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JL Principles > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

0
Q

What part of “Herpes simplex” is the species name?

A

simplex

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1
Q

What part of “Staphylococcus aureus” is the genus name?

A

Staphylococcus

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2
Q

What are the names of infectious proteins that have no DNA or RNA?

A

Prion proteins

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3
Q

What are responsible for transmissible spongiform encephalopathies such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD)?

A

Prion proteins

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4
Q

What is the name of the protein coat that viruses have?

A

Capsomere

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5
Q

What can be described as obligate intracellular parasites?

A

Viruses

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6
Q

What three methods can be used to diagnose viruses?

A

Cell culture
Antigen or antibody detection in blood (serology)
Polymerase chain reaction to detect DNA or RNA

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7
Q

What shape are coccus bacteria?

A

Round

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8
Q

What shape are bacillus bacteria?

A

Rod-shaped

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9
Q

What shape are spirochaetes?

A

Spirals

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10
Q

What part of bacteria do Gram stains stain?

A

The bacterial cell wall

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11
Q

What colour will Gram positive bacteria stain?

A

Purple

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12
Q

What colour will Gram negative stain?

A

Pink

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13
Q

Which two organisms do not stain well with Gram stain?

A
  1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (waxy coat)

2. Treponema pallidum (a spirochaete organism that causes syphilis)

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14
Q

What has the definition of a harmful organism?

A

A pathogen

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15
Q

What is an organism that is part of the normal flora?c

A

Commensal

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16
Q

What is an opportunistic pathogen?

A

An organisms that will likely only cause infection in an immunocompromised individual.

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17
Q

What is the ability of a microorganism to produce disease?

A

Pathogenicity

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18
Q

What is the word for the degree of pathogenicity of an organism?

A

Virulence

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19
Q

In what way do bacteria replicate?

A

Binary fission

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20
Q

How often can bacteria replicate their numbers?

A

Every 20 minutes

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21
Q

What are the 4 phases of bacterial growth?

A

Lag phase
Log phase
Stationary phase
Death phase

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22
Q

What 3 types of atmosphere for bacterial growth are there?

A

Aerobic
Microaerophilic
Anaerobic

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23
Q

What atmosphere has a reduced concentration of oxygen and enriched with CO2?

A

Microaerophilic

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24
Q

Which type of bacteria produce exotoxins?

A

Gram positive bacteria

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25
Q

What are usually produced inside a Gram positive cell and then exported from it?

A

Exotoxin

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26
Q

What toxin do Gram negative bacteria produce?

A

Endotoxin

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27
Q

What toxin is part of the Gram negative bacterial cell wall?

A

Endotoxin

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28
Q

What, released from bacteria, interact with cells of the immune system causing release of cytokines?

A

Toxins

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29
Q

What 3 effects do some toxins have on the body?

A

Damage white and red blood cells
Make small blood vessels leaky causing decreased BP
Affect blood clotting

All can lead to sepsis

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30
Q

What endotoxin is found in Gram-negative bacterial cell walls?

A

LPS

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31
Q

What can some Gram positive bacilli form?

A

Spores

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32
Q

What are the 5 methods for diagnosing bacteria?

A
  1. Microscopy - Gram stained film
  2. Culture
  3. Detection of antigen (e.g. in urine)
  4. Detection of antibodies in blood (serology)
  5. Molecular methods such as PCR
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33
Q

How long does a TB culture take?

A

4 - 12 weeks

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34
Q

What two things do moulds produce?

A

Spores - spread in air currents

Hyphae - invade organic tissue

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35
Q

What is single celled and reproduces by budding?

A

Yeasts

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36
Q

Name a mould of fungi?

A

Aspergillus

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37
Q

Do Gram stains stain Aspergillus spp.?

A

No

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38
Q

Name a common yeast fungus?

A

Candida spp.

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39
Q

How do yeasts Gram stain?

A

As large positive oval structures

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40
Q

What is the term for the dstruction nad removal of 99.9% of micro-organisms and spores?

A

Sterilisation

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41
Q

What is sterilisation used for?

A

Dressings, surgical instruments

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42
Q

What are the 4 methods of sterilisation?

A
  1. Autoclave
  2. Dry heat in oven at 160
  3. Exposure to ethylene oxoid gas
  4. Irradiation (gamma-irradiation)
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43
Q

What is the term for the removal or destruction of pathogenic micro-organisms enough to make an item safe?

A

Disinfection

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44
Q

What 3 chemicals are used for disinfection?

A
  1. Hypochlorite - bleach
  2. Chlorohexidine - handwash
  3. Povidone iodine - skin antiseptic
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45
Q

What does the “us” mean at the end of “Staphylococcus”?

A

Singular term i.e. one organism

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46
Q

What does “i” at the end of “Staphylococci” mean?

A

The plural term, more than one

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47
Q

What does the “sp.” at the end of Staphylococcus sp. mean?

A

1 species of Staph

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48
Q

What does the “spp.” at the end of Staphylococcus spp. mean?

A

More than one species of Staph.

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49
Q

How do streptococcus and enterococcus grow best?

A

Aerobically (also can facultatively anaerobically grow)

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50
Q

How would Streptococcus and Enterococcus be described?

A

As Gram positive cocci in chains (streptococci come in strips)

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51
Q

How are streptococcus and enterococcus differentiated initially?

A

By the type of haemolysis seen on growth on blood agar

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52
Q

What is another term for alpha haemolysis?

A

Partial haemolysis

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53
Q

What is another term for beta haemolysis?

A

Complete haemolysis

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54
Q

Haemolysis is only important for the classification of what?

A

Streptococci

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55
Q

What is caused by enzymes that denature the haemoglobin inside red blood cells causing greenish discolouration round the colony?

A

Alpha haemolysis

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56
Q

What is caused by enzymes that lyse red blood cells causing complete clearing round the colony?

A

Beta-haemolysis

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57
Q

What occurs in gamma-haemolysis?

A

No haemolysis

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58
Q

What colouration does denaturised haemoglobin go, and what is this as a result of?

A

Green discolouration as a result of alpha haemolysis

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59
Q

What two can alpha-haemolytic streptococci be differentiated into?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Streptococcus “viridans” group

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60
Q

How would you describe Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

Gram positive cocci in short chains or pairs

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61
Q

How would you describe Streptococcus viridans?

A

Gram positive cocci in chains on microscopy

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62
Q

What heart condition may be caused by Streptococcus “viridans” group?

A

Infective endocarditis

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63
Q

What are the most pathogenic Streptococci?

A

Beta-haemolytic

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64
Q

What do Beta-haemolytic streptococci produce which lyse red blood cells?

A

Exotoxins

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65
Q

How are the beta-haemolytic streptococci further classified?

A

Into group A strep and group B strep

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66
Q

What two infections can Streptococcus group A cause?

A

Streptococcal sore throat (tonsilitis) - if rash present = scarlet fever
Necrotising fasciitis - skin and soft tissue infection
Puerperal sepsis - infection in pregnant women

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67
Q

What are all strains of group A streptococcus still sensitive to?

A

Penicillin

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68
Q

What is the most important group of non-haemolytic streptococci?

A

Enterococci

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69
Q

Name a common cause of urinary tract infection?

A

Enterococci

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70
Q

What are most strains of E. faecalis sensitive to?

A

Amoxicillin (not penicillin)

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71
Q

Name a very resistant type of Enterocci? (vancomycin resistant enterococci)

A

E. faecium

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72
Q

How would you describe Staphylococci?

A

Gram positive cocci in grape-like clusters

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73
Q

How do we distinguish Staph. aureus from all other Staphylococci?

A

We use the coagulase test

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74
Q

What would the result of a Staph. aureus positive coagulase test show?

A

Golden

75
Q

Name two species in the coagulase negative staphylococci group?

A
  1. Staph. epidermidis

2. Staph hominis

76
Q

What are the coagulase negative Staphylococci a common cause of?

A

Prosthetic joint and prosthetic heart valve infection and intravenous catheter infection

77
Q

What organism type causes Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

78
Q

Where do enterotoxins act?

A

On the gut

79
Q

What are strains of Staphylococcus aureus that are sensitive to flucloxacillin called?

A

MSSA - Meticillin-Sensitive Staph Aureus

80
Q

What are meticillin-resistant Staph aureus strains resistant to?

A

All penicillins

All cephalosporins

81
Q

What is the most common cause of wound infection?

A

Staph. aureus

82
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Staph. aureus?

A

Flucloxacillin

83
Q

What is bacteraemia?

A

Bacteria in the blood stream

84
Q

What is one of the commonest causes of bacteraemia?

A

Staph. aureus bacteraemia

85
Q

What is pyrexia?

A

Raised temperature

86
Q

What is fever defined as?

A

Temperature > 38

87
Q

During fever production, what do macrophages release?

A

Cytokines into the bloodstream

88
Q

During fever production, where do released cytoklines travel to?

A

The anterior hypothalamus

89
Q

During fever production, once the cytokines have travelled to the hypothalamus - what is released?

A

Prostaglandin E which increases body’s thermal set point

90
Q

During sepsis, what happens to small blood vessels?

A

The become leaky and lose fluid into tissues

91
Q

In sepsis what happens to the blood volume?

A

It lowers

92
Q

How do Gram negative cocci appear on Gram film?

A

In pairs (diplococci)

93
Q

What are two Gram negative cocci?

A
  1. Neisseria meningitidis

2. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

94
Q

What is the term used to describe species of Gram negative bacilli that look like E.coli on Gram film and when cultured on blood agar?

A

The coliforms

95
Q

How do the coliforms grow best?

A

Aerobically

96
Q

In what 2 ways are coliforms differentiated from each other by?

A
  1. Biochemical reactions

2. Antigenic structure of cell wall (serotyping) - O antigens (cell wall) and H antigen (flagella)

97
Q

Where are O antigens found?

A

Cell wall

98
Q

Where are H antigens found?

A

Flagella

99
Q

Name 4 gut commensal coliforms?

A
  1. E.coli
  2. Klebsiella spp.
  3. Enterobacter spp.
  4. Proteus spp
100
Q

Name 3 gut pathogens

A
  1. Salmonella spp.
  2. Shigella spp.
  3. Verotixin (VTEC) producing E.coli
101
Q

Name 3 types if infection that can occur when coliforms get into normally sterile sites

A
  1. Urinary tract infection
  2. Periotnitis
  3. Biliary tract infection
102
Q

What is the first line antibiotic used for the treatment of Coliforms?

A

Gentamicin

103
Q

Why do patients with coliform (gram negative) sepsis become very unwell very quickly?

A

Because of the endotoxin released from the Gram negative cell wall when the bacteria die

104
Q

Name three other types of aerobic Gram negative bacilli

A
  1. Strict aerobes
  2. Spiral or curved Gram negative bacilli
  3. Haemophilus influenzae
105
Q

Name two strict aerobes

A

Pseuodomonas aeruginosa

Legionella pneumophila

106
Q

Name 3 spiral or curved Gram negative bacilli

A
  1. Vibrio cholerae - causes cholera
  2. Campylobcater spp - commonest cause of bacterial diarrhoea
  3. Helicobacter pylori - infects stomach and causes gastritis nad duodenual ulcers
107
Q

Name two groups of strict anaerobes

A
  1. Clostridium spp.

2. Bacteriodes spp.

108
Q

How would you describe Clostridium spp.?

A

Gram positive anerobic bacilii

109
Q

What do Clostridium spp. produce that can cause severe tissue damage?

A

Exotoxins

110
Q

What does Clostridium perfringens cause?

A

Gas gangrene

111
Q

What does Clostridium tetani cause?

A

Tetanus

112
Q

How would you describe Bacteroides spp, ?

A

Gram negative anaerobic bacilli

113
Q

What is the first line treatment for infections caused by anaerobes?

A

Metronidazole

114
Q

What method is used to stain Mycobacteria?

A

Acid fast bacilli

115
Q

What type of spirochaetes other than Treponema pallidum does not stain?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi - Lyme disease

116
Q

What is the term for when DNA released from dead bacteria can be taken up by living bacteria and incorporated into plasmids or the bacterial chromosome?

A

Transformation

117
Q

What is the term for “bacterial sex” where a sex pilus (fimbria) is produced by one bacteria through which plasmid DNA can be transferred?

A

Conjugation

118
Q

What is the term for viruses that infect bacteria can transfer bits of DNA from one bacterium to another?

A

Transduction

119
Q

What are 3 genetic variations of bacteria?

A

Transforamtion
Conjugation
Transduction

120
Q

What does genetic variation often result in?

A

Bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotics

121
Q

Give 4 mechanisms of antibiotic resistance?

A
  1. Production of enzymes that destroy antibiotics
  2. Altered antibiotic binding site
  3. Alteration of cell wall porins
  4. Up-regulation of efflux pumps
122
Q

What 3 enzymes can destroy antibiotics?

A
  1. Beta-lactamase
  2. Extended spectrum beta-lactamase
  3. Carbapenemase
123
Q

What is beta-lactamase resistant to?

A

Amoxicillin

124
Q

What is extended spectrum beta-lactamase resistant to?

A

All penicillins and cephalosporins

125
Q

What is carbapenemase resistant to?

A

All cephalosporins
All penicillins
All carbapenems

126
Q

What is a common mechanism of resistant in fungi such as Candida spp.?

A

Up-regulation of efflux pumps

127
Q

What are the 5 ways any infection can spread?

A 
Inhalation
Ingestion
Inoculation
mother to Infant
Intercourse
128
Q

Where is the most frequently missed site when hand washing?

A

Thumb, between thumb and index finger and tips of fingers

129
Q

What are black bags for?

A

Domestic waste

130
Q

What are orange bags for?

A

Clinical waste

131
Q

What 4 things are viruses composed of?

A

Protein spikes
Protein coat
Nucleic acid
Envelope

132
Q

What type of symmetry does adenovirus have?

A

Icosahedral

133
Q

What is the cause of oral herpes?

A

Herpes simplex virus

134
Q

What happens in the attachment phase of viral infection?

A

Viruses interact with specific receptors in the target cell

135
Q

What happens during the entry phase of virus infection?

A

Fusion of viral and cell membranes or endocytosis

136
Q

How may non-enveloped viruses enter a cell?

A

By pinocytosis

137
Q

What happens in the uncoating stage of virus infeciton?

A

Viral nucleic acid is released from the capsid

138
Q

What stage of viral infection occurs after uncoating?

A

Nucleic acid and protein synthesis

139
Q

What occurs in the nucleic acid and protein synthesis stage of virus infeciton?

A

Nucleic acid produces new viral proteins - host ribosomes and polymerases are used

Viral nucleic acid is replicated into pregeny genomes

140
Q

What happens in the assembly stage of viral infection?

A

Nucleic acid and proteins are packaged together

141
Q

What stage of the virus infection involves a piece of host cell membrane ending up around the capsid?

A

Release

142
Q

What are the two methods of virus release?

A

Release by budding or release by lysis

143
Q

What does erythromycin target?

A

Bacterial ribosomes

144
Q

What does penicillin target?

A

Growing bacterial cell wall

145
Q

What are 5 possible sites for antiviral drugs?

A 
Viral nucleic acid polymerases
Viral enzymes involved in protein syntehsis (integrase, protease)
Uncoating
Attachment/entry
Release
146
Q

What 2 characteristics does double stranded RNA have?

A

Potenet inducer of interferon

Ligand for Toll-Like receptor 3

147
Q

Name two viruses that can reactivate?

A

Herpes simplex virus

Varicella-zoster virus

148
Q

What two current methods are there for virus detection?

A

PCR

Antigen detection

149
Q

What is the difference between bactericidal and bacteriostatic?

A

Bactericidal kill bacteria and bacteriostatic inhibit bacterial growth

150
Q

Name 3 antibiotic groups that act on the bacterial cell wall?

A
  1. Penicillins (penicillin, flucloxacillin, amoxicillin, temocillin, co-amoxiclav and piperacillin/tazobactam)
  2. Cephalosporins - ceftriazone
  3. Glycopeptides - vancomycin, teicoplanin
151
Q

How do the penicillins inhibit cell wall synthesis?

A

By preventing the cross-linking of peptidoglycan subunits, bactericidal

152
Q

What are the penicillins excreted via?

A

The kidneys

153
Q

What are the three forms of pemnicillin available?

A

Benzylpenicillin
Phenoxymethyl penicillin
Benzathine penicillin

154
Q

What penicillin is used for Gram positive organisms?

A

Flucloxacillin (IV, oral)

155
Q

What three penicillins are used for treating Gram positive and Gram negative organisms?

A
  1. Amoxicillin (IV, oral)
  2. Co-amoxiclav - amoxicillin plus clavulanic acid (IV, oral)
  3. Piperacillin/tazobactam (IV only)
156
Q

What penicillins are used to treat Gram negative organisms?

A

Temocillin (IV only)

157
Q

What antibiotic is used for cellulitis?

A

Flucloxacillin

158
Q

What penicillin is only active against coliforms?

A

Temocillin (IV)

159
Q

What group of antibiotics inhibit cell wall synthesis and are bactericidal?

A

The cephalosporins

160
Q

How are cephalosporins exrcreted?

A

Via the kidneys and urine

161
Q

What spectrum of antibiotics are cephalosporins?

A

Broad spectrum

162
Q

Name two glycopeptides and how are they administered?

A
  1. Vancomycin (IV)

2. Teicoplanin (IV)

163
Q

Which antibiotic bidns to the end of the growing pentapeptide chain during peptidoglycan synthesis, preventing cross-linking and weakening the bacterial cell wall?

A

Vancomycin

164
Q

How are glycopeptides excreted?

A

Via the kidneys and urine

165
Q

What type of cell wall are glycopeptides only active against?

A

Gram positive cell wall

166
Q

Name 3 groups of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis?

A

Macrolides
Tetracyclines
Aminoglycosides

167
Q

Name three macrolides?

A

Erythromycin, clarithromycin and azithromycin

168
Q

Name a tetracycline?

A

Deoxycycline

169
Q

Name an aminoglycoside?

A

Gentamicin

170
Q

What can be said about macrolides and tetracyclines in the way protein synthesis can resume when they are removed?

A

Bacteriostatic

171
Q

How are macrolides excreted?

A

Via the liver, biliary tract and into the gut

172
Q

How must gentamicin be given?

A

Intravenously

173
Q

Is gentamicin bactericidal?

A

Yes

174
Q

How is gentamicin excreted?

A

Via the urine

175
Q

What can gentamicin cause damage to?

A

The kidneys and 8th cranial nerve (deafness and dizziness)

176
Q

Which three groups of antibiotics act on bacterial DNA?

A

Metronidazole
Trimethoprim (+/- sulphonamide)
Fluoroquinolones

177
Q

How does metronidazole act?

A

By causing strand breakage of bacterial DNA

178
Q

What antibiotic is used to treat true anaerobic infections?

A

Metronidazole

179
Q

Which antibiotics mode of action is to inhibit bacterial folic acid synthesis?

A

Trimethoprim (oral)

180
Q

What can trimethoprim be given in combination with?

A

Sulphamethoxazole (orally or IV) as co-trimoxazole

181
Q

How is trimethoprim excreted?

A

Via the urine

182
Q

Name two fluoroquinolones

A
  1. Ciprofloxacin (IV, oral)

2. Levofloxacin (IV)

183
Q

What antibiotics act by preventing “supercoiling” of bacterial DNA?

A

Fluoroquinolones

184
Q

How are fluoroquinolones excreted?

A

via the urine

185
Q

Which 4 antibiotics do we try to avoid due to C.diff?

A

Cephalosporins
Co-amoxiclav
Ciprofloxacin
Clindamycin

JL Principles (12 decks)

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