Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

JL Principles > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

0
Q

In what two ways is the immune system able to identify and eliminate harmful microorganisms and harmuf substances such as toxins?

A
  1. By distinguishing ‘self’ from ‘non-self’ proteins

2. By identifying ‘danger’ signals (e.g. from inflammation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What 4 things is the immune system for?

A

Viruses (influenza)
Bacteria (Staphylococcus)
Protozoa (amoeba)
Worms (guinea worm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What 5 things can result when the immune system goes wrong?

A 
Recurrent infections
Allergy
Autoimmune disease
Cancer
Transplant rejection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the name for exposure of an individual to the contents of dried smallpox pustules from infected patient?

A

Variolation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are 3 stages of the evolutionary ‘arms race’?

A
  1. The pathogen selects its host based on intrinsic flaws in the defensive barriers
  2. The host evolves to correct those flaws
  3. The pathogen replicates, and evolves to evade these corrections, and to exploit other flaws in the defensive barriers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Give the route of entry, mode of transmission and pathogen causing Influenza disease

A

Route of entry - Airway
Mode of transmission - Inhaled droplet
Pathogen - Influenza virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Give the route of entry, mode of transmission and pathogen for Meningococcal meningitis disease

A

Route of entry - Airway
Mode of transmission - Spores
Pathogen - Neisseria meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Give the route of entry, mode of transmission and pathogen of Inhalation anthrax disease?

A

Route of entry - Airway
Mode of transmission - Spores
Pathogen - Bacillus anthracis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Give the route of entry, mode of transmission and pathogen for typhoid fever?

A

Route of entry - GI tract
Mode of transmission - contaminated water or food
Pathogen - Salmonella typhi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Give the route of entry, mode of transmission and pathogen for Diarrhoea

A

Route of entry - GI tract
Mode of transmission - contaminated water or food
Pathogen - Rotavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Give the route of entry, mode of transmission and pathogen for Syphillis

A

Route of entry - reproductive tract
Mode of transmission - Physical contact
Pathogen - Treponema pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Give the route of entry, mode of transmission and pathogen for AIDS

A

Route of entry - reproductive tract
Mode of transmission - Physical contact
Pathogen - HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Give the route of entry, mode of transmission and pathogen for Athlete’s foot

A

Route of entry - external surface
Mode of transmission - physical contact
Pathogen - Trichophyton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Give the route of entry, mode of transmission and pathogen for Cutaneous anthrax

A

Route of entry - Wounds and abrasions
Mode of tranmission - Minor skin abrasions
Pathogen - Bacillus anthracis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Give the route of entry, mode of transmission and pathogen for Tetanus

A

Route of entry - wounds and abrasions
Mode of transmission - Puncture wounds
Pathogen - Clostridium tetani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Give the route of entry, mode of transmission and pathogen for Tularemia

A

Route of entry - Wounds and abrasions
Mode of transmission - Handling infected animals
Pathogen - Francisella tularensis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Give the route of entry, mode of transmission and pathogen for Yellow fever

A

Route of entry - Insect bites
Mode of transmission - Mosquito bites
Pathogen - Flavivirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Give the route of entry, mode of transmission and pathogen for Lyme disease

A

Route of entry - insect bites
Mode of transmission - Deer tick bites
Pathogen - Borrelia burgdoferi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Give the route of entry, mode of transmission and pathogen for Malaria

A

Route of entry - insect bites
Mode of transmission - Mosquito bites
Pathogen - Plasmodium spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

List 5 organs/anatomical structures that protect against infection

A
  1. Lymph nodes
  2. Spleen
  3. Lymphatics
  4. Bone marrow
  5. Skin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

List 5 cells that protect against infection

A
  1. Neutrophils
  2. Monocytes/macrophages
  3. Eosinophils
  4. Mast cells
  5. Lymphocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

List 4 proteins that protect against infection

A

Immunoglobulins
Complement
Cytokines
Mucous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the most important barrier to infection?

A

Skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe the cells that make up skin

A

Tightly packed, highly keratinised, multilayered cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the pH of skin?

A

low pH 5.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What other physiological factor other than pH does skin have?

A

Low oxygen tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What glands are present in the dermis of skin?

A

Sebaceous glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What 4 things do sebaceous glands secrete?

A

Hydrophobic oils
Lysozyme
Ammonia
Antimicrobial peptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What do the secreted hydrophobic oils from subaceous glands do?

A

Further repel water and microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What do lysozymes secreted from sebaceous glands do?

A

Destroy the structural integrity of bacterial cell walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What property does ammonia secreted from sebaceous glands possess?

A

Anti-bacterial properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Give an example of an antimicrobial peptides

A

Defensins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What 4 functions or substances does secreted mucous have that provide protection?

A

Physical barrier
Secretory IgA
Contains enzymes: lysozymes, defensins, antimicrobial peptides and lactoferrin
Cilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does secretory IgA from secreted mucous prevent?

A

Bacteria nad viruses attaching to and penetrating epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What do lysozymes, defensins and antimicrobial peptides do?

A

dIRECTLY KILL INVADING PATHOGENS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does lactoferrin in secreted mucous do?

A

Acts to starve invading bacteria of iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What two things do commensal bacteria produce?

A

Produce fatty acids and bactericidins that inhibit the growth of many pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where are commensal bacteria normally found residing?

A

At epithelial surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are 5 functions of commensal bacteria?

A
  1. Production of bactericidins which influence other bacteria
  2. Reduction in pH or large bowel
  3. Competition for essential nutrients
  4. Production of anti-microbial short chain fatty acids
  5. Synthesis of vitamins: Vitamin K, B12
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What anti-acid mediation can breach constituitive barriers?

A

Proton pump inhibitors - used in gastrooesophageal reflux and heartburn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What does streptococcus pneumoniae cause?

A

Pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does Clostridium tetani cause?

A

Tetanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does Trypanosoma brucei cause?

A

Sleeping sickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What does Pneumocystis carinii cause?

A

Pneumocystis pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does Mycobacterium leprae cause?

A

Leprosy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does Leishmania donovani cause?

A

Leishmaniasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What does Plasmodium falciparum cause?

A

Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does Variola cause?

A

Small pox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What does Influenza cause?

A

Flu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does Varicella cause?

A

Chickenpox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does Ascaris cause?

A

Ascariasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What does Schistosoma cause?

A

Schistosomiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Name two parasitic worms

A

Ascaris

Schistosoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What two arms comprise the immune system?

A

Innate immune system

Adaptive immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are of the immune system is responsible for generating the immunological memory?

A

Adaptive immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What two things are major components of the immune system?

A

Cells (Leukocytes, white blood cells)

Soluble (humoral) factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Name the 4 phagocyte cells

A
  1. Neutrophils
  2. Monocytes
  3. Macrophages
  4. Dendritic cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Name the 3 lymphocytes

A

T cells
B cells
Natural Killer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are antibodies and complement proteins?

A

Soluble (humoral) factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are antibodies also known as?

A

Immunoglobulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are proteins that are produced in response to a particular molecule and bind specifically to that antigen?

A

Antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What do antibodies provide defence against?

A

Extracellular pathogens (most bateria), viruses and toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What has a family of approximately 30 proteins?

A

Complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Where is complement produced?

A

In the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Where is complement found?

A

Circulating in the blood - constitue 10% of serum proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What activates pathogens directly or indirectly?

A

Complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What does complement play a critical role in?

A

Inflammation and defense against certain bacterial species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What type of reaction is it when specific complement proteins can enzymatically activate other complement proteins in a cascade?

A

The complement cascade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Where are NK/T cell precursors found?

A

In the thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What cell is the precursor for ALL leukocytes?

A

Hematopoietic stem cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What 3 cell progenitors does the hematopoietic stem cell produce?

A

Common lymphoid progenitor
Common myeloid progenitor
Common erythroid megakaryocyte progenitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What does the common lymphoid progenitor divide into?

A

NK/T cell precursor

B cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What does the NK/T cell precursor split into?

A

T cell

NK cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What two precursors does the common myeloid progenitor divide into?

A

Common granulocyte precursor

Unknown precursor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What 3 cells does the common granulocyte precursor produce?

A

Neutrophil
Basophil
Eosinophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What does the unknown precursor from the common myekoid progenitor divide into?

A

Monocyte and mast cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What two cells are derived from monocytes?

A

Dendritic cells and macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What does the common erythroid megakaryocyte progenitor divide into?

A

Megakaryocyte and erythroblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is derived from megakaryocytes?

A

Platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is derived from erythroblasts?

A

Erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What cells reside in tissues and protect mucosal surfaces?

A

Mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What two cells circulate the blood and are recruited to sites of infection by inflammatory signals?

A

Basophils and Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What do mast cells, basophils and eosinophils all release?

A

Chemicals such as histamine, heparin and cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What do mast cells, basophils and eosinophils all have a key role in?

A

Mediating allergic responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What type of cells are macrophages, neutrophils and dendritic cells?

A

Phagocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

In addition to phagocytosis what do phagocytic cells also do?

A

Clear debris from dead/dying tissue cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are macrophages, neutrophils and dendritic cells an important source of?

A

Cytokines which promote an acute inflammatory response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are also known as polymorphonuclear cells (PMNs)?

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are circulating monocytes precursors of?

A

Tissue-resident macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are the 3 additional functions of monocytes and macrophages?

A
  1. Help limit inflammation
  2. Involved in tissue repair and wound healing
  3. Involved in antigen presentation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What do dentritic cells present as in peripheral tissues?

A

Immature cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

When met by a pathogen what happens to immature dentritic cells?

A

They mature and migrate into secondary lymphoid tissues and stimulate adaptive immune responses (antigen presentation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What type of cells are large granular lymphocytes, can kill tumour cells and virally infected cells and can also kill antibody-bound cells/pathogens?

A

Natural Killer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

How do natural killer cells kill some virus-infected cells?

A

Release lytic granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What three areas or substances are T and B cells found in?

A

Constantly circulating through the blood, lymph and secondary lymphoid tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Are T and B cells inactive or active before meeting pathogens/antigens?

A

Inactive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What cells are responsible for the production of antibodies?

A

B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What cells have a key role in defense against intracellular pathogens (viruses, mycobacteria)?

A

T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What are the two sub-catagories of T cells?

A

Helper T cells

Cytotoxic T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What are helper T cells?

A

Key regulators of the entire immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What can cytotoxic T cells do?

A

Kill virally infected body cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are the sites of leukocyte development?

A

Primary lymphoid tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Where are adaptive immune responses initiated?

A

Secondary lymphoid tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What system of vessels drains fluid from the body tissues?

A

Lymphatic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What removes pathogens and antigens from lymph?

A

Lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are the two distinct mechanisms of communication in the immune system?

A

Direct contact and indirect contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What does direct contact involve?

A

Receptor:ligand interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What does indirect communication involve?

A

Production and secretion of cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Give three examples of Receptor:ligand interactions involved in direct contact

A
  1. MHC : TCR
  2. CD40 : CD40L
  3. TLR4: LPS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What are a diverse collection of small proteins and peptides?

A

Cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are cytokines produced in response to?

A

Infection, inflammation and tissue damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is the name of the form of signalling where the target cell is near the signal-releasing cell?

A

Paracrine signalling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What type of signalling is when a cell secretes a hormone or chemical messenger and it binds to autocrine receptors on the same cell.

A

Autocrine signalling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What type of function do interferons have?

A

Anti-viral functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Name 4 types of cytokines?

A

Interferons
Tumour necrosis factor
chemokines
interleukins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What are anti-TNF drugs used in and what kind of affect do they have?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis - anti-inflammatory effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What cytokines control and direct cell migration?

A

Chemokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is interleukin 2 involved in?

A

T cell proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is interleukin 10 involved in?

A

Anti-inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

How does the innate immune system respond to infection?

A

Mast cells, NK cells, Phgocytes and complement, take part in acute inflammation and killing of pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What are the 6 symptoms of acute inflammation?

A
  1. Redness
  2. Heat
  3. Swelling
  4. Pain
  5. Loss of function
  6. Fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is rubor?

A

Redness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is calor?

A

Heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is tumor?

A

Swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What is dolor?

A

Pain

125
Q

What is functio laesa?

A

Loss of function

126
Q

During acute inflammation what happens to small blood vessels?

A

Dilatation and increased blood flow through the region

127
Q

During acute inflammation, what happens to the permeability of post-capillary venules?

A

Increased permeability and accumulation of fluid in the extracellular space

128
Q

Name 2 chemical mediators that stimulate nerve endings during acute inflammation?

A

Bradykinin and histamine

129
Q

Where are pattern-recognition receptors (PRRs) found in innate immune cells?

A 
Cell surface (extracellular pathogens)
Intracellular (intracellular pathogens)
130
Q

What structures are recognised by innate leukocytes?

A

Pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)

131
Q

Name 4 pattern-recognition receptors (PRRs)?

A 
Toll-like receptor 4 (cell surface)
Dectin 1 (cell surface)
NOD2 (intracellular)
Toll-like receptor 7(intracellular)
132
Q

Name 4 pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)

A

Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) - gram -ve bacteria
B-glucans - fungi
Muramyl dipeptide - M. tuberculosis
ssRNA - viruses

133
Q

What is the PAMP for TLR-4?

A

LPS - Lipopolysaccharide

134
Q

What is the PAMP for Dectin 1?

A

B-glucans

135
Q

What is the PAMP for NOD2?

A

Muramyl dipeptide

136
Q

What is the PAMP for TLR-7?

A

ssRNA

137
Q

What happens when physical barriers are breached by a pathogen?

A

Tissue resident innate immune are activated (mast cells and macrophages)

138
Q

What to mast cells initiate?

A

Acute inflammatory responses

139
Q

What two activites do mast cells do when activated by a pathogen?

A

Degranulation and Gene expression

140
Q

When mast cells degranulate what two substances are released?

A

Histamine

Tryptase

141
Q

What 3 substanes are produced in relation to gene expression of mast cells?

A
  1. TNF
  2. Chemokines
  3. Leukotrienes
142
Q

What substance released from mast cells increases vascular permeability, vasodilatation, activates endothelial cells and causes pain?

A

Histamine

143
Q

What is tryptase?

A

A proteolytic enzyme

144
Q

What substance from mast cells increases vascular permeability and activates endothelial cells?

A

TNF

145
Q

What from mast cells attracts other innate immune cells (neutrophils and NK cells)?

A

Chemokines

146
Q

What from mast cells is involved in smooth muscle contraction and increased vascular permeability?

A

Leukotrienes

147
Q

What are anti-leukotrienes used in?

A

Asthm,a

148
Q

What cells are professional phagocytes?

A

Macrophages

149
Q

What occurs one a macrophages has PAMP : PRR binding?

A

Phagocytosis

150
Q

What occurs once a macrophage has been activated by phagocytosis?

A

Inflammatory cytokine release

151
Q

What cells are involved in MHC-II expression and antigen presentation?

A

Macrophages

152
Q

What pro-inflammatory cytokines and anti-inflammatory cytokine do activated macrophages release?

A

IL-1, IL-6, TNF

IL-10

153
Q

What do the pro-inflammatory cytokines released from activated macrophages do to the liver?

A

Increase acute phase proteins

154
Q

What do pro-inflammatory cytokines released from activated macrophages do to bone marrow and vasculature? (3 things)

A

Increased vascular permeability
Activation of endothelial cells
Neutrophil mobilisation

155
Q

What do pro-inflammatory cytokines released from activated macrophages do to the hypothalamus?

A

Cause a fever

156
Q

What does a fever decrease?

A

Pathogen replication

157
Q

What does increased vascular permeability, activation of endothelial cells and neutrophil mobilisation increase?

A

Phagocytosis

158
Q

Give 3 examples of acute phase proteins produced in the liver in response to infection, trauma or chronic inflammation

A
  1. C-reactive protein (CRP)
  2. Complement proteins (C3, C4, mannose-binding lectin)
  3. Serum amyloid A
159
Q

What does the production of serum amyloid A increase?

A

Phagocytosis and complement activation

160
Q

What does serum CRP levels <10 mg/L mean?

A

Normal

161
Q

What does serum CRP levels of 10-40 mg/L mean?

A

Mild inflammation

Viral infections

162
Q

What does serum CRP levels of 40-200 mg/L mean?

A

Active inflammation

Bacterial infections

163
Q

What does serum CRP levels of >200mg/L mean?

A

Severe bacterial infections

Burns

164
Q

Name 3 secondary lymphoid tissues?

A

Spleen
Lymph nodes
Mucosal-associated lymphoid tissues (various)

165
Q

Name 2 primary lymphoid tissues?

A

Thymus

Bone marrow

166
Q

Name 5 pro-inflammatory mediators from mast cells and macrophages?

A 
Histamine
TNF
IL-1
IL-6
Chemokines
167
Q

What two things cannot be easily phagocytosed?

A

Parasites and viruses

168
Q

What three things are recruited into sites of inflammation as a result of pro-inflammatory mediators?

A

Neutrophils, NK cells, complement protein

169
Q

What stimulates the bone marrow to produce more monocytes and neutrophils (neutrophilia)?

A

Pro-inflammatory mediators

170
Q

What do activated endothelial cells express at sites of inflammation?

A

Adhesion molecules (selectins and ICAMs)

171
Q

What are selectins and ICAMS?

A

Adhesion molecules

172
Q

What allows leukocytes to bind weakly (tether) to endothelial cells and roll slowly along the endothelial cell surface?

A

Selectins

173
Q

What activates leukocytes?

A

Chemokines

174
Q

Activated leukocytes bind strongly to endothelial cells via what?

A

Integrins (on the leukocytes) that bind to ICAMs (on the endothelium)

175
Q

What do integrins bind to?

A

ICAMs on the endothelium

176
Q

What do leukocytes on the endothelium do to resist shear flow and look for a suitable place to leave the blood vessel?

A

Flatten and crawl

177
Q

What is the name for leukocytes squeezing between endothelial cells?

A

Transendothelial migration

178
Q

Once inside tissues, how do leukocytes get to the site of infection/inflammation?

A

Follow a chemokine gradient

179
Q

What does defective transendothelial migration lead to?

A

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency

180
Q

What is the name of a very rare genetic disease caused by loss or reduced amounts of B2-integrins?

A

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency

181
Q

What 4 components of plasma can also leak out into tissues?

A

Complement proteins
Kinins
Coagulation factors
Fibrinolytic system

182
Q

What are the 3 mechanisms by which neutrophils directly attack pathogens?

A

Phagocytosis
Release of anti-microbial peptides and degradative proteases
Generate extracellular traps (NETs)

183
Q

Name three things that lysosomes inside neutrophils have?

A

Toxic reactive oxygen species (ROS)
Hydrolytic enzymes
Acidic pH

184
Q

Where does oxidative killing by phagocytes occur?

A

In phagolysosomes

185
Q

During oxidative killing by phagocytes: what changes oxygen to superoxide?

A

NADPH oxidase

186
Q

During oxidative killing by phagocytes: what changes H2O2 into HClO?

A

Myeloperoxidase (Fe2+)

187
Q

What colour are Fe2+ ions?

A

Green

188
Q

What does HClO do?

A

Kills bacteria

189
Q

Activated neutrophils also produce TNF, what does this do?

A

Positive feedback promoting more inflammation

190
Q

What does the process of phagocytosis deplete?

A

Neutrophil energy stores (glycogen)

191
Q

What 3 things is pus composed of?

A

Dead and dying neutrophils + tissue cells + microbial debris

192
Q

Name a phagocyte deficiency disease?

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

193
Q

Some clinical features of phagocyte deficiency diseases include recurrent bacterial and fungal infections, name 4 of these

A

Staphylococcus Aureus and enteric bacteria
Mycobacteria: TB and atypical mycobacterial infection
Candida albicans
Aspergillus

194
Q

What do NK cells release which enhances macrophage killing activites?

A

Interferon-gamma

195
Q

What do the classical pathway, lectin pathway and alternative pathway of complement all lead to?

A

The conversion of C3 to C3b + C3a

196
Q

What do C3b + C3a ultimately lead to?

A

The destruction of pathogens

197
Q

During the alternative complement pathway, what is created from the binding of factor B to C3b and the activation of factor D?

What does the enzyme produced then do?

A

Active protease C3 convertase

This enzyme cleaves C3 to for C3b which can go on to form C5 activating convertase.

198
Q

What does the alternative complement pathway involve?

A

Pathogen surfaces

199
Q

What does the Lectin complement pathway involve?

A

Lectin binding to pathogen surfaces

200
Q

What does the classical complement pathway involve?

A

Antigen:antibody complexes

201
Q

In order to activate the lectin pathway, what does Mannose-binding lectin in the blood do?

A

Binds to a protein called MASPs

202
Q

Once binded with MBL, what does MASP do?

A

Converts C3 into C3a and C3b

203
Q

During the lectin pathway, after the clipping of C3 to C3b and C3a, what does the C3b go on to do?

A

Bind to the surface of the bacterium

204
Q

how does C3b continue the complement cascade?

A

It combines with C5b and C5a (from C5), which then all combines with C6 - C9 and forms the membrane attack complex

205
Q

What does the membrane attack complex do?

A

Destroys pathogens

206
Q

What are the 5 effector functions of complement?

A 
Membrane attack complex
Opsonisation
Chemotaxis
Clearance of immune complexes
Inflammation
207
Q

What is the coating of microorganisms by immune proteins (opsonins) called?

A

Complement-mediated opsonisation

208
Q

What are the 3 opsonins involved in complement mediated opsonisation?

A

C3b
CRP
Antibodies

209
Q

What do phagocytes express omn their cell surface for opsonins?

A

Receptors

210
Q

What process does opsonisation enhance?

A

Phagocytosis

211
Q

What complement is involved in the immune complex solubilisation?

A

C3b

212
Q

In complement-mediated immune complex solubilisation, what does C3b binding do?

A

Dissolves antibody-antigen immune complexes which are then cleared by phagocytes

213
Q

During complement-mediated lysis, what binds to the surface of pathogens?

A

C5b

214
Q

What assembles with C5b to form the membrane attack complex?

A

C6, C7, C8 and C9

215
Q

Once the membrane attack complex has inserted into target cell walls - what occurs?

A

Osmotic cell lysis of pathogen

216
Q

During complement-mediated inflammation and chemotaxis, what 2 substances bind to receptors on mast cells/basophils?

A

C3a and C5b

217
Q

During complement-mediated inflammation and chemotaxis, once the basophils and mast cells have been activated what do the following released granules secrete?

A

Vasoactive substances like histamine

Chemokines

218
Q

What can be said about the amplification loop of the complement cascade?

A

It is potent

219
Q

How is the complement cascade regulated, in terms of activated conplement proteins?

A

Only cleaved complement proteins

220
Q

What can be said about the half-life of active complement proteins?

A

Very short

221
Q

Name 4 complement inhibitors?

A

C1 inhibitor
Factor I
Factor H
C4 binding protein

222
Q

What disease is associated with C3 and factor B complement deficiency?

A

Severe bacterial infections

223
Q

What disease is associated with C3b-INA, C6 and C8 complement deficiency?

A

Severe Neisseria infections

224
Q

What disease is associated with deficiencies of early C components C1, C2, C4?

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), glomerulonephritis and polymyositis

225
Q

What disease is associated with C1-inhibitor complement deficiency?

A

Hereditary angiodema

226
Q

What are adaptive immune responses induced by?

A

Antigens

227
Q

What the name of any substance which can cause an adaptive immune response by activating B cells and T cells?

A

Antigen

228
Q

What thing do antigens contain very different types of?

A

Antigenic epitopes

229
Q

How do T cells and B cells recognise antigens?

A

With T cell antigen recptors (TCR)

With B cell antigen receptors (BCR)

230
Q

What is a membrane-bound protein heterodimer with an alpha and beta chain?

A

T cell antigen receptor

231
Q

What is a membrane bound antibody (IgM or IgD) with a light and heavy chain connected by disulphide bridges?

A

B cell antigen receptors

232
Q

What does each heavy and light chain on an antibody contain?

A

A variable region and a constant domain

233
Q

What do variable regions of an antibody form?

A

Antigen binding site

234
Q

What do antibodies differ in?

A

Different heavy chain constant region

235
Q

What are proteins encoded for by?

A

Genes

236
Q

What are antibody heavy and light chain proteins in B cells encoded for by?

A

Segmented genes in the germ-line genome of haematopoietic stem cells

237
Q

Where do adaptive immune responses occur?

A

In secondary lymphoid tissues

238
Q

What do T cells and B cells used to enter lymph nodes?

A

Transendothelial migration

239
Q

Antigens entering lymph nodes is a complex process. What is the first step involved?

A

Particles and antigens derived from pathogens are released by phagocytes.

240
Q

Once antigen particles have been released by phagocytosis in the process of antigens entering lymph nodes, what occurs?

A

Inflammatory TNF stimulates immature tissue-resident dendritic cells to express B7

241
Q

During the process of antigens entering lymph nodes, what occurs once the dentridic cells have expressed B7?

A

Dendritic cells phagocytose pathogen-derived particles and antigens

242
Q

During the process of antigens entering lymph nodes, what occurs one dentritic cells have phagocytosed pathogen-derived particles and antigens?

A

Dentritic cells digest pathogen-derived proteins and display small peptides on the surface in complex with MHC proteins in a process known as antigen presentation.

243
Q

During the process of antigens entering lymph nodes, what occurs once pathogen-peptides have been presented on MHC on dendritic cell surfaces?

A

Pathogen-derived particles, antigens and mature dendritic cells travel to local draining lymph nodes

244
Q

Where are stromal cells found?

A

In B cell zones

245
Q

What do stromal cells in B cell zones do to antigens?

A

Trap opsonised antigens

246
Q

What kind of receptor do stromal cells have on their surface?

A

C3b receptors for C3b opsonised antigens

247
Q

How many signals does B cell activation require?

A

2

248
Q

What 2 signals do B cells require when they encounter protein antigens?

A

BCR + antigen

T cell help

249
Q

What 2 signals do B cells required when they encounter any antigen?

A

BCR + antigen

PRR + PAMP

250
Q

What 2 signals do B cells require when they encounter antigens with repetitive antigenic epitopes?

A

Multiple BCRs + antigens engaged (signals 1 + 2)

251
Q

What do peptide antigens have to be presented by to be recognised by T cells?

A

MHC

252
Q

What can MHC proteins also be referred to as?

A

HLA (human leucocyte antigens)

253
Q

What are the two classes of MHC proteins?

A

Class I MHC and Class II MHC

254
Q

What are Class I MHC proteins expressed on?

A

All nucleated cells

255
Q

What type of T cell do class I MHC proteins present peptide antigens to?

A

Cytotoxic T cells (CD8)

256
Q

What are class II MHC proteins expressed on?

A

Only professional antigen prsenting cells such as dendritic cells, macrophages and B cells

257
Q

What type of T cell do class II MHC proteins present peptide antigens to?

A

Helper T cells (CD4)

258
Q

How many signals does T cell activation require?

A

2

259
Q

What are the two signals required for T cell activation when a dendritic cell presents a peptide antigen?

A

Signal 1: MHC peptide - TCR

Signal 2: B7 - CD28

260
Q

What happens after B cells have been activated?

A

They enter the cell cycle and mitose for clonal expansion

261
Q

What two cells do activated B cells differentiate into?

A 
Plasma cells (effector B cells) - antibodies
Memory B cells
262
Q

Name a low affinity, antigen-specific antibody?

A

IgM

263
Q

Name 4 high affinity, antigen-specific antibodies

A

IgG
IgA
IgE
IgD

264
Q

What is the most abundant immunoglobulin in plasma and is actively transported across the placenta?

A

IgG

265
Q

What antibody is a surface bound monomer = BCR, the first immunoglobulin type produced during an immune response and present only in plasma/secretions as a pentamer?

A

IgM

266
Q

What antibody has extremely low levels in blood and is surface bound = BCR?

A

IgD

267
Q

What antibody has extremely low levels normally and is produced in response to parasitic infections and allergic response?

A

IgE

268
Q

Which antibody is the 2nd most abundant, its monomeric form is in blood and dimeric form is in breast milk, aliva, tears and mucosal secretions?

A

IgA

269
Q

Which two antibodies provide protection to babies from mothers?

A

IgG (placenta)

IgA (breast milk)

270
Q

Where the Fc region found in an antibody?

A

In the constant region

271
Q

What function does the variable region of an antibody have?

A

Recognition function - binding to antigen mediated by variable region sites

272
Q

What function does the constant region of an antibody have?

A

Effector function - clearance mechanisms mediated interaction of by Fc region with effector molecules.

273
Q

What two things does the Fc region of an antibody react with?

A

Complement and Fc receptors

274
Q

What is agglutination?

A

Immune complex formation

275
Q

What does binding of high affinity neutralising antibodies to antigens prevent?

A

Prevent viruses from infecting host cells

Prevent microbial toxins from disrupting normal cell function

276
Q

What two conformations does IgM have?

A

Planar and Staple

277
Q

What do phagocytes express that bind to the constant region of immunoglobulins?

A

Fc receptors

278
Q

What is the name of the process in which antibodies help stimulate natural killer cells?

A

Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)

279
Q

During antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity, What receptors on NK cells recognise the bound antibody?

A

Fc receptors

280
Q

During antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity, what signals the NK cell to kill the target cell?

A

Cross-linking of Fc receptors

281
Q

Which antibody is involved in opsonisation?

A

IgG

282
Q

Which antibody is associated with Fc receptors, mast cells and allergic responses?

A

IgE

283
Q

Which antibody is the predomionant antibody class of a primary response to antigen?

A

IgM

284
Q

Which 2 antibodies are involved in neutralisation?

A

IgG and dimeric IgA

285
Q

Which 2 antibodies are involved in agglutination?

A

IgM and IgG

286
Q

Which 2 antibodies are involved in complement activation?

A

IgG and IgM

287
Q

Which antibody activates natural killer cells?

A

IgG

288
Q

Which antibody activates mast cells?

A

IgE

289
Q

Which two antibodies are involved in B cell activation?

A

IgM and IgD (surface monomer)

290
Q

Name 2 resting T cells?

A

CD4+ and CD8+

291
Q

Name the effector T cell of CD4+

A

T helper cells

292
Q

Name the effector cell of CD8+?

A

Cytotoxic T cells

293
Q

Once a CD4+ cell has met a dendritic cell what does the T cell convert to and what does it then do?

A

T helper cell

Calls for help (CD8+ cells, macrophages and B cells)

294
Q

Which interleukin is involved in T helper cells helping CD8+ cells turn into cytotoxic T cells?

A

Interleukin-2

295
Q

Where do effector Th cells migrate to and from?

A

From lymph node to sites of inflammation/infection

296
Q

Once Th cells have migrated into the site of infection from the lymph node, how are they re-activated?

A

By macrophages in an antigen-specific manner

297
Q

How do Th cells ultimateley help macrohpages?

A

They hyper-activate macrophages, enhancing their killing activites and pro-inflammatory responses

298
Q

What ligand : receptor communcation occurs between a Th cell and a macrophage?

A

CD40L : CD40 (CD40L on Th cell and CD40 on macrophage)

299
Q

During the process of Th cells help B cells respond effectively to protein antigens, what is the first step?

A

Protein antigen bound to BCR is internalised by teh B cell. The antigen is degraded and peptides are presented on the B cell surface in complex with MHC-II.

300
Q

During the process of Th cells helping B cells respond to antigen proteins, What is the second stage - after the antigen is presented on the B cell surface in complex with MHC-II?

A

Effector Th cells move into B cell zone of the lymph node where they are re-stimulated by B cells in an antigen-specific manner and start to express CD40L. Re-activated effector Th cells stimulate the B cell to proliferate and survive via (CD40L : CD40 interactions)

301
Q

During the process of Th cells helping B cells respond effectively to protein antigens, What is the third step - after the Th cell has stimulated B cell to proliferate and survive?

A

The effector Th cells secrete cytokines which further activate the B cell

302
Q

Which 3 cytokines does the effector Th cell release to further activate B cells?

A

IL-5, IL-4 and IL-13

303
Q

What are the 4 steps in the germinal centre reaction?

A
  1. B cell proliferation
  2. Antibody heavy chain switching
  3. Generation of high affinity antibodies
  4. Differentiation into plasma and memory B cells
304
Q

What is somatic hypermutation?

A

The generation of high affinity antibodies

305
Q

What is the aim of the generation of high affinity antibodies?

A

To produce antibodies that recognise the same antigen but with increased affinity

306
Q

What method of killing do cytotoxic T cells kill infected host cells by?

A

Apoptosis

307
Q

Which cells use Fas ligand mediated killing?

A

Cytotoxic T cells

308
Q

Name three proteins in lytic granules of cytotoxic T cells

A

Perforin
Granzymes
Granulysin

309
Q

How does the protein perforin act on target cells?

A

Polymerises to form a pore in target membrane

310
Q

Which protein in lytic granules of cytotoxic T cells is a serine protease which activates apoptosis once in the cytoplasm of the target cell?

A

Granzymes

311
Q

How does the protein Granulysin act on target cells?

A

Induces apoptosis

JL Principles (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions