeal specimen

A

Todd-Hewitt broth - fluorescence mincroscopy of Beta Strep

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182
Q

Most abundant normal flora of throat

A

Alpha-hemolytic strep: Viridans

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183
Q

Most common pathogen in throat

A

Group-A strep: S. pyogenes

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184
Q

Culture for H. influenza nasopharyngeal swab

A

BAP or CAP with S. aureus streak

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185
Q

Culture for N. meningitidis nasopharyngeal swab

A

enriched BAP

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186
Q

Culture for B. pertussis nasopharyngeal

A

Charcoal cephalexin medium (Regan Lowe)

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187
Q

Bartelette’s critieria

A

For sputum specimen
< 10 epithelial cells / LPF = high saliva content
> 25 /LPF = pathologic

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188
Q

Additive for urine

A

Boric acid

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189
Q

Collection for urine

A

a. Midstream clean-catch
b. Catheterized urine
c. Suprapubic urine – anaerobic culture

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190
Q

Most common agent of UTI

A

E. coli > 100000 CFU / mL

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191
Q

Factors for callibrated loop for urine specimens

A

1 microliter loop x 1000

10 microliter loop x 100

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192
Q

Culture for genital specimens

A

McCoy’s media

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193
Q

How many tubes/collections for CSF?

A

1: chem and sero
2: micro : most important
3: hema and physical

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194
Q

Causative agent for meningitis for neonatal

A

Group B step and Gram negative rods

- S. agalactiae

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195
Q

Causative agent for meningitis for under 5

A

H. influenza

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196
Q

Causative agent for meningitis for for 5-29

A

N. meningitidis

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197
Q

Causative agent for meningitis for 30 up

A

S. pneumoniae

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198
Q

Temp storage for CSF

A

37C

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199
Q

Temp storage for urine, stool, swab, sputum

A

4C

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200
Q

Serum

A

-20C for 1 week

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201
Q

Tissues or specimens for long-term storage

A

-70C

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202
Q

Staphylococcus vs Micrococcus : morphology

A

Staph: in clusters
Micro: in tetrads/sarcinae

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203
Q

Describe Alpha hemolysis

A
  • Incomplete / partial lysis of RBCs around the colony

- Greenish discoloration around colony

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204
Q

Describe Beta hemolysis

A
  • Complete lysis of RBCs around the colony

- Clear area around the colony

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205
Q

Describe Gamma hemolysis

A
  • No lysis of RBCs
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206
Q

Describe Alpha-Prime hemolysis

A
  • Small zone of alpha hemolysis surrounded by a zone of beta hemolysis
  • Occurs after refrigeration
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207
Q

Differentiate growth of Staph spp. in Loeffler’s Serum Slant

A

S. aureus: golden yellow
S. citreus: lemon yellow
S. epidermidis: white

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208
Q

Only Mannitol-Fermenter Staphylococcus species

A

S. aureus

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209
Q

Medium for mannose fermentation

A

Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA)

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210
Q

Positive result for Catalase test

A

Effervescence / Bubbles

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211
Q

Staph vs Strep: Catalase test

A

Staph: +
Strep: -

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212
Q

Staphylococcus vs Micrococcus : Lysotaphin

A

Staph: S
Micro: R

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213
Q

Staphylococcus vs Micrococcus : Bacitracin

A

Staph: R
Micro: S

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214
Q

Staphylococcus vs Micrococcus : Modified oxidase

A

Staph: -
Micro: +

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215
Q

Staphylococcus vs Micrococcus : Glucose utilization

A

Staph: fermenter
Micro: Oxidizer

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216
Q

Positive result for Modified Oxidase test

A

Blue

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217
Q

CHO Oxidation Fermentation Test : indicator

A

Bromthymol blue

- positive: yellow

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218
Q

Most important pathogenic determinant of S. aureus

A

Coagulase

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219
Q

Slide coagulase: detects, reagent, positive result

A
  • Detects coagulase factor
  • EDTA > Citrate
  • Clumping
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220
Q

Tube coagulase: detects, reagent, positive result

A
  • Detects free coagulase
  • Rabbit’s plasma
  • gel-like fibrin clot
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221
Q

DNAse test : medium

A

DNA with methyl green

  • positive result is clearing of medium
    • : S. aureus, Moraxella, Serratia
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222
Q

S. epidermidis vs S. saprophyticus: Novobiocin

A

S. epidermidis: S (16mm)

S. saprophyticus: R

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223
Q

Pathologic determinants of S. aureus

- inhibits phagocytosis

A

Protein A

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224
Q

Pathologic determinants of S. aureus

- converts fibrinogen to fibrin; may coat neutrophils with fibrin to prevent phagocytosis

A

Coagulase

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225
Q

Pathologic determinants of S. aureus

- associated with initiation of skin infections

A

Lipase

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226
Q

Pathologic determinants of S. aureus

- aka spreading factor

A

Hyaluronidase

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227
Q

Pathologic determinants of S. aureus

- degrades DNA

A

DNAse

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228
Q

Pathologic determinants of S. aureus

- associated with staphylococcal scalded skin syndrone

A

Exfoliatins

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229
Q

Pathologic determinants of S. aureus

- lysis of neutrophils and macrophages

A

Leukocidins

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230
Q

Pathologic determinants of S. aureus

- lyse erythrocytes

A

Hemolysins

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231
Q

Pathologic determinants of S. aureus

- associated with food poisoning and TSS

A

Enterotoxins

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232
Q

Drug of choice for serious staphylococcal infections

A

Vancomycin

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233
Q

Gold standard for MRSA detection

A

mecA gene

  • by molecular NA probes
  • PRC amplification
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234
Q

Lancefield Group A : species

A

S. pyogenes

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235
Q

Lancefield Group B : species

A

S. agalactiae

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236
Q

Lancefield Group C : patho

A

Pneumobia, cellulitis, abscess

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237
Q

Lancefield Group D: species

A

S. bovis

S. equinus

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238
Q

Lancefield Group A : patho

A

URTI
Scarlet fever
Erysipelas
Impetigo

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239
Q

Lancefield Group B: patho

A

Neonatal infections

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240
Q

Lancefield Group D : patho

A

UTI

Would infections

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241
Q

Lancefield Group D subgroup resistant to penicillin

A

Enterococci

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242
Q

Brown’s classification of Streptococcus spp is based on what?

A

Hemolysis pattern

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243
Q

Strep spp. with alpha hemolysis

A
  • S. pneumoniae
  • Viridans
  • Some Group D
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244
Q

Strep spp with beta hemolysis

A
  • Group A, B, C, some D
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245
Q

Strep spp with gamma

A

Most Group D

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246
Q

Hemolysins produced by Streptococcus spp.

A

Streptolysin S

  • non-antigenic
  • surface hemolysis

Streptolysin O

  • antigenic
  • sub-surface hemolysis
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247
Q

Organism with lancet flame, bullet-shaped diplococci morphology

A

S. pneumoniae

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248
Q

Growth of Streptococcus spp. on BAP

A

Pinpoint colonies with hemolytic patterns

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249
Q

Streptococcus spp on Bile-esculin agar

A

Positive for Group D

- positive result: brown-black precipitate

250
Q

Group D subgroup with growth in 6.5% NaCl

A

Non-Enterococci

251
Q

Group D subgroup with PYRase

A

Enterococci (and Group A)

252
Q

CAMP test on Streptococcus spp.

A

Positive: Group B

253
Q

Hippurate hydrolysis on Streptococcus spp.

A

Postive: Group B

254
Q

All streptococcus species are resistant to bacitracin except

A

Group A (S. pyogenes)

255
Q

All streptococcus species are resistant to trimetoprima except

A

Group C

256
Q

Susceptibility test for Scarlet Fever (S. pyogenes)

A

Dick’s test

257
Q

Diagnostic test for Scarlet Fever (S. pyogenes)

A

Schultz-Charlton

258
Q

Not categorized under Lancefield

Alpha hemolytic on BAP

A

S. pneumoniae

Viridams strep

259
Q

S. pneumoniae vs Viridans : Bile solubility

A

S. pneumo: +

Viridans: -

260
Q

S. pneumoniae vs Viridans : optochin susceptibility

A

S. pneumo: S

Viridans: R

261
Q

S. pneumoniae vs Viridans : Neufeld Quellung

A

S. pneumo: +

Viridans: -

262
Q

Streptococci needing cystein or vit. B6

A

Abiotrophila spp.

263
Q

Streptococci thiol-requiring

A

S. adjacens

S. defectivus

264
Q

Gram-negative diplococci

A

Neisseria

265
Q

Neisseria establish disease by

A

Attachement in the mucous membranes of the host through pili

266
Q

Presumptive test for N. gonorrhoeae

A

Superoxol test

+ : violent bubbling

267
Q

Definitive ID of N. gonorrhoeae

A

Culture on enriched chocolate agar

268
Q

Disease and illnesses associated with N. gonorrheae

A
  • Leading cause of STD

- Ophthalmia neonatorium

269
Q

Disease and illnesses associated with N. meningiidis

A
  • Leading cause of meningitis in adolescents

- Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

270
Q

Cultivation of Neisseria (except N. gonorrheae)

A
  • 5% sheep blood and chocolate agar plates

- 37C

271
Q

Enterobacteriaceae : motility

A

Peritrichous except Klebsiella and Shigella (NM)

272
Q

Enterobacteriaceae : Glucose fermentation

A

GF

273
Q

Enterobacteriaceae : Catalase test

A

Positive

274
Q

Enterobacteriaceae : Oxidase test

A

Negative

275
Q

Antigenic structures of Enterobacteriaceae

A
  1. K antigen
    - heat-labile
    - capsular Ag
  2. O antigen
    - heat-stable
    - somatic Ag
  3. H antigen
    - flagellar Ag
    - denatured by heat or alcohol
    - counterpart (anti-H Ab) : IgG
276
Q

Sugar components of TSI

A

10 parts glucose
10 parts sucrose
1 part glucose

277
Q

Indole detects

A

Cryptophanase

278
Q

Positive result for indole

A

Red ring

279
Q

Medium for indole

A

Tryptone broth or Sulfur-Indole medium

280
Q

Medium for MRVP

A

Peptone Glucose broth

281
Q

Indole test indicator/s

A

Ehrlich’s
Kovac’s
PDAB

282
Q

MRVP test is for?

A

MR: methyl red –> glucose fermentation –> red (+)
VP: Voges Proskauer –> detects acetoin –> (+)

283
Q

Most enterobacteriaceae will give _____ results for MR and VP reactions

A

Opposite

284
Q

Salmonella vs Shigella :Malonate utilization test

A

Positive: blue –> Salmonella
Negative: green / yellow –> Shigella

285
Q

Rapid urease producers (within 2-4 hours)

A

Providencia
Proteus
Morganella

286
Q

Slow urease producers (after 4 hours)

A 
Citrobacter
Klebsiella
Enterobacter
Yersinia
Serratia
287
Q

Phenylanalun deaminase positive

A

Providencia
Proteus
Morganella

288
Q

Gelatin liquefaction positive

A

Serratia

Proteus

289
Q

Produce cholera-like toxin

A

Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)

290
Q

Cause Shigella-like infections

A

Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)

291
Q

Non-invasive, produces no toxin E. coli strain

A

Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)

292
Q

Responsible for outbreaks of diarrhea especially in newborns and infants

A

Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)

293
Q

Produce verotoxin

A

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)

294
Q

Verotoxin is a cytotoxin resembling that of _________

A

S. dysenteriae

295
Q

Most severe manifestation of EHEC

A

Hemolytic uramic syndrome = elevated retics

296
Q

EHEC is frequently associated with what serotype

A

E. coli O157:H7

297
Q

EHEC on MacConkey with sorbitol

A

Colorless colonies –> only strain that is sorbital negative

298
Q

E. coli strain that causes watery diarrhea and produces hemolysin-like toxins

A

Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)

299
Q

Friedlander’s bacilus

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

300
Q

Grame negative bacilli exhibiting mucoid growth, large polysaccharide capsule

A

Klebsiella

301
Q

Purulent sinus infections

A

Klebsiella ozaenae

302
Q

Granuloma of nose and oropharynx

A

Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis

303
Q

Gram negative bacilli that cause opportunistic infections like UTI, RT, and wound infections

A

Enterobacter

304
Q

Most predominent isolate of Enterobacter

A

E. cloacae

305
Q

Enterobacter that produces yellow pigmentation that intensifies at 25C

A

E. sakazaki

306
Q

Gelatinase +

Common opportunistic pathogen in hospitalized patients

A

Serratia

307
Q

Serratia species that produce red pigmentation

A

S. rubidea

S. marcescence

308
Q

Serratia species that produce rancid potato-like odor

A

S. odorifera

309
Q

Most common causes of Typhoid fever

A

S. typhi
S. paratyphi
S. cholerasuis

310
Q

Widal’s test: high titer of O >= 1:160

A

Active infection

311
Q

Widal’s test: high titer of H >= 1:160

A

Past infection or immunity

312
Q

Widal’s test: high titer of antibody to Vi antigen

A

Carriers

313
Q

Natural habitat is limited to intestinal tracts of humans and other primates, where they produce bacillary dysentery

A

Shigella

314
Q

Resembles Salmonella but are ONPG + and LDC -

A

Citrobacter

315
Q

Source of antigen for Well-Felix reaction

A

P. vulgaris

  • OX-28
  • OX-19

P. mirabilis
- OX-K

316
Q

Normal intestinal flora that may cause UTI and other infections that are often resistant to antimicrobial therapy

A

Providencia

317
Q

Can be isolated from the environment

A

Edwardsiella

318
Q

Yersinia motility

A

Motile at room temp

Non-motile at 37C

319
Q

Common vector of Yersinia

A

Xenopsylla cheopsis (rat flea)

320
Q

Stalictite pattern in broth cultures

A

Yersinia pestis

321
Q

IMVC reaction of E. coli

A

++–

322
Q

IMVC reaction of Klebsiella

A

–++

323
Q

Most common cause of death of contaminated units

A

Y. enterocolitica

324
Q

Culture for Y. enterocolitica

A

CIN medium –> bull’s eye colonies

325
Q

Most common contaminant of donor units

A

Bacillus

326
Q

IMVC reaction of Enterobacter

A

–++

327
Q

Fruity/grape-like odor

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

328
Q

Grape-like or corn tortilla-like odor of P. aeruginosa isa a results of the production of

A

2-aminoacetophenone

329
Q

Old sock odor

A

S. aureus

330
Q

Putrid odor

A

P. mirabilis

331
Q

Mousy or musty basement smell

A

Haemophilus spp.

332
Q

Freshly mowed field odor

A

Nocardia spp.

333
Q

Produces blue-green pigment

A

P. aeruginosa

334
Q

Blue-green pigments of P. aeruginosa

A

Pyocyanin

Pyoverdin

335
Q

Swimmer’s ears

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

336
Q

Simmer’s itch

A

Blood flukes

337
Q

Swimming pool granuloma

A

Mycobacterium marinum

338
Q

Skin lesion produced by P. aeruginosa

A

Ecthyma gangrenosum

339
Q

Glander’s disease

A

Burkholderia mallei

340
Q

Whitemore’s bacillus

A

Burkholderia pseudomallei

341
Q

Causes melioidosis (Vietnamese timebomb disease)

A

Burkholderia pseudomallei

342
Q

Preferred incubation for Haemophilus

A

35-37C
Capnophilic
with X and V factors

343
Q

Species that require both X and V factors

A

Haemophilus influenzae
H. hemolyticus
H. aegypticus

344
Q

Haemophilus species that does not requirer neither of the X nor Y factor

A

H. aphrophilus

345
Q

Preferred incubation for Haemophilus

A

35-37C
Capnophilic
with X and V factors

346
Q

Species that require both X and V factors

A

Haemophilus influenzae
H. hemolyticus
H. aegypticus

347
Q

Haemophilus species that does not requirer neither of the X nor Y factor

A

H. aphrophilus

348
Q

Formerly known as Pfeiffer’s bacillus

A

H. influenzae

349
Q

Most frequently encountered serotype of H. influenzae in infections

A

B serotype

350
Q

Dew drops or satellite colonies around S. aureus

A

Haemophilus influenzae

351
Q

Koch-Week’s bacillus

A

Haemophilus aegypticus

352
Q

Causes pink eye conjuctivitis

A

Haemophilus aegypticus

353
Q

Smallest pathologic bacilli

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

354
Q

Infective agent of soft chancre / chancroid

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

355
Q

Direct examination shows small bacilli in a school of fish arrangement

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

356
Q

Infective agent of hard chancre

A

Treponema pallidum

357
Q

Components of Regan Lowe media

A

Charcoal, horse blood, amphotericin B, cefalexin

358
Q

Three stages of Whooping cough

A
  1. Catarrhal : flu-like symptoms
  2. Paroxysmal: repetitive coughing episodes
  3. Convalescent: recovery
359
Q

S-shaped, microaerophilic organism associated with peptic and duodenal ulcers

A

Helicobacter pylori

360
Q

Agent of undulant fever and Malta fever

A

Brucella

361
Q

Medium for Brucella

A

Blood or bone marrow specimens in Castaneda bottlesfor 3-4 weeks

362
Q

Causative agent of whooping cough

A

Bordetella pertussis

363
Q

Ideal specimen for whooping cough dx

A

Nasopharyngeal swab

364
Q

Colonies of Bordetella in Regan-Lowe medium

A

Mercury droplets

365
Q

Brucella abortus host

A

Cattle

366
Q

Brucella melitensis

A

Sheep/goat

367
Q

Test/stain to identify Brucella species

A

Thionine and basic fuschin

368
Q

Brucella species that is inhibited by thionine but resistant to basic fuschin

A

B. abortus

369
Q

Brucella species that is resistant to both thionine and basic fuschin

A

B. melitensis

370
Q

Causative agent for Legionnaire’s disease

A

Legionella pneumophila

371
Q

Causative agent for Pontiac fever

A

Legionella pneumphila

372
Q

Causative agent for Pittsburgh pneumonia

A

Legionella micdadei

373
Q

Wiga’s agent of pneumonia

A

Legionella bozemanni

374
Q

Found in both natural and artificial water sources, in water-cooling towers for air-conditioning and heating systems

A

Legionella

375
Q

Culture medium for Legionella

A

Beye medium

376
Q

Stain for Legionella

A

Dieterie’s stain

377
Q

Specimen for dx of Legionella

A

Bronchial wash, expectorated sputum

378
Q

Agent of pasteurellosis

A

Pasteurella multocida

379
Q

Definitive host of Pasteurella

A

Oral cavity and respiratory and gastointestinal tracts of cats and dogs

380
Q

Causative agent for bacterial vaginosis characterized by foul smelling, grayish vaginal discharge

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

381
Q

Causative agent of rat bite fever and haven hill fever

A

Streptobacillus moniliformis

382
Q

Produce bleach-like odor

A

Eikenella corrodens

383
Q

Corroding bacterium; part of the gingival and bowel flora

A

Eikenella corrodens

384
Q

With the ability to produce violacein, a purple pigment

A

Chromobacterium violaceum

385
Q

Only non-motile Bacillus

A

B. anthracis

386
Q

Smallest vacteria

A

Myoplasma

387
Q

Causative agent of black escar

A

Bacillus anthracis - cutaneous anthrax

388
Q

Pulmonary anthrax

A

Woolsorter’s disease

389
Q

Colony of B. anthracis on BAP

A

Medusa head

390
Q

Colony of B. anthracis on MHA with penicillin

A

String of pearls

391
Q

Actinomyces colonies on BAP

A

Molar tooth

392
Q

MTP colonies on BAP

A

Cauliflower

393
Q

Mycoplasma colonies on BAP

A

Fried egg

394
Q

Specimen for food poisoning associated with B. cereus

A

Food

395
Q

B. anthracis vs B. cereus : motility

A

BA: NM
BC: M

396
Q

B. anthracis vs B. cereus : hemolysis on BAP

A

BA: gamma
BC: beta

397
Q

Pathology of Clostridium perfringes

A

Myonecrosis (gas gangrene) and food poisoning

398
Q

ID test for Clostridium perfringes

A

Lecithinase (Nagler reaction)

  • inner complete theta toxin
  • outer alpha-toxin and lecithinase
399
Q

Pathology of Clostridium botulinum

A

Food (canned goods) and wound botulinism

400
Q

Floppy baby

A

Infant botulism (caused by C. botulinum)

401
Q

Spores of C. botulinum

A

Oval and subterminal

402
Q

ID test for Clostridium botulinum

A

Lipase test (+)

403
Q

Etiologic agent of tetanus

A

Clotridium tetani

404
Q

Other term for C. tetani

A

Devil’s green / Risus sardonicus

405
Q

Neutrotoxin produced by C. tetani

A

Tetanospasmin

406
Q

Effect of tatenospasmin

A

Spastic contraction

407
Q

Spored of C. tetani

A

Round and terminal

408
Q

Causative agent of lampy jaw

A

Actinomyces

409
Q

Impostant cause of antibiotic (usually Clindamycin) associated pneudomembranous colitis

A

Clostridium difficile

410
Q

Spores of C. difficile

A

Oval and subterminal

411
Q

AKA Klebs-Loeffler bacillus

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

412
Q

Pathology of Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

Pseudomembranous formation of the oropharynx due to exotoxin

413
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae on LSS and Pai’s coagulated egg

A

Narrow zone of beta hemolysis

414
Q

Inclusions found in Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

Babe’s-Ernst/Metachromatic granules

415
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae on Modified Tinsdale’s agar

A

Black with brown halo

416
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae on CTBA

A

Black colonies

417
Q

Gravis type

A

1-2mm colonies on blood agar, largest colonial type

418
Q

Mitis type

A

Fried egg appearance with bleach like odor

419
Q

Intermedium type

A

Small, black colonies on colonies with gray borders on tellurite medium

420
Q

In vivo Toxigenecity Test for Corynebacterium

A

Animal inoculation (guinea pig)

421
Q

In vintro Toxigenecity Test for Corynebacterium

A

Elek’s Immunodiffusion Technique

422
Q

Susceptibility test for Diphtheria

A

Schick’s Test

423
Q

Resistant to a number of antibiotics and is associated with endocarditis, pneumonia, and peritonitis

A

Corynebacterium jeikenum

424
Q

Non-spore forming Clostridium

A

C. perfringens

425
Q

Only non-motile pathologic Clostridium species

A

C. perfringens

426
Q

Lecithinase positive Clostridium species

A

C. perfringens

427
Q

Lipase positive Clostridium species

A

C. botulinum

428
Q

Lactose fermenter Clostridium species

A

C. perfringens

429
Q

Non-glucose fermenter Clostridium species

A

C. tetani

430
Q

How to differentiate CAMP + S. agalactiae and L monocytogenes

A

Listeria monocytogenes: Catalase + (Aerobic)

Streptococcus agalactiae: Catalase - (Non-aerobic)

431
Q

Culture for L. monocytogenes

A

McBribe

432
Q

Virulence test for L. monocytogenes

A

Anton’s Test or Ocular Test (rabbit)

433
Q

To distinguish Listeria from Corynebacterium

A

Listeria: motile and salicin fermenter
Corynebacterium: NM and NSF

434
Q

Causative agent for Erysipelloid

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

435
Q

Causative agent for Erysipelas

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

436
Q

Causative agent for Butcher’s disease

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

437
Q

Normal flora of the mouth, GIT, and vaginal canal that maintains the vaginal pH

A

Lactobacillus acidophilus

438
Q

Culture for Lactobacillus acidophilus

A

Tomato juice agar

439
Q

Koch’s bacillus

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

440
Q

Content of CW of MTB

A

High lipid due o mycolic acid and cord factor

441
Q

Resistanece of MTB

A

Resistant to drying and chemical disinfections

Easily killed by moist heat; boiling, pasteurization, or steam (autoclave) for 10mins

442
Q

Ghon complexes

A

Calcified tubercles

443
Q

Skin test for TB

A

PPD – Purified Protein Derivative

  • heat-killed ammonium sulfate
  • precipitated organism injected intradermally
    • redness after 48 hours
444
Q

What Type of Hypersensitivity is PPD

A

Delayed hypersensitivity

445
Q

Primary drugs for MTB

A

Streptomycin, isoniazid, rifampicin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide

446
Q

Applicable specimens for MTB

A 
Sputum
Bronchoscopy aspirate
Blood
CSF
Pellicle / weblike clot
447
Q

Method for decontamination and digestion of Mycobacteria

A

N-acetyl-L-cysteine (NALC) – digesting

NaOH – decontaminant

448
Q

Requirements for MTB culture

A
  • Nutrient req of protein / egg

- Malachite green as inhibitor

449
Q

Stain used for MTB culture for color-blind microscopists

A

Spengler’s

450
Q 
MTB on different stains:
Ziehl-Neelsen
Kinyoun
Fite-Faraco's
Auramine-rhodamine Stain (Truant's)
Pappenheim
Baumgarten's
A
  • Ziehl-Neelsen: red
  • Kinyoun: red
  • Fite-Faraco’s: red
  • Auramine-rhodamine Stain (Truant’s): fluorescent organisms on black bg
  • Pappenheim: red
  • Baumgarten’s: blue
451
Q

CDC method for MTB reporting

A 
0                                   -
1-2/300 fields              +/- REPEAT ON SECOND SLIDE
1-9/100 fields               1+
1-9/10 fields                 2+
1-9/field                        3+
>9 / field                      4+
452
Q

Causative agent for Hansen’s disease or leprosy

A

Mycobacterium leprae

453
Q

Animal used for experiments on Hansen’s disease due to it’s suscetibility

A

Armadillo

454
Q

Susceptibility test for leprosy

A

Lepromin test

455
Q

Treatment for leprosy

A

Sulfon depson

456
Q

Causative agent for TB in animals/cattle

A

Mycobacterium bovis

457
Q

Causative agent for TB in birds

A

Mycobacterium avium

458
Q

Battery bacillus

A

Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex

459
Q

Culture for M. leprae

A

Footpads of mice; palisade or parallel

460
Q

Yellow bacillus

A

M. kansasii

461
Q

Tapwater bacillus

A

M. gordonae

462
Q

Radish bacillus

A

M. terrae

463
Q

Culture for M. fortuitum-chelonae

A

MAC without Crystal violet

464
Q

MTB on Niacin test

A

MTB lacks the enzyme to convert niacin to niacin nucleotide;

MTB: yellow

465
Q

MTB on Nitrate reduction

A

a. Broth: pinkish red

b. Strip: blue

466
Q

Mycobacterium on heat-stable catalase

A

Negative

467
Q

Mycobacterium on Tween 80 hydrolysis

A

ID for M. kansaii + pink

468
Q

Mycobacterium on Arylsulfate test

A

ID for M. fortuitum-chenolae

469
Q

Causative agent for Whipple’s disease

A

Tropheryma whipplei

470
Q

Helical aerobe organism that causes rat bite fever and is referred to as Sodoku

A

Spirillum minus

471
Q

Stain for Spirochetes

A
  1. Levaditi’s
  2. Warton-Starry
  3. Fontana Tribondeu
472
Q

Spirochete metolity

A

Cork-screw motility due to periplasmic flagella

473
Q

Causative agent louse-borne relapsing fever

A

Borrelia recurrentis

474
Q

Vector for Louse-borne relapsing fever

A

Human louse

475
Q

Vector for Tick-borne relapsing fever

A

Ornithodoro’s tick

476
Q

Causative agent Tick-borne relapsing fever

A

Borrelia hermsii

477
Q

Causative agent for Lyme Disease

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

478
Q

Vector for Lyme disease

A

Ixodes/Deer tick

479
Q

Stages of lyme disease

A

Stage 1: lesion - erythema chronicum migrans
Stage 2: dissemination through blood to nomes, CNS, heart, liver, etc
Stage 3: Neurological abnormalities, arthritis, skin lesions

480
Q

Tightly twisted spirochete

A

Treponema

481
Q

Venereal syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum

482
Q

Stages of Syphilis

A

Primary: Hard chancre
Secondary: condylomata lata
Latent: Asymptomatic
Tertiary: Gummas, neurosyphilis

483
Q

Testing for each stage of syphilis

A

Primary: dark field microscope
Secondary: Dark field or serology
Tertiary: Serology
Tertiary: Serology

484
Q

Tabes dorsalis

A

Degradation of lower spinal cord

485
Q

Yaws

A

Chronic nonvenereal disease of the skin and bones

486
Q

Causative agent of Yaws

A

T. pallidum subsp. pertenue

487
Q

Bejel

A

Lesions in oral cavity

488
Q

Causative agent of Bejel

A

T. pallidum subsp. endemicum

489
Q

Pinta

A

Ulcerative skin disease

490
Q

Causative agent of Pinta

A

T. carateum

491
Q

Leptospira morphology

A

Spirochetes with hooks

492
Q

Leptospira biflexa morphology

A

With two hooks

493
Q

Leptospira interrogans

A

With one hook

494
Q

Causative agent of human and animal leptospira

A

Leptospira interrogans

495
Q

Severe form of leptospirosis

A

Weil’s disease

496
Q

Gold standard for leptospirosis

A

Serological: MAT

497
Q

Most sensitive specimen for leptospirosis during the early stages

A

Blood

498
Q

Can be used for culture on the second week of leptospira infection

A

Urine

499
Q

Media for Leptospira culture

A

Fletchers
EMJH
Stuarts

– 6-8 weeks incubation

500
Q

Formerly Bedsonia - large virus

A

Chlamydia

501
Q

Agent of psittacosis/ornithosis

A

Chlamydia psittaci

502
Q

Infective particle of Chlamydia

A

Elementary bodies

503
Q

Metabolic particle of Chlamydia

A

Reticulate bodies

504
Q

Associated with mild respiratory tract in fections with the TWAR stain

A

Chlamydia pneumoniae

505
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis subtype associated with endemic trachoma and inclusion conjunctivitis

A

A, B, Ba, C

506
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis subtype associated with venereal infections

A

D, K

507
Q

Associated with lymphogranulomatus venereum

A

Chlamydia trachomatis subtype L1, L2, L3

508
Q

Eaton’s agent

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

509
Q

Causative agent for Community-acquired pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

510
Q

Causative agent for primary atypical pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

511
Q

Culture for Rickettsia

A

Chick embryo

512
Q

Causative agent of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

513
Q

Causative agent of Rickettsial pox

A

Rickettsia akari

514
Q

Causative agent of Epidemic typhus

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

515
Q

Causative agent of Sporadic typhus

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

516
Q

Causative agent of Brill-Zinsser disease

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

517
Q

Causative agent of Murine typhus

A

Rickettsia typhi

518
Q

Causative agent of Q fever

A

Coxiella burnetti

519
Q

Causative agent of Trench fever

A

Rochalimea quintana

520
Q

Rickettsial infections transmitted by lice

A

Epidemic Typhus
Trench fever
Sporadic typhus

521
Q

Rickettsial infections transmitted by ticks

A

RMSF

Q fever

522
Q

Rickettsial infections transmitted by mites

A

Rickettsial pox

Scrub typhus

523
Q

Rickettsial infections transmitted by fleas

A

Murine typhus

524
Q

Causative agent of Scrub typhus

A

Rickettsia tsutsugamushi

525
Q

Serological test for Mycoplasma

A

Cold agglutinins – Anti I

526
Q

Serotest for Rickettsia

A

Weil Felix reaction

527
Q

Weil Felix reaction for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

A

OX-2 +
OX-19 +
OX-K -

528
Q

Weil Felix reaction for Rickettsial pox

A

OX-2 -
OX-19 -
OX-K -

529
Q

Weil Felix reaction for Epidemic typhus

A

OX-2 +
OX-19 +
OX-K -

530
Q

Weil Felix reaction for Murine typhus

A

OX-2 +
OX-19 +
OX-K -

531
Q

Other name for Murine typhus

A

Endemic typhus

532
Q

Weil Felix reaction for Scrub typhus

A

OX-2 -
OX-19 -
OX-K =

533
Q

Weil Felix reaction for Q fever

A

OX-2 -
OX-19 -
OX-K -

534
Q

Weil Felix reaction for Trench fever

A

OX-2 -
OX-19 -
OX-K -

535
Q

Clinical manifestation of infection from Bartonella quintana

A

Trench fever

536
Q

Clinical manifestation of infection from Bartonella bacilliformis

A

Carrion’s disease

537
Q

Clinical manifestation of infection from Bartonella henselae

A

Cat-scratch disease

538
Q

Cat-bite disease

A

Pasteurella

539
Q

Multicellular phase of fungi

A

Mold phase

540
Q

Unicellular phase of fungi

A

Yeast phase

541
Q

Dimorphic fungi

A

Mold at room temp

Yeart at 37C

542
Q

Infective stage for men

A

Mold phase at 25C

543
Q

Diphasic fungi

A

Mold at 25-37C

Yeast in tissue/in vivo

544
Q

Basic structure unit that forms the mycelium

A

Hypha

plural: hyphae

545
Q

Vegetative portion of the mycelium

A

Thallus

- grows in or on a substrate and absorbs nutrients

546
Q

Reproductive portion of mycelium

A

Aerial

- fruiting bodies that produce the spores

547
Q

Spores that are contained in saclike ascus

A

Ascospores

548
Q

Spores that involve the fusion of two identical cells from same hypha

A

Zygospores

549
Q

Spores that involve the fusion of separate cells fron non-identical hyphae

A

Oospores

550
Q

Spores contained in a club-shaped basidium

A

Basidiospores

551
Q

Spores involved in sexual reproduction

A

Ascospores
Zygospores
Oospores
Basidiospores

552
Q

Spores involved in asexual reproduction

A

Conidia
BlastoconidiaChlamydoconidia
Arthroconidia
Spongiospores

553
Q

Catenate

A

Conidia in chains

554
Q

Echinulate

A

Rough and spiny conidia

555
Q

Spores produced singly or multiply in long chains or clasters as conidiosphores

A

Conidia

556
Q

Spores that develop as daughter cells that bud off the mother cell

A

Blastoconidia

557
Q

Vegetative portion of the mycelium

A

Thallus

- grows in or on a substrate and absorbs nutrients

558
Q

Reproductive portion of mycelium

A

Aerial

- fruiting bodies that produce the spores

559
Q

Spores that are contained in saclike ascus

A

Ascospores

560
Q

Spores that involve the fusion of two identical cells from same hypha

A

Zygospores

561
Q

Spores that involve the fusion of separate cells fron non-identical hyphae

A

Oospores

562
Q

Spores contained in a club-shaped basidium

A

Basidiospores

563
Q

Spores involved in sexual reproduction

A

Ascospores
Zygospores
Oospores
Basidiospores

564
Q

Spores involved in asexual reproduction

A

Conidia
BlastoconidiaChlamydoconidia
Arthroconidia
Spongiospores

565
Q

Catenate

A

Conidia in chains

566
Q

Echinulate

A

Rough and spiny conidia

567
Q

Spores produced singly or multiply in long chains or clasters as conidiosphores

A

Conidia

568
Q

Spores that develop as daughter cells that bud off the mother cell

A

Blastoconidia

569
Q

Thick walled, resistant, resting spored produced by rounding up and enlargement of terminal hyphal cells

A

Chlamydoconidia

570
Q

Produced by simple fragmentation of the mycelium

A

Arthroconidia

571
Q

Spores contained in a sac produced terminally in sporongophore or aseptate hyphae

A

Sporangiospore

572
Q

Unique spore to zygomycetes

A

Spongiospore

573
Q

No cellular response by host to this mycoses

A

Superficial mycoses

574
Q

Uneven skin color

A

Ptyriasis / tinea versicolor

575
Q

Appearance of “spaghetti with meatballs”

A

Malassezia furfur

576
Q

Causative agent for black piedra

A

Piedraia hortae

577
Q

Causative agent for white piedra

A

Trichosporon beigelli

578
Q

Species under cutaneous mycoses

A

Microsporum (M. canis, M. gymseum, M. audouinii)
Epidermophyton
Trichophyton (T. rubrum, T. mentagophytes, T. tonsurans, T. shoenleinii)

579
Q

Clinical significance of cutaneous mycoses

A

Tinea

580
Q

Tinea capitis

A

Scalp

581
Q

Tinea barbae

A

Beard

582
Q

Tinea corporis

A

Body

583
Q

Tinea cruris

A

Groin

584
Q

Tinea inguinum

A

Nails

585
Q

Tinea pedis

A

Foot

586
Q

Zoophilic Microsporum

A

Microsporum canis

587
Q

Anthrophilic Microsporum

A

Microsporum audouinii

588
Q

Cutaneous mycoses without microconidia

A

Epidermophyton floccosum

589
Q

HIgh red pigment mycoses

A

Trichophyton rubrum

590
Q

Favic chandelier, favus T. capitis

A

Trichophyton shoenleinii

591
Q

“Balloon forms” aged microconidia

A

Trichophyton tonsurans

592
Q

With V shaped penetration in hair baiting test

A

Trichophyton mentagophytes

593
Q

Green-yellow fluorescence of ectothrix hairs under Wood’s Lamp

A

Microsporum canis

594
Q

Apple-green fluorescence of ectothrix hairs under Wood’s Lamp

A

Microsporum audouinii

595
Q

Rose gardener’s disease

A

Sporotrichosis

596
Q

Dark, slow-growing fungi

A

Dematiaceous fungi

597
Q

Cladosporium type of sporulation

A

In chains –> tree-like

598
Q

Acrotheca type of sporulation

A

With peripheral growth –> test-tube brush

599
Q

Phialophora type of sporulation

A

In cluster –> flower / Rafflesia

600
Q

Most common causative agent of Madura foot

A

Pseudoallescheria boydii

601
Q

Is Sporothrix schenckii dimorphic or diphasic?

A

Dimorphic

  • mold at RT
  • cigar-shaped yeast cell at 37C
602
Q

Causative agent of North American Blastomycosis / Gilchrist’s disease

A

Blastomyces dermatitidis

603
Q

Causative agent pf South American Blastomycosis

A

Paracoccidiodes brasiliensis

604
Q

Causative agent of Darling’s disease

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

605
Q

Causative agent of San Joaquin Valley Fever

A

Coccidioides immitis

606
Q

Positive for germ tube formation

A

Candida albicans

607
Q

Can be saprophytic in oral cavities, GI or vaginal tract

A

Candida albicans

608
Q

Causative agent of turolosis/turolopsis

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

609
Q

Starburst pattern under gram stain

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

610
Q

Incubation of mycoses

A

30C (25-30C)

611
Q

Culture heldfor

A

30 days (21-30days)

612
Q

Inhibitor on Sabouraud Dextrose Agar

A

Acidic pH

613
Q

Resemble lymphocytes in CSF

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

614
Q

Mycosel or mycobiotic medium

A

Sabouraud Dextrose Agar
+ Chlorophenicol (inhibits bacteria)
+ Cyclohexamide (inhibits contaminating mycoses and C. neoformans)

615
Q

Dermatophyte test medium indicator

A

Phenol red

616
Q

Medium for C. neoformans

A

Birdseed/Nigerseed/Staib’s medium –> phenol oxidase

617
Q

Medium for B. dermatitidis

A

Cotoonseed medium

618
Q

Used to indue sporulation of fungi

A

Potato flake agar

619
Q

Recommended for plating medium of mycoses from dairy and other food products

A

Potato dextrose agar

620
Q

L-DOPA ferric citrate test

A

Phenol oxidase
+ bubbles
C. neoformans

RMT BY MARCH 2017!!! (6 decks)

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