Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Jess > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Purple gram stain

A

Gram positive (wall/membrane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pink gram stain

A

Gram negative (membrane/wall/membrane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Classes of antibiotics which inhibit cell wall synthesis

A 
Beta lactams (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems)
Glycopeptides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Benzylpenicillin

A

Beta lactam - penicillin (inhibits cell wall synthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Ceftriaxone

A

Beta lactam - cephalosporin (inhibits cell wall synthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Meropenem

A

Beta lactam - carbapenem (inhibits cell wall synthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Vancomycin and teicoplanin

A

Glycopeptides (inhibit cell wall synthesis); gram +ves only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Classes of antibiotics which inhibit protein synthesis

A 
Aminoglycosides
Tetracyclines
MSL group - macrolides, lincosamides, streptogramins
Chloramphenicol
Oxazolidinones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Gentamicin, amikacin and tobramycin

A

Aminoglycosides (inhibits protein synthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Doxycycline

A

Tetracycline (inhibits protein synthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Erythromycin

A

Macrolide (inhibits protein synthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Synercid

A

Streptogramin (inhibits protein synthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Clindamycin

A

Lincosamide (inhibits protein synthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Chloramphenicol

A

Eye drops for bacterial conjunctivitis (inhibits protein synthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Linezolid

A

Oxazolidinones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Antibiotics which inhibit DNA synthesis

A

Fluoroquinolones

Nitroimidazoles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin

A

Fluoroquinolones (inhibit DNA synthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Metronidazole

A

Nitroimidazole (inhibit DNA synthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Antibiotics which inhibit RNA synthesis

A

Rifamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Rifampicin

A

Rifamycin (inhibits RNA synthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Antibiotics which produce cell membrane toxin

A

Polymyxin e.g. colistin

Cyclic lipopeptide e.g. daptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Colistin

A

Polymyxin (cell membrane toxin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Daptomycin

A

Cyclic lipopeptide (cell membrane toxin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Antibiotics which inhibit folate metabolism

A

Sulfonamides

Diaminopyrimidines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Sulphamethoxazole

A

Sulfonamide (inhibits folate metabolism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Trimethoprim

A

Diaminopyrimidine (inhibits folate metabolism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Antibiotic for gram negative sepsis

A

Aminoglycosides e.g. Gentamicin
3rd generation cephalosporins e.g. ceftriaxone
Carbapenems e.g. meropenem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Antibiotic for intracellular organisms e.g. chlamydia

A

Tetracyclines e.g. doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Treatment of gram positive infections

A

Penicillins or macrolides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Antibiotic for anaerobes and protozoa

A

Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Treatment of PCP

A

Co-trimoxazole (trimethoprim + sulphamethoxazole)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Penicillins are ineffective against which bacteria?

A

Bacteria which lack cell walls e.g. Mycoplasma or Chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

1st generation cephalosporin

A

Cephalexin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

2nd generation cephalosporin

A

Cefuroxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

3rd generation cephalosporin

A

Cefotaxime
Ceftriaxone
Ceftazidime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How do beta-lactams work?

A

Weakened cell wall –> bactericidal against rapidly dividing bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Mechanism of action of aminoglycosides e.g. gentamicin

A

Bind to 30S ribosomal subunit –> prevents elongation of peptide cahin and causes misreading of codons along mRNA –> bactericidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Side effects of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

A

Aminoglycosides e.g. gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Mechanism of action of tetracyclines e.g. doxycycline

A

Binds reversibly to ribosomal 30S subunit –> bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Side effects of photosensitive rash and teeth discolouration of unborn children

A

Tetracyclines e.g. doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Mechanism of action of macrolides e.g. erythromycin

A

Binds to ribosomal 50S subunit –> interferes with translocation –> bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Chloramphenicol mechanism of action

A

Binds to 50S subunit of irbosome, inhibits peptide bond formation during translocation –> bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Side effects of aplastic anaemia and grey baby syndrome

A

Chloramphenicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Side effect of orange secretions

A

Rifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Mechanism of resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics in Staph. aureus and Gram negative bacilli (coliforms)

A

Inactivation: Beta lactamases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Mechanism of resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics in MRSA

A

Altered target: mecA gene encodes a novel PBP (2a). Low affinity for binding beta-lactams.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Mechanism of resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics in Strep. pneumoniae

A

Altered target: Acquisition of a series of stepwise mutations in PBP genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Mechanism of resistance to cephalosporins in E.coli and Klebsiella

A

ESBLs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Mechanism of resistance to macrolides

A

Altered targets: modification of 23s RNA redues binding of antbiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Broad spectrum antibiotics

A

Co-amoxiclav, Tazocin, Ciprofloxacin, Meropenem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Narrow spectrum antibiotics

A

Flucloxacillin, Metronidazole, Gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Four mechanisms of antibiotic resistance

A

BEAT:
Bypass antibiotic-sensitive step in pathway e.g. MRSA
Enzyme-mediated drug inactivation e.g. beta-lactamases
Impairment of Accumulation of the drug e.g. tetracycline resistance
Modification of the drug’s Target in the microbe e.g. quinolone resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Antibiotic for skin infections

A

Flucloxacillin (S. aureus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Antibiotic for pharyngitis

A

Benzylpenicillin 10 days (group A beta haemolytic strep aka Strep. pyogemes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Antibiotic for invasive Group A Strep.

A

Clindamycin + early debridement + IVIG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Antibiotic for mild CAP

A

Amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Antibiotic for severe CAP

A

Co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Antibiotic for HAP

A

Cephalosporin e.g. cefurozime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Antibiotic for bacterial meningitis

A

Ceftriaxone

Add amoxicillin if Listeria likely (young/old)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Antibiotic for meningitis

A

Cefotaxime + Amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Antibiotic for simple community cystitis

A

Trimethoprim 3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Antibiotic for hospital acquired UTI

A

Cephalexin or augmentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Antibiotic for severe sepsis

A

Cefuroxime, metronidazole +/- gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Antibiotic for neutropenic sepsis

A

Tazocin + gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Antibiotic for C. diff

A

PO Metronidazole first line

PO Vancomycin second line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Organisms causing UTI

A

E. coli
Proteus mirabilis
Klebsiella
Staphylococcus saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Treatment of pyelonephritis

A

IV cefuroxime +/- gentamicin

IV co-amoxiclav +/- gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Infection indicated by what amount of bacteria in urine?

A

> 10^5 cfu/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Acid fast, non-motile, bacilli

A

Mycobacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Auramine or Ziehl-Neelsen staining

A

Mycobacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Swimming pool granuloma

A

Mycobacteria marinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Chronic progressive painless ulcer

A

Mycobacteria ulcerans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Slow-growing non-tuberculous (atypical) mycobacteria

A

Mycobacterium avium intracellulare
M. marinum
M. ulcerans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Fast-growing non-tuberculous (atypical) mycobacteria

A

M. abscessus
M. chelonae
M. fortuitum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Multifocal bronchiectasis with multiple small nodules

A

Mycobacterium avium intracellulare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Culture medium for TB

A

Lowenstein Jensen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

TB treatment regime

A

RIPE for 2 months: rifampicin, isoniazid (+ pyridoxine), pyrazinamide, ethambutol
RI for 4 months: rifampicin + isoniazid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Rifampicin side effects

A

Orange secretions
Raised transaminases
Induces cytochrome P450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Isoniazid side effects

A 
Peripheral neuropathy (give B6 pyridoxine)
Hepatotoxicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Pyrazinamide side effects

A

Hepatotoxicity, hyperuricaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Ethambutol side effects

A

Visual disturbance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Treatment of TB meningitis

A

Continue rifampicin and isoniazid for additional 2-4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Latent TB treatment

A

6 months isoniazid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is BCG vaccine?

A

Attenuated M. bovis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Causative organism of leprosy

A

Mycobacterium leprae

Mycobacterium lepromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Infective cause of flaccid paralysis

A

Clostridium botulinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Causes of meningitis in neonates

A

Group B Strep.
E. coli
Listeria monocytogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Cause of meningitis

A

Haemophilus influenza B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Causes of meningitis >5 yo

A 
Neisseria meningitidis
Streptococcus pneumoniae (leading cause in adults in UK)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Causes of aseptic meningitis

A

Coxsackie group B

Echoviruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

India ink stain

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Encephalitis with gram +ve rod

A

Listeria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

ARVs for pregnant & BF women

A

Tenofovir
Lamivudine
Efavirenz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

ARVs for BF infants

A

Nevirapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

ARV for untreated women with HIV at childbirth

A

Nevirapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Treatment for hep. B

A

Interferon alpha 2a
Lamivudine
Tenofovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Used to prevent RSV in children with heart and lung disease

A

Ribavirin (guanosine analogue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Treatment of CMV

A

Gancyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Treatment of influenza A

A

Amantadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Treatment of influenza A and B

A

Zanamivir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Nucleoside analogue which inhibits reverse transcriptase

A

Zidovudine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Rusty coloured sputum

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Atypical pneumonia + cold agglutinins

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Rose spots in pneumonia

A

Chlamydia psittaci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Most common triggers of erythema multiforme

A
  1. HSV

2. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

GI infection + descending paralysis

A

Clostridia botulinum (give antitoxin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Vacuum packed / canned foods –> GI infection

A

Clostridia botulinum

108
Q

Watery diarrhoea and cramps, systemic illness, 8-16 hours after eating reheated meat.

A

Clostridia perfringens

109
Q

Gas gangrene

A

Clostridia perfringens

110
Q

Reheated rice –> sudden vomiting (4 hrs) +/- watery diarrhoea

A

Bacillus cereus

111
Q

Prominent vomiting + watery diarrhoea. Virulence factor protein A. Catalse, coagulase +ve. Tetrads, clusters on gram stain. Beta haemolytic on blood agar. Enterotoxin –> IL-1 and IL-2.

A

Staph. aureus

112
Q

Gram -ve, toxigenic, travellers diarrhoea acting on jejunum and ileum

A

Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)

113
Q

Gram -ve, invasive dysentery

A

Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)

114
Q

Gram -ve, haemorrhagic dysentery, caused by verotoxin

A

EHEC

115
Q

Anaemia, thrombocytopenia and renal failure

A

HUS

116
Q

HUS

A

E. coli 0157:H7

117
Q

Gram -ve, infantile diarrhoea

A

EPEC (E. coli)

118
Q

Treatment of E. coli

A

Self-limiting but can treat with ciprofloxacin

119
Q

Facultative anaerobes, oxidase negative

A

E. coli

120
Q

Slow onset fever + constipation + relative bradycardia. Splenomegaly, rose spots, anaemia and leukopenia.

A

Salmonella typhi / paratyphi

121
Q

Treatment of Salmonella

A

Ceftriaxone or ciprofloxacin

122
Q

Self-limiting diarrhoea after poultry, eggs, meat

A

Salmonella enteritides

123
Q

Painful bloody diarrhoea, mucosal inflammation and fever, distal ileum and colon

A

Shigella (shiga enterotoxin)

124
Q

Entercolitis, mesenteric adenitis w/ necrotising granulomas, reactive arthritis and erythema nodosum.

A

Yersinia enterocolitis

125
Q

4C cold enrichment

A

Yersinia enterocolitis

126
Q

Poo from domestic animals

A

Yersinia enterocolitis

127
Q

Rice water stool

A

Vibrio cholerae

128
Q

Shellfish

A

Vibrio cholerae

129
Q

Comma shaped, late lactose fementers, oxidase positive

A

Vibriosis

130
Q

Massive diarrhoea without inflammation. Cl- efflux.

A

Vibrio cholerae

131
Q

Cellulitis in shellfish handlers. Fatal septicaemia wiht D&V in HIV pts.

A

Vibrio vulnificus (treat with doxycycline)

132
Q

Ingestion of raw undercooked seafood (Japan). 3 days of diarrhoea. Often self-limiting.

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus (treat with doxycycline)

133
Q

Unpasteurised milk

A

Campylobacter jejuni

134
Q

Headache and fever, abdo cramps, bloody (foul smelling) diarrhoea

A

Campylobacter jejuni

135
Q

Curved, s-shaped, microaerophilic, oxidase +ve, motile, sensitive to nalidixic acid

A

Campylobacter jejuni

136
Q

Associated with Guillain Barre and Reiter’s

A

Campylobacter jejuni

137
Q

Treatment of Campylobacter jejuni

A

Erythromycin or cipro if first 4-5 days

138
Q

GI watery diarrhoea, cramps, headache, fever, little vomiting

A

Listeria monocytogenes

139
Q

Refrigerated food (veg) and unpasteurised dairy

A

Listeria monocytogenes

140
Q

Treatment of Listeria monocytogenes

A

Ampicillin, Ceftriaxone, Cotrimoxazole

141
Q

V or L shaped, beta haemolytic, aesculin +ve, tumbling motility

A

Listeria monocytogenes

142
Q

Mobile trophozoite in diarrhoea (protozoa)

A

Entamoeba histolytica

143
Q

Flask-shaped ulcer on histology

A

Entamoeba histolytica

144
Q

MSM, RUQ pain (liver abscess), chronic weight loss

A

Entamoeba histolytica

145
Q

Treatment of entamoeba histolytica

A

Metronidazole + paromomycin if luminal disease

146
Q

Pear-shaped trophozoite (protozoa)

A

Giardia lamblia

147
Q

Travellers, hikers, MSM, with foul smelling non-bloody diarrhoea

A

Giardia lamblia

148
Q

Treatment of Giardia

A

Metronidazole

149
Q

Severe diarrhoea in immunocompromised, infects jejunum

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

150
Q

Oocysts seen in stool by modified Kinyoun acid fast stain

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

151
Q

Treatment of Cryptosporidium parvum

A

Paramomycin

152
Q

Anaerobic GI infection

A

Clostridia

153
Q

Aerobic GI infecion

A

B. cereus

S. aureus

154
Q

Lactose fermenters

A

E. coli

155
Q

Non-lactose fermenters

A

Salmonella
Shigella
Yersinia

156
Q

Protozoa

A 
Entamoeba histolytica
Giardia lamblia
Cryptospordium
Malaria
Trpyanosomiasis
Leishmaniasis
157
Q

Causes of secretory diarrhoea (no fever, no WBC in stool sample)

A 
Vibrio cholerae
ETEC
EAEC
EPEC
EHEC
158
Q

Causes of inflammatory diarrhoea (fever, neutrophils in stool sample)

A

Campylobacter jejuni
Shigella spp.
Salmonella
EIEC

159
Q

Causes of enteric fever (fever, mononculear cells in stool sample)

A

Salmonella typhi
Yersinia
Brucella

160
Q

Cleaves sialic acid residues, allows virion to exit host cell

A

Neuraminidase activity

161
Q

Binds sialic acid receptors, membrane fusion and virus entry. Endosomal-viral envelope fusion = release.

A

Haemogluttinin activity

162
Q

Mutation of HA/NA to give new strains

A

Antigenic drift

163
Q

Complete change of HA/NA (can only occur with influenza A)

A

Antigenic shift

164
Q

Cleavage of influenza HA by what causes extended tropism / growth for H5 and H7

A

Clara tryptase

165
Q

Antiviral for influenza A

A

Amantadine (targets M2 ion channel)

166
Q

Neuraminidase inhibitors (for influenza A and B)

A

Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
Zanamivir (Relenza)
Sialic acid

167
Q

Split or subunit flu vaccine. High risk groups. Short term strain-specific immunity.

A

Inactivated flu vaccine

168
Q

Cold adapted virus limited to URT given to children. Broader more cross reactive immunity.

A

Live attenuated flu vaccine

169
Q

Treatment for hepatitis C

A

Interferon alpha 2b

Ribavirin

170
Q

Hepatitis causing raised AST and ALT

A

Hepatitis B

171
Q

Hepatitis causing raised ALT

A

Hepatitis C

172
Q

HBsAg

A

Indicates viral replication in the liver. Active infection (acute or chronic).

173
Q

HBeAg

A

Secreted protein. Indicates high level of viral replication and infectivity.

174
Q

HBcAg

A

Found only in infected liver cells. Not in blood.

175
Q

Anti-HBs

A

Indicates immunity (previous infection or vaccination). Not found in chronic carriers.

176
Q

Anti-HBe

A

Indicates low infectivity and reduced viral load

177
Q

Anti-HBc IgM

A

Indicates recent infection

178
Q

Anti-HBc IgG

A

Indicates previous exposure to HBV (chronic carriers and those who clear it)

179
Q

Most reliable marker of infectivity in hepatitis B

A

HBV viral load

180
Q

Pneumococcal vaccine given to babies

A

Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (Prevenar 13)

181
Q

Pneumococcal vaccine given to 65yo

A

Purified polysaccharide vaccine (Pneumovax)

182
Q

Triad of measles presentation

A

Cough/coryza, conjunctivitis and rash

183
Q

Koplik’s spots

A

Measles

184
Q

Complications of measles

A 
Pnuemonitis
Otitis media
Severe diarrhoea
Convulsions
Encephalitis
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (after 7 yrs)
185
Q

Measles virus

A

Morbillivirus

186
Q

Mumps virus

A

Paramyxovirus

187
Q

Complications of mumps

A

Pancreatitis 4%
Oophoritis 5%
Orchitis 25% of post-pubertal men
Meningitis and deafness

188
Q

Rubella virus

A

Togavirus

189
Q

Rubella presentation

A

Mild illness, swollen lymph glands, low grade fever, malaise and conjunctivitis. Maculo-papular discreet rash on face/neck/body. Swollen joints and arthritis.

190
Q

Congenital rubella syndrome triad (first trimester)

A

Sensorineural deafness, eye abnormalities and congenital heart disease

191
Q

Guanosine analogue

A

Aciclovir

192
Q

Aciclovir used to treat

A

HSV1 HSV2 VZV

193
Q

Causes of aciclovir resistance

A

Mutations in thymidine kinase 95% (Aciclovir not phosphorylated)
Mutations in DNA polymerase 5%

194
Q

Treatment for ACV-resistant HSV

A

Foscarnet or Cidofovir

195
Q

Cause of interstitial pneumonia, retinal exudate and haemorrhage, and owl’s eye inclusions

A

CMV

196
Q

Congenital CMV

A

RCHEP: retinitis, colitis, hepatitis, encephalitis, pneumonitis

197
Q

Treatment of CMV

A

IV ganciclovir
IV foscarnet
Cidofovir

198
Q

Ganciclovir side effect

A

BM suppression

199
Q

Foscarnet (pyrophosphate analogue) side effects

A

Renal impairment and electrolyte disturbance

200
Q

Cidofovir (nucleoside analogue) side effects

A

Nephrotoxic

201
Q

HHV6 causes?

A

Sixth disease aka exanthem subitum; v. high fever, coryza, sudden rash

202
Q

HHV8 causes?

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma and Castleman’s disease

203
Q

Oseltamivir

A

Neuraminidase inhibitor (oral)

204
Q

Zanamivir

A

Neuroaminidase inhibitor (dry powder inhaler)

205
Q

Antiviral for influenza A and B

A

Neuraminidase inhibitors

206
Q

Amantidine

A

Inhibits influenza A matrix protein M2

207
Q

First line treatment regime for Hep B

A

Peginterferon 2alpha, entecavir, and tenofovir

208
Q

Entecavir and lamivudine

A

Inhibitors of viral polymerase (nucleotide analogues)

209
Q

Tenofovir

A

Inhibitor of reverse transcriptase (nucleotide analogue)

210
Q

‘Flying saucer’ shaped cysts on microscopy with Gomori’s methanimine silver stain

A

PCP

211
Q

Fever, non-productive cough, weight loss, night sweats. Widespread pulmonary infiltrates.

A

PCP

212
Q

Alpha haemolytic gram +ve cocci arranged in pairs

A

Strep. pneumoniae

213
Q

Optochin sensitive

A

Strep. pneumoniae

214
Q

Optochin insensitive

A

Strep. viridans

215
Q

Beta haemolytic gram positive cocci arranged in grape-like clusters. Catalase positive.

A

Staph. aureus

216
Q

Headache, myalgia, confusion, rhabdomyolysis, abdominal pain, hyponatraemia, hypophosphataemia, deranged LFTs

A

Legionella pneumophila

217
Q

COPD infective exacerbation organism; aerobic gram -ve diplococci.

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

218
Q

Chocolate agar

A

Haemophilus influenzae

219
Q

Tumbling motility

A

Listeria

220
Q

Profuse watery diarrhoea + enterotoxin. cAMP activation.

A

Vibrio cholerae

221
Q

Rose spots in gastroenteritis

A

Salmonella typhi

222
Q

GI infection, multiples in Peyer’s patches

A

Salmonella typhi

223
Q

Meningitis after contact with animals

A

Leptospirosis (Weil’s syndrome)

224
Q

Microscopic agglutination test +ve

A

Leptospirosis

225
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum causative organism

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

226
Q

Gummatous lesions

A

Tertiary syphilis

227
Q

Donovan bodies

A

Klebsiella granulomatis

228
Q

Treatment of MRSA

A

Vancomycin

229
Q

Treatment for infective exacerbation of COPD

A

Doxycycline

230
Q

Spaghetti with meatballs appearance

A

Pityriasis versicolore

231
Q

Aspergillosis / aflatoxin cancer association

A

HCC

232
Q

Rose gardener’s disease

A

Sporothrix schenkii (sporotrichosis)

233
Q

Rocky mountain fever

A

Rickettsia

234
Q

Cerebral negri bodies

A

Rabies

235
Q

Treatment of EBV-related post-transplant lymphoproliferative disease

A

Reduce immunosupression

Rituxmab (anti-CD20; B cells)

236
Q

Spindle cells on biopsy

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma (HHV8)

237
Q

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopthy virus

A

JC virus

238
Q

Giant cell pneumoniae

A

Measles in immunocompromised pt

239
Q

Serious infections in pregnancy

A 
TORCH:
Toxoplasmosis
Other: syphilis, parvovirus B19, VZV, influenza
Rubella
CMV
HSV
240
Q

12 week booking infection screening

A

Syphilis, Hep B, HIV, rubella

241
Q

Commonest infectious cause of developmental delay and congenital abnormalities

A

CMV

242
Q

Congenital varicella syndrome

A

VZV limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, scarring

Cf. neonatal varicella (around parturition) - severe disseminated infection

243
Q

Management of infant of HBsAg +ve mother

A

HBV vaccine within 12 hours of delivery

244
Q

Management of infant of HBeAg +ve mother

A

HBV vaccine within 12 hours of delivery + HBIG at birth

245
Q

Management of mother with HBV viral load >10^6 copies

A

Antenatal antiviral therapy (lamivudine or tenofovir) for 6-8 weeks prior to delivery + HBV vaccine for infant within 12 hours of delivery and HBIG at birth

246
Q

Parvovirus B19 in first 20 weeks

A

3% risk hydrops fetalis

247
Q

3 biggest Abx leading to C. diff

A

3C’s: Clindmycin, Cephalosporins, Ciprofloxacin

248
Q

Brodies abscess

A

Subacute osteomyelitis

249
Q

Definitive host of parasite

A

Where sexual reproduction takes place

250
Q

Intermediate host

A

Parasite in asexual stage

251
Q

Protozoa

A

Malaria
Trypanosomiasis
Leishmaniasis

252
Q

Chagas disease

A

Trypanosoma cruzi (protozoan)

253
Q

Treatment for oral thrush

A

Nystatin

254
Q

Lobar pneumonia organism

A

Strep. pneumoniae

255
Q

Mantoux test >5mm +ve in:

A

􀁳􀀀 Patients with HIV
􀁳􀀀 A recent contact of a person with TB disease
􀁳􀀀 People with fibrotic changes on chest radiograph consistent with prior TB
􀁳􀀀 Patients with organ transplants
􀁳􀀀 People who are immunosuppressed for other reasons (for example taking the equivalent of >15 mg/day of prednisone for 1 month or longer)

256
Q

Mantoux test >10mm +ve in:

A

􀁳􀀀 Recent immigrants (

257
Q

Mantoux test >10mm +ve in:

A

Anyone

258
Q

Pneumonia + red-currant jelly sputum

A

Klebsiella

259
Q

Cystic pneumonia following influenza

A

Staph. aureus

260
Q

Boat-shaped organisms, silver stain

A

PCP

261
Q

Bat’s wings appearance

A

PCP

262
Q

UTI in catheterised pt

A

Klebsiella

263
Q

Septic arthritis in young person

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

264
Q

Threadworm treatment

NB: –> pruritis ani

A

Mebendazole

265
Q

Negri bodies

A

Pathognomonic of rabies

266
Q

Treatment of typhoid

A

IV ceftriaxone +/- gentamicin

267
Q

Myalgia, ‘breakbone fever’, retro-orbital pain, sunburn-like rash

A

Dengue

Jess (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions