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RMT BY MARCH 2017!!! > ISBB > Flashcards

ISBB Flashcards

1
Q

Elie Metchnikoff

A

Phagocytosis

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2
Q

Jules Bordet

A

Complement

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3
Q

Karl Landsteiner

A

Human Blood Group Ag

- book: SSR

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4
Q

Gerald Eldelman

A

Immunologic tolerance

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5
Q

Rosalyn Yallow

A

Radioimmunoassay

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6
Q

Susumu Tonegawa

A

Ab diversity

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7
Q

Francoise Barre-Sinoussi

A

HIV

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8
Q

Poxvididae pathological manifestations

A

Vaccinia virus: cowpox
Variola major: small pox
Variola minor: alastrim

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9
Q

Chinese process for “immunization”

A

Variolation - inhale powder

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10
Q

Year of discovery of T Cell Receptor

A

1984

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11
Q

Year of Discovery of ACD

A

1943

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12
Q

Year of discovery of CPD

A

1957

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13
Q

Edward Jenner vs Louis Pasteur

A

Jenner: cross immunization (cowpox –> small pox)
Pasteur: attenuated vaccine; Father of Immunology

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14
Q

First recipient of blood transfusion

A

Pope Innocent

3 young people - all died

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15
Q

Father of Pathology

A

Virchow

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16
Q

Father of Microbiology

A

Leewenhoek

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17
Q

Gel Tech

A

By Yves LaPierre
Adv: standardization
Disadv: specific instruments

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18
Q

Charles Drew

A

Blood preservation
Transfusion tech
From American Red Cross

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19
Q

Called the Private Ag

A

Low Incidence Ag

<1% of the population

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20
Q

Natural vs Acquired

A

Natural

  • present at birth
  • std response for all Ag
  • no cell memory
  • first and second line of defense

Acquired

  • “adaptive”
  • diverse response for each Ag
  • 2nd exposure has a greater response than 1st
  • with cell memory – B and T cells
  • 3rd line of defense
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21
Q

First Line of defense

A

Skin and mucous membrane
Secrete lysozyme to attact bacterial CW
Acidity of GIT and vagina

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22
Q

Second line of defense

A

Phagocytosis – neutrocyte, monocyte, macrophage
Infammation and fever
Antimicrobial substances – complement, properdin, INF, TNF, betalysin

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23
Q

Third line of defense

A

Specialized lymphocyte – B and T cel

Abs

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24
Q

Cellular components of Natural Immune System

A

Phagocytes
Basophilic mast cells
Eosinophil
3rd population lymphocyte – null lymphocyte, NK cell (5-10%; CD 16 and CD 56)

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25
Q

Humoral Components of the Natural Immune System

A 
Complement Major
INF
Lysozyme
Antimicrobial
Lymphokine-activated Killer Cells
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26
Q

Cellular component of Adaptive System

A

T and B cells

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27
Q

Humoral components of adaptive system

A

Lymphokines

Abs

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28
Q

“Steps” in Phagocytosis

A

Initiation
Chemotaxis
Engulfment
Digestion

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29
Q

Describe the initiation of Phagocytosis

A

Initiated due to tissue damage – result of trauma or microorganism multiplication
Activated phagocyte has increased surface receptors for adherence – CD3; laminin receptor; larcyl-formyl-methionylphenylalanin receptor

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30
Q

First to migrate due to initiated phagocytosis

A

Neutrocyte

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31
Q

Role of monocyte during initiation of phagocytosis

A

Second to migrate

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32
Q

Complement component that acts as a chemotaxin

A

C5a

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33
Q

Job’s syndrome of chemotaxis

A

Normal random act

Abnormal directional/chemo activity

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34
Q

Lazy Leukocyte syndrome

A

Abnormal random and chemo activity

Test: Boyden Chamber Assay

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35
Q

What initiates engulfment

A

Large capsules

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36
Q

Opsonins

A

Interact with surface bacteria to render them acceptable to the phagocyte

    • specfic Abs
    • complement C3b
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37
Q

Complement that acts as an opsonins

A

C3b

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38
Q

Process of Digesting jn Phagocytosis

A

Lysozyme approaches phagosome – fuse – rupture – discharge hydrolitic enzymes and peroxidase

Cells become granulated as foreign materials

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39
Q

Destruction of the Antigen

A
  • formation of phagolysosome leads to release of lysosomal contents
  • activated macrophages produce nitric oxide
  • activation of NADPH oxidase from phagosome membrane leading to ROXs
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40
Q

Disease with impaired NADPH oxidase

A

Chronic Granulomatous Disease

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41
Q

Cardinal signs of Inflammation

A 
Rubor: redness
Calor: heat
Tumor: swell
Dulor: pain
Fundio laesa: loss of function
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42
Q

Vascular response during infamm

A

Vasodilation –> increase blood flow and cell permeability –> redness and heat

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43
Q

Cellular response during inflamm

A

Activation of neutrophils and macrophages –> fever

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44
Q

Interleukin responsible for fever

A

IL-2

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45
Q

Interferes with viral replicaton

A

Interferon

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46
Q

INF produced by virus-induced leukocyte

A

INF alpha

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47
Q

Major producer of INF alpha

A

Null lymphocyte

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48
Q

Produced by double stranded RNA fibroblast cell

A

IFN beta

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49
Q

Major producer of IFN beta

A

Fibroblasts and epith cells

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50
Q

Reactant/s that increase 1000x during inflamm

A

CRP and Serum Amyloid A

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51
Q

Type 2 IFN

A

Gamma

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52
Q

IFN produced by immunologically stimulated lympho

A

IFN gamma

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53
Q

Major producer of IFN gamma

A

T cell

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54
Q

IFN primarily produced as a component of the specific immune response to viral and other pathogens

A

IFN gamma

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55
Q

Cytotoxic against tumor cells and virally infected cells

A

TNF

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56
Q

TNF produced by macrophages

A

TNF alpha aka CACHETIN

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57
Q

TNF produced by CD 4+ and CD8+

A

TNF beta aka LYMPHOTOXIN

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58
Q

Series of protein whose overall fxn is to mediate inflamm

A

Complement

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59
Q

Serum protein thay exerts bactericidal and viricdal effects in the presence of C3 abd Mg++

A

Properdin

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60
Q

Heat stable cationic substance with bactericidal activity

A

Betalysin

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61
Q

Ab production is done by the body

A

Active immunity

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62
Q

Type of immunity: vaccination

A

Artificial active

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63
Q

Type of immunity: infection

A

Natural active

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64
Q

Type of immunity: administration of immune serum

A

Artificial passive

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65
Q

Type of immunity: transfer in vivo

A

Natural passive

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66
Q

Type of immunity: colustrom

A

Natural passive

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67
Q

Primary lymphoid organs

A

Thymus and BM

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68
Q

Secondary Lymphoid organd

A

Spleen, lymph nodes, peyer’s patches, tonsils, appendix, adenoids, MALT, etc

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69
Q

Cells involved in Cell-mediated immunity

A

T cell

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70
Q

Cell involved in humoral immunity

A

B cells

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71
Q

Where do T cells develop?

A

Thymus

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72
Q

End product of activation of T cells

A

Cytokines

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73
Q

Antigens for T cells

A

CD2, CD3, CD4, CD8

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74
Q

Forms rosette formation with sRBCs

A

T cells

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75
Q

Region of lymph nodes where T cells are located

A

Paracortical

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76
Q

Organ for development of B cells

A

Bone marrow

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77
Q

End product of B cells

A

Antibody

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78
Q

Antigens for B cells

A

CD19, CD20, CD21, CD40, MHC Class II

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79
Q

Identified by surface immunoglobulins

A

B cells

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80
Q

Region of lymph nodes for B cells

A

Cortical region

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81
Q

Helper-inducer T cell

A

CD4+

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82
Q

Suppressor-cytotoxic T cell

A

CD8+

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83
Q

Ratio of CD4+ : CD8+

A

2:1

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84
Q

CD4+ : CD8+ ratio of HIV

A

1:2

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85
Q

Stage of T cell dev that lacks both CD4 and CD8

A

Double-negative thymocytes

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86
Q

Stage of T cell dev where CD4 and CD8 are both expessed

A

Double-positive thumocyte

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87
Q

After selection, T cells migrate to…

A

Medulla

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88
Q

Percent of peripheral T cells expressing CD4

A

2/3 = 65%

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89
Q

Life span of resting T cells in peripheral organs

A

Several years

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90
Q

T helper cells 1 (Th1) produce

A

IFN-y and TNF-B which protect cells against intracellular pathogens

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91
Q

T helper cells 2 (Th2) produce

A

Variety of interleukins

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92
Q

Essential role of Th2 cells

A

Help B cells produce antibodies against extracellular pathogens

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93
Q

Receptor of activated T cells for IL-2

A

CD 25

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94
Q

Secreted by sensitized T cells

A

Cytokines

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95
Q

Immune response by sensitized T cells

A

Cell-mediated immunity

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96
Q

Precursor cells in antibody production

A

B cells

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97
Q

Distinctive markers of this stage of B cells include CD19, CD45

A

Pro-B cells

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98
Q

Pro-B cells have intracellular proteins for the gene rearrangement of chromosome…

A

Chromosome 14 – codes for the heavy chain of Ab molecule

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99
Q

First synthesized heavy chains in Pre-B cells

A

mu chains – IgM

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100
Q

Kappa light chain chromosome

A

Chromosome 2

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101
Q

Lambda light chain chromosome

A

Chromosome 22

102
Q

Stage of B cell distinguished by the appearance of complete IgM

A

Immature B cells

103
Q

Other surface proteins on immature B cell

A

CD 21, CD 40, MHC Class II

104
Q

Target cell of EBV

A

CD 21

105
Q

In addition to IgM, this stage of B cells also exhibit IgD

A

Mature B cells

106
Q

Unless contact with Ag occurs, what is the life span of mature B cells

A

Few days

107
Q

Upon stimulation of B cells to an Ag, it undergoes transformation into a _____

A

Blast stage –> forms memory cells and Ab-secreting plasma cells

108
Q

Name of the process wherein B cells transform into Blast stage

A

Ag-dependent phase of B cell development

109
Q

Site for Ag-dependent activation of B cells

A

Primary follicles of peripheral lymphoid organ

110
Q

B cell characterized by abundant cytoplasmic Ig with little to no surface Ig

A

Plasma cell

111
Q

Most fully differentiated lymphocyte

A

Plasma cell

112
Q

Main function of plasma cell

A

Ab production

113
Q

CD2

Cell type and function?

A
  • Thymocytes, T cells, NK cells

- T cell activation

114
Q

CD3

Cell type and function?

A
  • Thymocytes, T cells

- Assoc. with T cell antigen receptor; TCR transduction

115
Q

CD10 aka Calla Ag

Cell type and function?

A
  • B and T cell precursors, bone marrow stromal cells

- Common acute lymphocyte – leukocyte Ag

116
Q

CD16

Cell type and function?

A
  • Macrophage, NK cells, neutrophils

- Phagocytosis and ADCC

117
Q

CD34

Cell type?

A
  • Hematopoietic stell cell
118
Q

CD56

Cell type and function?

A
  • NK cells, subsets of T cells

- Not known

119
Q

Lab identification for Lymphocytes

A
  1. Cell Flow Cytometry
    - Forward: Cell size
    - Side: Cell granulation
  2. Fluorescence microscopy
  3. Rosette Test
120
Q

Genes that control expression of a large group of proteins

A

Major Histocompatibility Complex

121
Q

Chromosome for gene coding of MHC in humans

A

Short arm of Chromosome 6

122
Q

Genetic loci of MHC Class I

A

HLA - A, B, C

123
Q

Genetic loci for MHC Class II

A

HLA - DP, DQ, DR

124
Q

Chain structure of MHC Class I

A

Alpha chain + beta2 microglobulin

125
Q

Chain structure of MHC Class II

A

Alpha chain + beta chain

126
Q

Cell distribution of MHC Class I

A

All nucleated cells

127
Q

Cell distribution of MHC Class II

A

B cells, APCs (Antigen Presenting Cells)

128
Q

Antigen presentation of MHC Class I

A

To CD8+ –> TNF-Beta OR lymphotoxin

129
Q

Antigen presentation of MHC Class II

A

To CD4+ –> Plasma cells for antibody proloferation

130
Q

Substance that is capable of inducing an immune response and antibody production

A

Immunogen

131
Q

Antigenic determinant

A

Epitope

132
Q

Parts of an antigen

A
  1. Carrier
    - protein nature = high MW
    - immunogenic
  2. Hapten
    - non-protein = low MW
    - antigenic
133
Q

Importance of HLA typing

A
  1. Tissue/Organ transplant
  2. Disease association
  3. Paternity Testing
134
Q

Factors affecting immunogenecity

A
  1. Foreignness
  2. Size
  3. Chemical composition and complexity
  4. Rouse, dosage, and timing
  5. Adjuvants
135
Q

Autograph/autoantigen

A

From same individual

136
Q

Allogen/isograft

A

From different individual but same species

137
Q

Heteroantigen/Heterograft

A

From different species

138
Q

Most immunogenic transplant tissue

A

Bone marrow

139
Q

Least immunogenic transplant tissue

A

Cornea

140
Q

Potent Antigen size

A

MW >= 10 000 daltons

141
Q

Size of a “Good immunogen”

A

MW >= 40k daltons

142
Q

Size of an “Excellent immunogen”

A

MW >= 1M daltons

143
Q

Function of adjuvants

A

To enhance immune responce

144
Q

General functions of immunoglobulins

A
  1. Neutralize toxic substances
  2. Facilitates phagocytosis
  3. Combine with antigens on cellular surfaces to destroy cells
145
Q

Theory of antibody diversity stating that prior to contact, cells already have receptors and the antigen then binds to specific/proper receptors to break them off and enter the circulation as antibody molecules

A

Ehrlich’s Side-Chain Theory

146
Q

Theory of antibody diversity stating that cells produce “general” template of antibodies and antigens would act as a mold

A

Template theory

- by Felix Haurowitz

147
Q

Theory of antibody diversity stating that lymphocytes produce specific Ig

A

Clonal selection

- by Niels Jerne and Macfarlane Burdet

148
Q

Structure of IgG

A

Monomer

149
Q

Structure of IgM

A

Pentamer

150
Q

Structure of IgA

A

Serum: monomer
Secretion: dimer

151
Q

Structure of IgD

A

Monomer

152
Q

Structure of IgE

A

Monomer

153
Q

Concentration % of Igs

A

G > A > M > D > E

154
Q

“Heaviest” Ig and with the highest sedimentation coefficient

A

IgM

155
Q

Ig with the longest half life

A

IgG (23 days)

156
Q

Complement fixation of Igs

A

IgG: Classical
IgM: Best!; multiple binding
IgA: Alternative

157
Q

Only Ig that is able to cross the placenta

A

IgG

158
Q

Heavy chain of IgA

A

Alpha

159
Q

Heavy chain of IgD

A

Delta

160
Q

Heavy chain of IgE

A

Epsilon

161
Q

Heavy chain of IgG

A

Gamma

162
Q

Heavy chain of IgM

A

Mu

163
Q

Light chain kappa:lambda ratio

A

2:1 or 65%:35%

164
Q

Bond between HC and LC

A

Disulfide bonds

165
Q

Flexible region of an Ig

A

Hinge region

- proline determines flexibility

166
Q

Number of domains in a light chain

A

2 (VL and CL)

167
Q

Number of domains in a heavy chain

A

4 (VH and 3CH)

168
Q

Ig with extra CH4 –> HC with 5 domains

A

IgM and IgE

169
Q

Papain cleavage of monomer

A
  • Cleaves above hinge

- Results to 3 fragments = 2 Fab and Fc

170
Q

Pepsin cleavage of monomer

A
  • Cleaves below hinge

- Results to 2 fragments = F (ab)2 and FC’

171
Q

Major/general functions of IgG (5)

A
  1. Provide immunity for newborn
  2. Fixation of complement
  3. Opsonization
  4. Neutralization of toxins and viruses
  5. Agglutination and precipitation reactions
172
Q

IgG subclasses cross placenta except

A

IgG2

173
Q

Best IgG subclass for the fixation of complement

A

IgG3

174
Q

All IgG subclasses fix complement except

A

IgG4

175
Q

Functions of IgM

A
  1. Complement fixation
    - most efficient
  2. Agglutination
    - best!
  3. Opsonization
  4. Neutralization of toxins
176
Q

Subclass of IgA found in serum

A

IgA1

177
Q

Subclass of IgA found in secretions

A

IgA2

178
Q

What produces the secretory component of IgA

A

Epithelial cells

179
Q

Function of IgD

A
  • Immunoregulation

- Postulated to be anti-idiotypic antibody –> feedback mechanism of B cells

180
Q

Secondary Ig to appear on B cells

A

IgD

- primary is IgM

181
Q

Ig that mediates hypersensitivity reactions, allergies, and anaphylaxis

A

IgE

182
Q

Ig generally responsible for immunity against parasites

A

IgE

183
Q

IgE molecule is unique because it binds strongly to ______ to release histamines and heparin

A

Mast cells and basophils

184
Q

RIST for IgE

A

Test for Total IgE

185
Q

Radioallergosorbent Test for IgE

A

Measures specific IgE

186
Q

Factor ___ claves C3b and C4b

A

Factor I

187
Q

Cofactor of I to inactivate C3b and prevents binding of B to C3b

A

Factor H

188
Q

Function of Decay Accelerating Factor

A

Dissociates C3 convertase

189
Q

C2 deficiency

A
  • Lupuslike syndrome
  • Recurrent infections
  • Atherosclerosis
190
Q

Complement component/s deficiency that is/are associated with lupuslike syndrome

A

C1, C2, C4

191
Q

C3 deficiency

A
  • Severe recurrent infections

- Glomerulonephritis

192
Q

Complement component/s deficiency that is/are associated with Neisseria infections

A

C5-C8(C9)

193
Q

Complement component/s deficiency that is/are associated with hereditary angioedema

A

C1INH

194
Q

Complement component/s deficiency that is/are associated with paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A

DAF, MIRL

195
Q

Most common complement component deficiency

A

C2

196
Q

Most severe and most recurrent complement component deficiency

A

C3

197
Q

Recognition unit for the complement system

A

C1

198
Q

Anaphylatoxin-associated complement component/s

A

C4a, C3a, C5a

199
Q

Chemotoxin-associated complement component

A

C5a

200
Q

Opsonin-associated complement component/s

A

C3a

201
Q

C3 convertase classical cascade

A

C4b2a OR C4b2b

202
Q

C3 convertase alternative cascade

A

C3bBb

203
Q

C5 convertase classical cascade

A

C4b2a3b OR C4b2b3b

204
Q

C5 convertase alternative cascade

A

C3bBb3b

205
Q

Ions associated with the complement system

A

Ca++ and Mg++

206
Q

Autoimmune disease associated with HLA-DR3

A
  • SLE Class 2
  • Scleroderma (weak association)
  • Sjogren’s syndrome
207
Q

Autoimmune disease associated with HLA-DR4

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

208
Q

Autoimmune disease associated with Complex Age dependent

A

Myasthenia Gravis

209
Q

Antibodies associated with Grave’s disease

A

Anti-TSH receptor antidobies –> hyperthyroidm

210
Q

Antibodies associated with pernicious anemia

A

Anti-parietal cell antibodies and anti-intrinsic factor antibodies

211
Q

Antibodies associated with Goodpasteur’s syndrome

A

Anti-glomerular basement membrane

212
Q

Antibodies associated with Primary Billary Cirrhosis

A

Anti-microbial antibody

213
Q

Antibodies associated with Chronic Active Hepatitis

A

Anti-Smooth Muscle antibody –> hypothyroidism

214
Q

Antibodies associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

Antimicrosomal antibody

215
Q

Initial force of attraction that exists between a single Fab site on Ab and a single epitope/determinant on Ag

A

Affinity

  • Ionic bond
  • H-bond
  • Hydrophobic
  • Vander waals forces
216
Q

Sum of all attractive forces between a multivalent Ag and a multivalent Ab

A

Avidity

217
Q

Smooth curve in Ouchterlony Double Diffusion

A

Serological identity

218
Q

Crossed lines in Ouchterlony Double Diffusion

A

Non-identity

219
Q

Spur formation in Ouchterlony Double Diffusion

A

Partial identity

220
Q

Chromosome coding for ABO Blood Group

A

Chromosome 9

221
Q

Chromosome coding for Rh

A

Chromosome 1

222
Q

Chromosome coding for MNS

A

Chromosome 4

223
Q

Chromosome coding for Kell

A

Chromosome 7

224
Q

CChromosome coding for Kidd

A

Chromosome 18

225
Q

Chromosome coding for H, Lewis, Lutheran

A

Chromosome 19

226
Q

Genes for the ABH antigens code for:

a. enzyme
b. sugar

A

Enzyme

227
Q

H gene codes for what enzyme?

A

L-fucosyltransferase

228
Q

A gene codes for what enzyme?

A

N-acetylegalactosaminyltransferase

229
Q

B gene codes for what enzyme?

A

D-galactosyltransferase

230
Q

L-fucosyltransferase attaches to what sugar?

A

L-fucose

231
Q

N-acetylegalactosaminyltransferase attaches to what sugar?

A

N-acetyl-D-galactosamine

232
Q

D-galactosyltransferase attaches to what sugar?

A

D-galactose

233
Q

Individuals who did not inherit the H antigen and are mistaken to be Group 0

A

Bombay individuals

234
Q

Amount of H Antigen in ABH phenotypes

A

o > A2 > B > A2B > A1 > A1B

235
Q

Acquired A antigen is associated with infections caused by __________

A

Proteus mirabilis

236
Q

Acquired B antigen is associated with infections caused by __________

A

Proteus vulgaris and E. coli O86

237
Q

Acquired B antigen : EPIC

A

E. coli O86
Proteus vulgaris
Intestinal obstruction
Carcinoma of colon / rectum

238
Q

Predominant Ig of antibodies produced by Blood Group A and B

A

IgM

  • naturally occuring
  • react at room temp
239
Q

Predominant Ig of antibodies produced by Blood Group O

A

IgG

  • immune antibodies
  • react at 37C
240
Q

Rh Blood Factor of D

A

Rho

241
Q

Rh Blood Factor of d

A

None

242
Q

Rh Blood Factor of C

A

rh’

243
Q

Rh Blood Factor of c

A

hr’

244
Q

Rh Blood Factor of E

A

rh”

245
Q

Rh Blood Factor of e

A

hr”

246
Q

Mechanism wherein D antigens expressed appear to be complete but are few in number

A

Genetic Weak D

247
Q

Mechanism wherein the allele carrying D is trans to the allele carrying C

A

C Trans

248
Q

Mechanism wherein one or more parts of the D antigen is missing

A

D Mosaic or Partial D

249
Q

Rh with the highest D antigen

A

Rh deleted

250
Q

RBC morphology of Rh null individuals

A

Stomatocyte

RMT BY MARCH 2017!!! (6 decks)

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