Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RMT BY MARCH 2017!!! > Clinical Chemistry > Flashcards

Clinical Chemistry Flashcards

1
Q

Albumin g/0.1L to g/L

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Bilirubin mg/dL to umol/L

A

17.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

BUN mg/dL to mmol/L

A

0.357

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Chloride mEq/L to mmol/L

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cholesterol mg/dL to mmol/L

A

0.026

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Creatinine mg/dL to umol/L

A

88.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Glucose mg/dL to mmol/L

A

0.0555

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Potassium mEq/L to mmol/L

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Sodium mEq/L to mmol/L

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Thyroxine ug/dL to mmol/L

A

12.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Total protein g/dL to mmol/L

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Triglyceride mg/dL to to mmol/L

A

0.0113

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Uric acid mg/dL to mmol/L

A

0.0595

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Shorter wavelength = ___ energy

A

high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Visible light falls in between __nm to __nm wavelengths

A

400nm to 700nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Anticoagulant with the least interference with analyses

A

Heparin (green)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Used for most chemical blood tests

A

Lithium heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Assay of Urea Nitrogen

A

Colorimetric: Diacetyl (cheaper but lacks specificity)
Enzymatic: NH3 formation (better specificity but more expensive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Elevated urea in blood

A

Azotemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Elevated urea in blood accompanied by renal failure

A

Uremia or uremic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cause of pre-renal azotemia

A

Reduced renal blood flow or increased protein catabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cause of renal azotemia

A

Renal dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cause of post-renal azotemia

A

Obstruction of urine flow anywhere in the urinary tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Creatinine reacts with picric acid in alkaline solution to form red-orange chromogen

A

Jaffe Reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

BUN:creatine ratio

A

10-20:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

BUN:creatine ratio in prerenal disease

A

BUN rises above 10-20:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

BUN:creatine ratio in true renal disease

A

BUN and creatine both rise; 10-20:1 ratio is maintained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Cigarette smoking causes

A

Ammonia contamination; false positive in liver tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Bilirubin fractions

A

B1 (unconjugated)
B2 (conjugated)
Delta Bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

B1 / Indirect Bilirubin

A
  • noncovalently attached to Alb

- does not react with color regent until dissociated from protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

B2 / Direct Bilirubin

A
  • with 1/2 attached glucuronic acid molecules

- reacts directly with color reagent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Delta Bilirubin

A
  • covalently attached to protein

- Reacts directly to color reagent; contributes to the direct bilirubin value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The following cause increase of what type of Bilirubin?
Hemolytic anemia
Newborn
Hereditary alteration of rate of conversion
Medications

A

B1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The following cause increase of what type of Bilirubin?
Bile obstruction
Some cases of hepatitis
Medications

A

B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The following cause increase of what type of Bilirubin?

Hepatitis

A

B1 and B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

EVELYN-MALLOY ASSAY
pH: ?
Dissociating agent: ?
Diazo product: ?

A

pH: acidic
Dissociating agent: methanol
Diazo product: reddish purple (560nm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

JENDRASSIK-GROF ASSAY
pH: ?
Dissociating agent: ?
Diazo product: ?

A

pH: alkaline
Dissociating agent: caffeine-sodium benzoate
Diazo product: Blue (600nm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Diseases that contribute to elevations of unconjugated bilirubin

A
  • Gilbert
  • Crigler-Najjar
  • Physiological jaundice of newborn
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Diseases that contribute to elevations of conjugated bilirubin

A
  • Dubin-Johnson

- Rotor Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Treatment of kernicterus for children

A

Phototherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Prealbumin

A
  • Indicator of malnutrition

- Binds thyroid hormones and retinol-binding proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Albumin

A
  • Binds bilirubin, steroids ad FA

- MAJOR CONTRIBUTOR to oncotic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

a1-antitrypsin

A
  • Acute phase reactant

- Protease inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

a1-fetoprotein

A
  • Principal fetal protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

a1-lipoprotein

A
  • HDL

- Transports lipid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Haptoglobins

A
  • Binds hemoglobin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Ceruloplasmin

A
  • Peroxidase activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

a2-macroglobulin

A
  • Inhibits thrombin, trypsin, pepsin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Pre-B-lipoproteins

A
  • VLDL

- Transports lipids primarlty triglyceride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Transferrin

A
  • Transports iron
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Hemopexin

A
  • Binds heme
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

B-lipoprotein

A
  • LDL

- transports lipids primarily cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

B2-macroglobulin

A
  • Component of HLA molecules class I
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Complement

A
  • Immune response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Fibrinogen

A
  • Precursor of fibrin clot
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

C-reactive protein

A
  • Motivates phagocytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Arrange Igs according to %

A

G > A > M > D > E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Produces Abs in secretions

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Produces Abs in early response

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Produces Abs in allergic reactions

A

IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Increase in gamma area in protein electrophoresis

A

Mooclonocal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Decrease in alpha area in protein electrophoresis

A

Alpha-1 anti-typsin deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Increase in alpha-2, beta areas in protein electrophoresis

A

Nephrotic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Increase alpha-1, alpha-2, beta areas in protein electrophoresis

A

Inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Increase in beta-gamma bridge area in protein electrophoresis

A

Cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Impaired biliary copper excretion –> increase in copper in lover and eyes (Kayser-Fleischer rings)

A

Wilson’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Defect in copper absorption –> low copper –> white skin and hair

A

Menke’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Dye binding methods for serum albumin

A

Bromcresol Green and HABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Wavelength for BCG and HABA for albumin

A

Around/below 500nm

- BGG max at 630nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Apolipoprotein for HDL

A

Apo A-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Apolipoprotein for VLDL

A

Apo B-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Apolipoprotein for LDL

A

Apo B-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Apolipoprotein for Chylomicrons

A

Apo B-48

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Major source for Apo A-1

A

Liver and intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Major source for Apo B-100, Apo B-48

A

Intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Major source of Apo (a)

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Apolipoprotein for Lp (a)

A

Apo (a)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Floating B-lipoprotein

A

B-VLDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Sinking pre-B-lipoprotein

A

Lp(a)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Abnormal lipoprotein found in pts with obstructive biliary disease and LCAT deficiency

A

LpX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Normal range for Total Cholesterol

A

< 200mg/dL

CV: <3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Normal range for HDL

A

> 60mg/dL

CV: <4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Normal range for LDL

A

< 100mg/dL

CV: <4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Normal range for triglycerides

A

< 150 mg/dL

CV: <5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Lipemia

A

Serum TG exceeds 400mg/dL (4.6mmol/L)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

True of False:

Cholesterol can be assayed from non-fasting blood samples

A

True; fasting has little effect on TC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Effect on glucose: insulin

A

Decrease

  • increase cellular uptake
  • glycolysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Effect on glucose: Glucagon

A

Increase

- increase glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Effect on glucose: Cortisol

A

Increase

- stimulates gluconeogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Effect on glucose: Catecholamines

A

Increase

- stimulates glycogenolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Effect on glucose: Thyroid hormones

A

Increase

- stimulate glycogenolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Effect on glucose: Growth hormone

A

Increase

- inhibits insulin action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Standard specimen for detection of diabetes

A

Venous plasma glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Metabolism of glucose at room temp

A

7mg/dL/hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Metabolism of glucose at 4C

A

2mg/dL/hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Oral glucose tolerance tes

A

Ingest 150g/day for 2 days then perform test after 8 to 14-hour fast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Anticoagulant for glucose

A

Fluoride (gray-top)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

True or False:

Whole blood tends to give approximately 10-15% lower glucose readings than plasma

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Nelson-Somogyi

A

Glucose reduces copper in hot alkaline which in turn reduces arsenomolybdic acid –> greenish-blue complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Folin-Wu

A

Glucose reduces copper in hot alkaline which in turn reduces phosphomolybdic acid –> blue complex (molybdenum oxide)

101
Q

Neocuproine Method

A

Glucose reduces copper –> Cuprous ions complex with neocuproine –> yellow

102
Q

Formula for LDL-C

A

(TG) - (VLDL-C) - (HDL-C)

where in VLDL = TG / 2.175 (mmol/L) OR TG/5 (mg/L)

103
Q

Michaelis-Menten hypothesis

A

Relation between reaction velocity and substrate concentration

First order: rate proportional to [S]; excess enzyme
Zero order: rate proportional to [E]; excess substrate; happens after reaction reaches maximum

104
Q

2 General method to measure enzymatic reaction

A

(1) Fixed-Time
- reaction proceeds for a designated time and assumed to be linear over time
(2) Continuous-monitoring or kinetic assay
- multiple measurements, usually absorbances change

105
Q

Enzyme classes (enumerate)

A
  1. Oxidoreductase (GDP)
  2. Transferase (Creatine kinase)
  3. Hydrolase (Amylase)
    - cleave substrate then add H2O
  4. Lyases (Aldolase)
    - cleaves C-C, C-O, C-N
  5. Isomerase (Tripsephosphate isomerase)
    - converts to another isomer
  6. Ligase (Glutathione synthetase)
    - bond formation
    - ATP as energy source
106
Q

Enzyme that regulates blood pressure

A

Angiotensin-converting enzyme

107
Q

Clinical significance of creatine kinase

A

Myocardial infarction

Skeletal muscle disorder

108
Q

Clinical significance of alanine aminotransferase

A

Hepatic disorders

109
Q

Clinical significance of alkaline phosphatase

A

Hepatic disorders

Skeletal muscle disorder

110
Q

Clinical significance of acid phosphatase

A

Prostatic carcinoma

111
Q

Major factor producing false elevations in acid phosphatase

A

Hemolysis

112
Q

Wavelength selection for ACP

A

410nm

113
Q

Onset of elevation of CK in cardiac disorder

A

4-8 hrs

114
Q

Time of peak activity of CK in cardiac disorder

A

12h-24 hrs

115
Q

Onset of elevation of CK-MB in cardiac disorder

A

4-8 hrs

116
Q

Time of peak activity of CK-MB in cardiac disorder

A

24-38 hrs

117
Q

Onset of elevation of AST in cardiac disorder

A

8-12 hrs

118
Q

Time of peak activity of AST in cardiac disorder

A

24 hrs

119
Q

Onset of elevation of LD in cardiac disorder

A

12-24 hrs

120
Q

Time of peak activity of LD in cardiac disorder

A

72 hrs

121
Q

Creatine –> creatine phosphate

A

Tanzer-Gilvarg method

122
Q

Creatine phosphate –> creatine

A

Olive-Rosalki

123
Q

Lactate –> pyruvate

A

Wacker method

- 340nm absorbance can be read directly

124
Q

Pyruvate –> Lactate

A

Wroblewski-LaDue

- decrease in 340nm absorbance

125
Q

Routine measurement of electrolytes usually involves only

A

Na, K, LC-, HCO3-

126
Q

Normal range of anion gap

A

AG = (Na+) - (Cl-) - (HCO3-)
Reference: 7-16 mmol/L

AG = (Na+) + (K+) - (Cl-) - (HCO3-)
Reference: 10-20 mmol/L

127
Q

Causes of elevated anion gap

A
  1. Renal failure
    - phosphate and sulfate retention
  2. Ketoacidosis
    - starvation and diabetes
  3. Alcohol
  4. Lactic acidosis
  5. Hypernatremia
128
Q

Causes of low anion gap

A

Hypoalbuminemia and severe hypercalcemia

129
Q

Normal sodium serum

A

140 mEq/L

130
Q

Normal serum chloride

A

100 mEq/L

131
Q

Normal serum bicarbonate

A

2 mEq/L

132
Q

Substances working together to regulate blood pressure in renin-angiotensin system

A

Hormones, renin, angiotensin, aldosterone

low bp – kidney release renin – in circ., renin to angiotensin – arteriolar constriction and stimulate suparenal glands to produce aldosterone – sodium and water retention – increase in blood pressure and blood volume

133
Q

Molecules bounded to T4

A

70% Thyroxine-binding globulin
20% transthyretin
10% albumin

134
Q

GROWTH HORMONE

Endocrine grand and function

A
  • Anterior pituitary gland
  • Most abundant hormone of APG
  • Growth of skeletal muscles and long bones
135
Q

PROLACTIN

Endocrine grand and function

A
  • Anterior pituitary gland

- Production of breast milk

136
Q

ADRENOCORTICOTROPIC HORMONE

Endocrine grand and function

A
  • Anterior pituitary gland

- Stimulates adrenal cortex to release hormones

137
Q

THYROID-STIMULATING HORMONE

Endocrine grand and function

A
  • Anterior pituitary gland

- Stimulates thyroid lol

138
Q

FOLLICLE-STIMULATING HORMONE

Endocrine grand and function

A
  • Anterior pituitary gland
  • Stimulates follicle development and estrogen production
  • Sperm production
139
Q

LUTEINIZING HORMONE

Endocrine grand and function

A
  • Anterior pituitary gland
  • Stimulates ovulation; production of progesterone
  • Stimulates testes to produce testosterone
140
Q

OXYTOCIN

Endocrine grand and function

A
  • Posterior pituitary gland

- Stimulates uterine contractions an milk ejection

141
Q

ANTIDIURETIC HORMONE

Endocrine grand and function

A
  • Posterior pituitary gland
  • Causes renal reabsorption of water
  • Increase blood pressure
142
Q

THYROXINE and TRIIODOTHYROXINE

Endocrine grand and function

A
  • Thyroid Gland
  • Body’s metabolic hormone
  • Increase rate of glucose oxidation of cells
  • For normal growth and development
143
Q

CALCITONIN

Endocrine grand and function

A
  • Thyroid gland

- Calcium deposition in long bones

144
Q

PARATHYROID HORMONE

Endocrine grand and function

A
  • Adrenal cortex (outermost)

- Regulate Na+ and K+ reabsorption

145
Q

GLUCOCORTICOIDS

Endocrine grand and function

A
  • Adrenal cortex (middle)

- Resist long term stress – increase blood glucose and decrease inflammation response

146
Q

SEX HORMONES

Endocrine grand and function

A
  • Adrenal cortex (innermost)

- androgen and estrogen – secondary sex characteristics

147
Q

CATECHOLAMINES

Endocrine grand and function

A
  • Adrenal medulla

- Epinephrine and norepinephrine

148
Q

INSULIN

Endocrine grand and function

A
  • Islets of Langerhans of the Pancreas (beta cells)

- Increase rate of glucose uptake

149
Q

GLUCAGON

Endocrine grand and function

A
  • Islets of Langerhans of the Pancreas (alpha cells)

- Stimulates liver to release glucose to the blood

150
Q

ESTROGEN

Endocrine grand and function

A
  • Ovaries
  • Stimulates maturation of reproductive organs
  • Development of secondary sex characteristics
  • With progesterone, cause mentrual cycle
151
Q

PROGESTERONE

Endocrine grand and function

A
  • Ovaries

- Works with estrogen to establish mentrual cycle

152
Q

TESTOSTERONE

Endocrine grand and function

A
  • Testes
  • Maturation of male sex organs
  • Secondary sex organs
  • Production of sperm
153
Q

MELATONIN

Endocrine grand and function

A
  • Pineal gland

- Biological rhythms and reproductive behavior

154
Q

THYMOSIN

Endocrine grand and function

A
  • Thymus

- Maturation of T cells

155
Q

Screening test for acromegaly

A

Somatomedin C or Insulin-like Growth Factor 1

156
Q

Confirmatory test for acromegaly

A

Glucose suppression test (OGTT 75g glucose)

157
Q

Cushing’s syndrome

A

Increase in cortisol production

158
Q

Screening test for Cushing’s syndrome

A
  • 24hr urninary free cortisol test
  • Overnight dexamethasone suppression test (most widely used)
  • Salivary cortisol test
159
Q

Confirmatory test for Cushing’s syndrome

A
  • Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test
  • Midnight plasma cortisol
  • CRH stimulation test
160
Q

Equation that mathematically describes the dissociation of weak acids/bases

A

Henderson-Hasselbalch Equation

161
Q

Measurement of electrical potential due to activity of free ions

A

Potentiometry

162
Q

Measurement of current flow produced by an oxidation reaction

A

Amperometry

163
Q

For pO2, glucose, chloride, and peroxidase determinations

A

Amperometry

164
Q

Increase/decrease of pO2 and pCO2 during fever

A

For every degree of fever:
pO2 will fall 7%
pCO2 will rise 3%

165
Q

Derived from leaves of coca plant (Erythroxylon)

A

Cocaone

166
Q

Flowers of hemp plant

A

Marijuana

167
Q

Resin of hemp plant

A

Hashish

168
Q

Most commonly abused substance

A

Ethyl alcohol

169
Q

Blood alcohol %w/v : no obvious impairment

A

0.01-0.05

170
Q

Blood alcohol %w/v : mild euphoria

A

0.03-0.12

171
Q

Blood alcohol %w/v : decreased inhibition, loss of critical judgment, memory impairment, diminished reaction time

A

0.09-0.25

172
Q

Blood alcohol %w/v : Mental confusion, strongly impared motor skills

A

0.18-0.30

173
Q

Blood alcohol %w/v : Unable to stand or walk, vomiting

A

0.27-0.40

174
Q

Blood alcohol %w/v : Coma and possible death

A

0.35-0.50

175
Q

Blood alcohol %w/v : legally intoxicated

A

Greater than 100mg/dL of blood concentration

176
Q

From incomplete combustion

A

Carbon monoxide

177
Q

Odor of bitter almonds

A

Cyanide poisoning

178
Q

Methods of determination for heavy metal poisoning

A
  • Atomic absorption spectrophotometry
  • Anodic strippling voltametry
  • Reinsch test
179
Q

Heavy metal with high affinity for keratin

A

Arsenic

180
Q

Toxicity has been noted in patients who received long-term hemodialysis

A

Aluminum

181
Q

Once used as an analgesic

A

Bromide

182
Q

Primary product of hepatic metabolism of cocaine

A

Benzolecgonine

183
Q

How many days is cocaine detectable in urine

A

Up to 3 days; 20 days for chronic users

184
Q

Primary screening for cocaine use

A

Immunoassay

185
Q

Confirmatory test for cocaine use (and other drugs)

A

GC/MS

186
Q

Most potent and most abundant cannabinoid found in marijuana

A

THC (Tetrahydrocannabinol)

187
Q

Most commonly used to treat congestive heart failure and cardiac arrythmias

A

Cardiotropics

188
Q

Treatment for seizure disorders

A

Anticonvulsants (valproic acid)

189
Q

Anti-inflammatory drugs

A
  • Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

- Acetylsalicylic acid

190
Q

Antiasthmatics

A

Theophylline

- most commonly prescribed, both for prevention and treatment of symptomatic exacerbations

191
Q

Chemotherapeutic agents

A

Mrthothrexate

  • anti-neoplastic agent
  • treatment for psoriasis, RA, collagen vascular diseses
192
Q

Treatment and prophylaxis of manic-depression/bipolar disorder

A

Lithium

193
Q

Analgesic, antipyretic, anti-inflammatory

A

Aspirin

194
Q

A blood level medication below the therapeutic range is considered

A

Subtherapeutic – no clinical benefit

195
Q

AFP tumor marker

A

Hepatic and testicular markers

196
Q

ALP tumor marke

A

Lung cancer

197
Q

Amylase tumor marker

A

Pancreatic cancer

198
Q

BRCA-1

A

Breast or ovarian cancer

199
Q

CA-125

A

Ovarian cancer (T&R)

200
Q

CA-15.3

A

Breast cancer (T&R)

201
Q

CA-19.1

A

Gastric, pancreatic, colorectal cancer

202
Q

CA-50

A

Gastric, pancreatic cancer (T&R)

203
Q

CA-27.29

A

Breast cancer (T&R)

204
Q

Calcitonin tumor marker

A

Medulla thyroid cancer

205
Q

Cathepsin-D

A

Breast cancer

206
Q

CEA

A

Colorectal, stomach, breast, lung cancer (T&R)

207
Q

CK-1 tumor marker

A

Small cell lung cancer, prostate cancer

208
Q

Estrogen receptor tumor marker

A

Breast cancer

209
Q

GGT tumor marker

A

Hepatoma

210
Q

HER-2/neu tumor marker

A

Breast cancer (Tx)

211
Q

Nuclear matrix protein tumor marker

A

Urinary bladder cancer

212
Q

Algorithm whereby the most recent result is compared with the previously determined value

A

Delta check

213
Q

Developed by Westgard and Groth to further judge whether control results indicate out-of-control situations

A

Multi-rule procedures

214
Q

Warning rule

A

1 2s

215
Q

Allows high sensitivity to random error

A

1 3s

216
Q

Allows high sensitivity to systematic error

A

2 2s

217
Q

Allows detection of random error

A

R4s

218
Q

Allows detection of systematic error

A

4 1s; 10x

219
Q

Type of error with no trend or means of predicting it

A

Random error

220
Q

Control values different from previously established limits

A

Systematic error

221
Q

Control values that continue to increase/decrease for 6 consecutive days

A

Trend

222
Q

Control values distribute themselves one one side of the mean for 6 consecutive days

A

Shift

223
Q

Due to transient instrumental differences or improper calibration of instrument

A

Shirt

224
Q

Main cause is deterioration of reagents

A

Trend

225
Q

Control values far from main set of value

A

Outliers

226
Q

Smaller %CV = ____ precision

A

Greater

227
Q

Ability of a test to detect Disease

A

Sensitivity

228
Q

Ability of a test to detect the absence of disease

A

Specificity

229
Q

Test that compares accuracy of two methods; difference between the mean values of each procedure

A

T test

230
Q

Test that compares precision of two methods; difference between the standard deviations of two groups

A

F test

231
Q

BMI of overweight

A

25-29.9 kg/m2

232
Q

BMI of obese

A

> / 30.0 kg/m2

233
Q

Time/state before the pt has eaten or become physically active

A

Basal state

234
Q

If blood pressure cuff is used as tourniquet

A

60mmHg

235
Q

BSC : airflow in at front, rear and top through HEPA filter

A

BSC Class I

236
Q

BSC: 70% recirculated through HEPA; exhaust via HEPA

A

BCS Class II A

237
Q

BSC: 30% recirculated through HEPA; exhaust via HEPA and hard-ducted

A

BSC Class II B1

238
Q

BSC: No recirculation; total exhaust via HEPA and hard-ducted

A

BSC Class II B2

239
Q

BSC: Same as IIA but under negative pressure; exhausted air is ducted

A

BSC Class II B3

240
Q

BSC: Supply air inlets through two HEPA filtes

A

BSC Class III

241
Q

Most common POC coagulation test

A

APT

242
Q

Fire: RACE

A

Rescue
Alarm
Contain
Extinguish

243
Q

[Type of reagent water]

  • Maximum purity
  • For standard solutions, ultramicrochemical analyses, tissue/cell culture
A

Type I

244
Q

[Type of reagent water]

- most lab determinations

A

Type II

245
Q

[Type of reagent water]

- most qualitative measurements/exams

A

Type III

246
Q

[Type of centrifuge]

  • Attain horizontal position when spinning, vertical position when the head is not moving
  • 3000 rpm
A

Horizontal or swinging bucket centrifuge

247
Q

[Type of centrifuge]

  • Angled compartments and allow small particles to sediment more rapidly
  • 52 degree angle
A

Fixed-angle or angle-head centrifuge

248
Q

[Type of centrifuge]

  • high speed to separate layers of different specific gravities
  • commonly used to separate lipoproteins
A

Ultracentrifuges

RMT BY MARCH 2017!!! (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions