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JL Principles > Anatomy > Flashcards

Anatomy Flashcards

0
Q

How does urine drain from the kidney?

A
  1. Nephrons
  2. Collecting duct
  3. Minor calyx
  4. Major calyx
  5. Renal pelvis
  6. Ureter
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1
Q

Name the 6 features of a typical vertebra?

A 
Vertebral body
Vertebral arch (x2 pedicle, x2 lamina)
Vertebral foramen
Transverse processes x2
articular processes - superior + inferior
Spinous process
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2
Q

Name 3 anatomical sites of uretic constriction

A
  1. Pelvicuretic junction
  2. Ureter crossing anterior aspect of common iliac artery
  3. Ureteric oriphice
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3
Q

Where is the trigone of the bladder located?

A

Floor of bladder between the bilateral uretic + midline urethral oriphices

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4
Q

What type of muscle fibres encircle the ureteric orifices?

A

Detruser muscle fibres

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5
Q

What is the role of a myelin sheath?

A

Electrical insulator: a myelinated nerve conducts action potentials faster

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6
Q

In the CNS what is a group of nerve cell bodies called?

A

A nucleus

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7
Q

In the PNS what is a group of nerve cell bodies called?

A

A ganglion

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8
Q

Name the 12 cranial nerves?

A
  1. olfactory 2. optic 3. oculomotor 4. trochlear 5. trigeminal
  2. abducent 7. facial 8. vestibulotrochlear 9. glossopharyngeal
  3. vagus 11. spinal accessory 12. hypoglossal
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9
Q

Name the foraminae in the base of the skull for the cranial nerves to pass through

A

optic canal, superior orbital fissure, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, interneal acoustic meatus, jugular foramen, hypoglossal canal, foramen magnum, cribiform plate of ethmoid bone

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10
Q

In the spinal cord which is superficial/deep - white matter or grey matter?

A

white - superficial

grey - deep

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11
Q

Where is grey matter found in the brain and is it deep or superficial?

A

Cerebral cortex of brain (outermost layer)

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12
Q

Where is white matter - is it deep/superficial - and what gives it a white appearance?

A

In the brain - deep - contains axons with myelinated insulation (myolin)

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13
Q

C1 vertebra is missing_________ and instead has ________.

A

A body

A spinous process

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14
Q

C2 vertebra has an __________ .

A

Odontoid process

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15
Q

What is the palpable spinous process of C7 called?

A

Vertebra priminens

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16
Q

What do roots and rootlets do?

A

Connect the spinal nerve to the spinal cord

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17
Q

What do the rami do?

A

Connect the spinal nerve to the structures of the body wall

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18
Q

What do only anterior rami supply?

A

The limbs via plexi

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19
Q

What does the right cervical plexus (C1 - C4 anterior rami) supply?

A

Mainly the neck wall

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20
Q

What does the right brachial plexus (C5 - T1) supply?

A

The upper limb

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21
Q

What does the right lumbar plexus (L1 - L4) supply?

A

Supplies the lower limb

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22
Q

What does the right sacral plexus (L5 - S4) supply?

A

Supplies pelvis/perineum and lower limbs

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23
Q

What nerve is a named branch from the brachial plexus and is made from C5 and C6 axons from the anterior rami?

A

The musculocutaneous nerve

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24
Q

Classify the 12 pairs of ribs

A 
True ribs (1-6) attach via their costal cartilage to the sternum
False ribs (7-10) attach via costal cartilage above to the sternum
Floating ribs (11-12) have no attachments to the sternum
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25
Q

What are the attachments to bone of the biceps brachii?

A

From scapula to radius

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26
Q

What are the main actions of the biceps brachii?

A

Flexion of shoulder/elbow and supination of the radioulnar joints

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27
Q

What is the nerve supply for the biceps brachii?

A

Musculocutaneous nerve from brachial plexus

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28
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?

A

31 pairs

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29
Q

At what disc level does it end?

A

Ends inferiorly at L1/L2 intervertebral disc level

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30
Q

Name the 5 types of muscle?

A
  1. flat muscle
  2. pennate muscle
  3. fussiform muscle
  4. quadrate muscle
  5. sphincter muscle
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31
Q

What is an aponeurosis?

A

A flattened tendon

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32
Q

What do aponeuroses attach from?

A

Muscle to soft tissue

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33
Q

What is a synapse?

A

A communication in the spinal cord between the sensory and motor nerves

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34
Q

What is the conus medullaris?

A

The spinal cord as a solid structure ends here

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35
Q

Split the spinal nerve pairs into sections (e.g. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral and coccygeal)

A 
8 pairs - cervical - (C1-8)
12 pairs - thoracic - (T1-T12)
5 pairs - lumbar - (L1-L5)
5 pairs - sacral - (S1-S5)
1 pair - coccygeal - (R+L)
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36
Q

What segments of the spinal cord have lateral horns?

A

T1 - L2 for cell bodies of next sympathetic neurones in the chain

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37
Q

What do sympathetic axons from the brain descend in?

A

The spinal cord - white matter

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38
Q

What 4 cranial nerves have parasympathetic axons?

A

III
VII
IX
X

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39
Q

What are the 5 named nerves that supply the upper limb, coming from the brachial plexus?

A 
Axillary nerve
Median nerve
Musculocutaneous nerve
Radial nerve
Ulnar nerve
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40
Q

Name the special sensory cranial nerves?

A

Olfactory, optic, facial, vestibulocochlear, glossopharyngeal

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41
Q

Name the motor nerves

A

Occulomotor, trochlear, trigeminal V3, abducent, facial, glossopharyngeal, vagus, spinal accessory, hypoglossal

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42
Q

Name the parasympathetic nerves

A

occulomotor, facial, glossopharyngeal and vagus

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43
Q

Name the “sensory” cranial nerves

A

Trigeminal (V1- V3), glossopharyngeal and vagus

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44
Q

Name the the three planes

A

Sagittal
Coronal
Axial/transverse

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45
Q

How does haemoglobin bind to oxygen in the lungs?

A

Reversibly

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46
Q

Name 3 lymphatic tissues?

A

Tonsils at the back of the nose, tongue and mouth
Spleen
GI tract associated lymphoid tissue

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47
Q

What do endocrine glands secrete?

A

Hormones directly into capillary blood

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48
Q

What type of joint connects the skull to the vertebrae?

A

Craniovertebral joints

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49
Q

Name the joint at the sternal angle?

A

Manubriosternal joint

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50
Q

Where are facet joints?

A

Between most vertebrae

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51
Q

What are the 3 different types of joints?

A

Fibrous
Cartilaginous
Synovial

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52
Q

Name 2 subtypes of fibrous joints

A

Sutures

Fibrous sheets

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53
Q

Give an example of a suture and a fibrous sheet joint

A

Coronal suture and interosseous membrane

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54
Q

What are the 2 subtypes of cartilaginous joints?

A

Primary and secondary

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55
Q

Name a primary cartilaginous joint

A

An epiphyseal growth plate of hyaline cartilage is a primary cartilaginous joint (it will ossify after growth is complete)

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56
Q

Name a secondary cartilaginous joint

A

Intervertebral discs of fibrocartilage

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57
Q

What are fontanelles?

A

Wide sutures in the neonatal skull

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58
Q

What are the two parts of intervertebral discs?

A

Outer fibrous anulus fibrosus (fibrocartilage)

Inner soft nucleus pulposus (soft centre - like pulp in teeth)

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59
Q

What can a slipped disc do to the spinal cord?

A

Compress it

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60
Q

What are the articular surfaces of synovial joints covered in?

A

Hyaline cartilage

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61
Q

What are the two parts of the capsule that wraps around a synovial joint?

A

Superficial strong fibrous layer

Deeper synovial membrane layer to secrete synovial fluid

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62
Q

What does the joint cavity in a synovial joint contain?

A

Synovial fluid

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63
Q

What do bursae in synovial joints do?

A

Prevent friction around the joint during movement

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64
Q

What are the two types of bursae?

A

Synovial fluid filled extensions of the joint capsule (continuous with joint cavity)

Closed sacs of synovial membrane containing synovial fliuid

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65
Q

Name the 5 types of synovial joints

A
  1. Pivot joints - 45 degrees of shaking the head
  2. Plane joints - minimal movement in one plane (acromioclavicular joint)
  3. Hinge joints - reasonable range of movement in one plane (knee)
  4. Ball and socket joint - good range of multi-axial movement (circumduction - hip joint)
  5. Biaxial joint - reasonable range of movement in one plane and less in another (hands and feet)
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66
Q

What is the shoulder joints flexion?

A

180

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67
Q

What is the shoulder joint extension?

A

90

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68
Q

What is the shoulder joint abduction?

A

180

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69
Q

What is the shoulder joints adduction?

A

45

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70
Q

What is the shoulder joints internal rotation?

A

90

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71
Q

What is the shoulder joints external rotation?

A

60

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72
Q

What is the hip joints flexion?

A

135

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73
Q

What is the hip joints extension?

A

15

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74
Q

What is the hip joints abduction?

A

45

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75
Q

What is the hip joints adduction?

A

30

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76
Q

What is the hip joints internal rotation?

A

35

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77
Q

What is the hip joints external rotation?

A

45

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78
Q

What is subluxation?

A

Reduced area of contaact between articular surfaces

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79
Q

What is dislocation?

A

Complete loss of contact between articular surfaces

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80
Q

What softens under the influence of placental hormone relaxin during pregnancy?

A

Pubic symphysis

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81
Q

What type of joint is the temperomandibular joint?

A

Synovial

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82
Q

Name the components of the TMJ

A

Mandibular fossa and the articular tubercle of the temporal bone
Head of the condylar process

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83
Q

Name the special feature of the TMJ

A

Articular disc

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84
Q

What happens in a dislocation of the TMJ?

A

The head of the condylar process of the mandible becomes “stuck” anterior to the articular tubercle of the temporal bone

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85
Q

How many bones are there in the skeleton?

A

206

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86
Q

What is endochondral ossification?

A

When a small, hyaline cartilage version grows and turns into bone

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87
Q

What might the medulla of a bone contain?

A

Bone marrow which can be the site of red and white blood cell production

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88
Q

Name a bony feature at the top of the humerous

A

Greater tubercle

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89
Q

Name a distal bony feature of the radius

A

Styloid process of the radius

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90
Q

Name a bony feature on the ischium?

A

Ischial tuberosity

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91
Q

Name a bony feature on the femur beginning with “L”

A

Lesser trochanter

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92
Q

Name a distal bony feature on the femur beginning with “F”

A

Femoral condyle

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93
Q

Name a bony feature on the proximal tibia

A

Tibial tuberosity

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94
Q

Name a bony feature of the tibia involved in the ankle joint?

A

Medial malleolus

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95
Q

Name 8 locations of the mandible where fractures are common?

A

Condylar process, ramus, angle, lower border of the left side of the mandible, body, mental foramen, mental process, coronoid process

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96
Q

What does the spinous process of a vertebra do?

A

Ligament and muscle attachment

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97
Q

What do the superior and inderior articular processes do?

A

Mobility via synovial facet joints with adjacent vertebrae

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98
Q

What do the transverse processes of vertebra do?

A

Ligament, muscle and rib articulations

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99
Q

What is the role of the vertebral foramen?

A

Convey/protect the spinal cord

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100
Q

What is the vertebral arch made up of?

A

2 pedicle

2 Lamina

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101
Q

What is the role of the intervertebral foramen?

A

To protect the spinal nerve connecting with the spinal cord

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102
Q

What is the C1 vertebra called?

A

Atlas

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103
Q

What is the C2 vertebra called?

A

Axis

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104
Q

What two things does C1 not have and what does it have instead?

A

No body or spinous process

Anterior and posterior arches

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105
Q

What feature does C2 have that is related to C1?

A

The odontoid process (C1’s body)

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106
Q

What is the vertebra prominens?

A

The first readily palpable spinous process of C7

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107
Q

What three layers is the heart made from?

A

Epicardium, myocardium, endocardium

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108
Q

What is fibrilation?

A

Uncoordinated contraction of myocytes that results in inefficient pumping that can be fatal if affecting the ventricles

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109
Q

What does adrenaline from the adrenal gland do to the heart?

A

Speeds it up and increases the force of contraction

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110
Q

What type of muscle is cardiac muscle?

A

Involuntary and striated

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111
Q

What type of muscle is smooth muscle?

A

Involuntary and non-striated

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112
Q

What type of muscle is skeletal muscle?

A

Voluntary and striated

113
Q

What are muscle fascicles made from?

A

Muscle fibres

114
Q

What are myocytes/muscle fibres made from?

A

Myofibrils

115
Q

What are myofibrils made from?

A

Actin and myosin microfilaments

116
Q

What are muscle striations due to?

A

Overlapping of actin and myosin microfilaments of the sacromere

117
Q

Name the origins and insertions of the bicepts brachii

A

Insertions x2 on the scapula

Origin on the radius

118
Q

What are the 3 origins and the 1 insertion of the deltoid muscle?

A

Origin on spine of scapula
Origin on acromion process of scapula
Origin on lateral 1/3rd of clavicle
Insertion on deltoid tuberosity of the humerous

119
Q

What do the posterior fibres of the deltoid muscle do?

A

Extension of the shoulder

120
Q

What do middle fibres of the deltoid muscle do?

A

Abduction of the shoulder

121
Q

What do anterior fibres of the deltoid muscle do?

A

Flexion of the shoulder

122
Q

What bony feature of the scapula is the head of the humerous related to?

A

Glenoid fossa of scapula (permits circumduction of shoulder)

123
Q

What bony feature of the humerous is at its distal end?

A

Trochlea of the distal humerous

124
Q

What bony feature of the ulna is at its proximal end?

A

Trochlear notch of the proximal ulna

125
Q

What muscle attaches to the anterior aspect of the tibia?

A

The tibialis anterior

126
Q

What are the two main reflexes involving skeletal muscle?

A

Stretch reflex

Flexion withdrawal reflex

127
Q

What ligament goes from the patella to the tibial tuberosity?

A

Patellar tendon

128
Q

What is a muscle without a functioning motor nerve supply called?

A

Paralysed

129
Q

What is a muscle that is intact and functioning its motor nerve but the descending controls from the brain are malfunctioning?

A

Spastic

130
Q

Where is the vesico-uterine pouch?

A

Between the bladder and uterus

131
Q

Where is the recto-uterine (pouch of Douglas)?

A

Most inferior part of the periotneal cavity

132
Q

Where will any abnormal fluid in the peritoneal cavity collect when upright?

A

The pouch of Douglas

133
Q

What are the three layers of the wall of the body of the uterus from external to internal?

A
  1. perimetrium
  2. myometrium
  3. endometrium
134
Q

What is the abdominal ostium?

A

Opening of the uterine tube into the peritoneal cavity

135
Q

Where does fertilisation occur?

A

In the ampulla of the uterine tube

136
Q

Where does implantation of the zygote usually occur?

A

In the body of the uterus

137
Q

What is an ectopic preganancy?

A

When the fertilised ovum implants outwith the uterine cavity

138
Q

How does female sterilisation occur?

A

Tubal ligation - both uterine tubes are clipped or cut or cauterised to occlude the lumen

139
Q

What is the hood of the penis called?

A

Prepuce

140
Q

What gland in the brain plays a vital role in regulating male hormone production and the development of sperm?

A

the pituitary gland

141
Q

What muscle surrounds the scrotum?

A

The dartos muscle (in the superficial fascia) - contracts to wrinkle/thicken the scrotum skin, reduce the surface area in oder to maintain the correct scrotal temperature of -1

142
Q

Where does sperm form?

A

In the semiferous tubules of the testis

143
Q

Where does sperm pass to once it has formed?

A

To the rete testis

144
Q

Where does sperm pass to from the rete testis?

A

To the head of the epididymis which then becomes the vas deferens

145
Q

What is the name of the 2 glands anterior and 1 gland inferior to the bladder?

A

Seminal glands and the prostate gland

146
Q

What do seminal glands produce?

A

Seminal fluid

147
Q

What two roles does the prostatic urethra have?

A

Drains urine from the bladder

Passes semen in ejaculation

148
Q

What is semen made from?

A

Sperm and seminal fluid

149
Q

Where do the right and left ejaculatory ducts join together in?

A

The prostate gland

150
Q

What is the lining of the inside of the bronchial tree (except for the distal bronchioles and alveoli)?

A

Respiratory epithelium

151
Q

Where in the respiratory pathway does hyaline cartilage support?

A

The walls of the trachea and all of the bronchi

152
Q

What are the two nasal cavities seperated by?

A

A nasal septum

153
Q

What is the bony part of the nasal septum and what is the cartilaginous part of the nasal septum?

A

Superiorly - ethmoid bone
Posteriorly - Vomer
Cartilaginous - septal cartilage (hyaline)

Bony is posterior and carilaginous is anterior

154
Q

What is the floor of the nasal cavity formed by?

A

The palate

155
Q

What is the roof of the nasal cavity formed by?

A

The anterior cranial fossa

156
Q

What type of cartilage is inferior to the thyroid cartilage?

A

Cricoid cartilageq

157
Q

What type of cartlage is posterior to the larynx?

A

Arytenoid cartilages

158
Q

What greatly increase the surface area of the lateral walls of nasal cavities?

A

The conchae (produce turbulent flow)

159
Q

What do tonsils produce?

A

White blood cells in the defence against infection

160
Q

What are 4 muscles of mastication?

A

Masseter
Temporalis
Medial pterygoid
Lateral pterygoid

161
Q

What are two functions of the orbicularis oris?

A
  1. Circularly arranged around the lips and contraction draws the lips together
  2. Produces an anterior oral seal that prevents dribbling during chewing and swallowing
162
Q

What is the oral cavity lined with?

A

Mucosa covered with stratified squamous epithelium

163
Q

What do only the gingivae and hard palate have for their protection during chewing?

A

Keratin

164
Q

Where is the posterior third of the tongue found?

A

In the oropharynx

165
Q

What are the four types of papillae and their functions?

A

Foliate papillae - Taste
Vallate papillae - taste
Fungiform papillae - taste
Filiform papillae - touch, temperature etc

166
Q

What do the four pairs of skeletal intrinsic muscles in the tongue do?

A

Modify the shape of the tongue during function

167
Q

What do the 4 pairs of skeletal muscles of extrnisic muscles of the tongue do?

A

Move the tongue around

168
Q

What action does the buccinator do?

A

With the help of the tongue it acts to position the food bolus between the occlusal (biting) surfaces of the teeth for mastication

169
Q

What teeth numbers are molars given?

A

6,7 & 8 (wisdom teeth)

170
Q

What teeth numbers are premolars given?

A

4 & 5

171
Q

What teeth number are canines given?

A

3

172
Q

What teeth numbers are incisors given?

A

1 & 2

173
Q

How many teeth are there?

A

32 teeth

174
Q

Name the 3 major salivary glands

A 
Parotid glands (near the ear)
Submandibular glands (under the mandible)
Sublingual glands (under the tongue)
175
Q

Where are our minor salivary glands?

A

In the oral mucosa

176
Q

What lining does the pharynx have?

A

Muscular tube lined with non-keratinised stratified squamous mucosa

177
Q

Within the mucosa of the nasopharynx and oropharynx what is the ring of tonsils called?

A

Waldeyer’s ring of “tonsils”

178
Q

What two structures guide the food bolus away from the midline laryngeal inlet?

A

The uvula of the soft palate and the epiglottis

179
Q

What do the inner vertically arranged layer of longitudinal muscles of the pharynx do?

A

Attach inferiorly to the larynx
Contract during swallowing and raise the larynx
Raise the larynx towards the epiglottis closes the laryngeal inlet

180
Q

What do the outer circularly arrange layer of constrictor muscles of the pharynx do? (Superior, middle and inferior)

A

Sequentially contract from superior to inferior to push the food bolus inferiorly into the oesophagus

181
Q

What type of mucosa is the oesophagus lined with?

A

Non-keratinised stratified squamous mucosa

182
Q

What four layers constitute the walls of the intestine?

A

Lumen
Mucosa
Inner circularly arranged smooth muscle
Outer longitudinally arranged smooth muscle

183
Q

What part (retroperitoneum, intraperitoneum) does the inferior vena cava ascend in?

A

the retroperitoneum

184
Q

Does the aorta descend in the retroperitoneum or intraperitoneum?

A

Retroperitoneum

185
Q

What branch of the aorta is just superior to the renal vein but does not pass inferiorly over it?

A

The coelic trunk

186
Q

What artery passes over the renal vein?

A

The superior mesenteric artery

187
Q

Where does the splenic vein drain into?

A

Hepatic portal vein

188
Q

What does the inferior mesenteric vein drain into?

A

The splenic vein

189
Q

How do foregut structures drain their lymph?

A

Via nodes located along the splenic artery towards coeliac nodes (around coeliac trunk)

190
Q

How do midgut structures drain their lymph?

A

Via nodes located along the superior mesenteric artery towards the superior mesenteric nodes (located around the origin of the superior mesenteric artery)

191
Q

How do hindgut structures drain their lymph?

A

Via nodes located along the inferior mesenteric artery towards the inferior mesenteric nodes (located around the origin of the inferior mesenteric artery)

192
Q

Name the 3 sphincters located down the GI tract

A
  1. Cricopharyngeal sphincter (at the junction between the laryngopharynx and oesophagus to help prevent regurgitation)
  2. Pyloric sphincter (at the junction between the stomach and duodenum to control the release of chyme from the stomach)
  3. External anal sphincter (at the junction between the anus and external environment to control the release of stool from the anal canal)
193
Q

What type of muscle is the pyloric sphincter composed of?

A

Smooth muscle

194
Q

What are the main endocrine glands in the cranial cavity?

A

Hypothalamus and pituitary gland

195
Q

Where are the main endocrine glands in the neck?

A

4 parathyroid glands and the thyroid gland

196
Q

Where are the main endocrine glands in the abdomen?

A

2 adrenal glands and the pancreas

197
Q

Where are the main endocrine glands in the pelvis?

A

Female - 2 ovaries in broad ligaments

Male - 2 testes in the scrotum

198
Q

What are the three parts of the brainstem from superior to inferior?

A

Midbrain, pons, medulla

199
Q

What is the diencephalon?

A

Thalamus and hypothalamus

It forms the central core of the cerebrum with connections to the right and left cerebral hemispheres and the mid brain

200
Q

What does the cribiform plate of the ethmoid bone do?

A

Transmits olfactory nerves - sense of smell

201
Q

Where is the pituitary gland located?

A

In the pituitary fossa of the sphenoid bone

202
Q

What does the infundibulum of the hypothalamus do?

A

Connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland

203
Q

How do the axons of hypothalamic neurones pass down into the posterior pituitary?

A

Through the infundibulum

204
Q

What do the hypothalamic neurones in the posterior pituitary manufacture?

A

Oxytocin

Vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone or ADH)

205
Q

When hypothalamic neurones secrete releasing hormones what happens?

A

They stimulate the anterior pituitary to release its hormones into the blood stream

206
Q

What two ways does the hypophyseal portal system drain venous blood?

A
  1. from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary capillary beds - this blood contains the releasing or release-inhibitory hormones
  2. from the anterior pituitary a second set of veins drains the venous blood to the hypophyseal veins and then eventually to the SVC - this blood contains the anterior pituitary hormones
207
Q

What 6 hormones does the anterior pituitary relase?

A 
GH (growth hormone)
Prolactin (milk production)
TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone)
ACTH (adrenocorticotrophic hormone)
LH (lutenising hormone - gonads)
FSH (follicle stimulating hormone - ovaries)
208
Q

What is an enlarged gland called?

A

A goitre

209
Q

What is the thyroid gland attached to?

A

The larynx

210
Q

What is the inferior part of the thyroid gland called?

A

The isthmus

211
Q

What does the thyroid gland use to manufacture its hormones and what two hormones are produced?

A

Iodine
triiodothyronine (T3)
thyroxine (T4)

212
Q

What do thyroid hormones do?

A

regulate metabolism and stimulate growth

213
Q

What can an enlarged thyroid gland be as a result of?

A

Dietary lack of iodine

214
Q

Where are the 4 parathyroid glands located?

A

On the posterior surfaces of the thyroid glands lobes

215
Q

What do the 4 parathyroid glands manufacture and secrete?

A

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

216
Q

What does parathyroid hormone do?

A

Controls the amount of calcium in the blood and bone

217
Q

What is the blood supply to the thyroid gland?

A

Right inferior thyroid artery

Left superior thyroid artery

218
Q

How does the thyroid glands venous drainage work?

A

Right superior middle and inferior thyroid veins

Veins draining blood from head, neck and upper limbs

219
Q

Where does the pancreas receive its blood from?

A

The coeliac trunk and superior mesenteric artery

220
Q

Where does the pancreas drain its blood to?

A

The splenic vein and superior mesenteric vein

221
Q

What are the 2 anatomically and functionally distinct parts of the pancreas?

A

The endocrine pancreas (the Islets of Langerhans)

The exocrine pancreas

222
Q

What occurs in the endocrine pancreas?

A

Insulin is secreted into the venous blood in response to islet cells detecting increased blood glucose

223
Q

What does the exocrine pancreas do?

A

Manufactures digestive enzymes and secretes them (plus electrolytes) via a duct system into the duodenum

224
Q

Where are the two adrenal (suprarenal) glands?

A

Capping the superior poles of the kidneys

225
Q

What are the two anatomically and functionally discrete endocrine parts of the adrenal gland?

A
  1. Adrenal cortex

2. Adrenal medulla

226
Q

What does the adrenal cortex of the adrenal gland relase?

A

Glucocorticoids - the release of glucocorticoids is under pituitary ACTH control
Mineralcorticoids
Androgens

227
Q

What does the adrenal medulla of the adrenal gland produce?

A

Adrenaline

Noradrenaline

228
Q

What are mineralcorticoids involved in?

A

Blood pressure control

229
Q

Which gonadal artery branches off more superiorly?

A

The left

230
Q

What three arteries supply the right adrenal gland?

A

Right inferior suprarenal artery (branch of renal artery)
Right middle suprarenal artery (branch of the aorta)
Right superior suprarenal artery

231
Q

Where does the right suprarenal vein and left suprarenal vein drain into?

A

Right goes to IVC

Left goes to left renal vein

232
Q

What does the male gonad secrete?

A

Testosterone in response to LH from the anterior pituitary

233
Q

What do the ovaries secrete and what is it in response to?

A

Oestrogen and progesterone in response to FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary

234
Q

What does the right gonad venous blood drain into?

A

IVC

235
Q

What does the left gonad venous blood drain into?

A

The left renal vein

236
Q

What do testosterone and oestrogen do?

A

Control the development of secondary sexual characteristics, promote the closure of the epiphyseal growth plates and stimulate sperm and ovum development respectively

237
Q

What is progesterones role?

A

To prepare the uterus for pregnancy

238
Q

Name three types of autonomic nerves?

A

Visceral afferents
Sympathetic nerves
Parasympathetic nerves

239
Q

In the CNS what is a group of nerve cell bodies called?

A

A nucleus

240
Q

In the PNS what is a group of nerve cell bodies called?

A

A ganglion

241
Q

What is the role of a myelin sheath?

A

Electrical insulator: a myelinated nerve conducts action potentials faster

242
Q

What nerve supplies the biceps brachii muscle?

A

Musculocutaneous

243
Q

Name the 12 cranial nerves

A

Olfactory, optic, oculomotor, trochlear, trigeminal, abducent, facial, vestibulocochlear, glossopharyngeal, vagus, spinal accessory, hypoglossal

244
Q

Which CN travels through the cribiform plate of the ethmoid bone?

A

Olfactory

245
Q

Which nerve passes through the optic canal?

A

Optic

246
Q

Which nerves pass through the superior orbital fissure?

A

Occulomotor, trochlear, trigeminal (V1), abducent

247
Q

What nerves pass through the foramen rotundum?

A

Trigeminal (V2)

248
Q

What nerve passes through the foramen ovale?

A

Trigeminal (V3)

249
Q

What nerve travels through the internal acoustic meatus?

A

Facial, vestibuocochlear

250
Q

What nerve travels through the jugular foramen?

A

Glossopharyngeal, vagus, spinal accessory

251
Q

What nerve travels through the hypoglossal canal?

A

Hypoglossal

252
Q

Where does the spinal cord end inferiorly?

A

At L1/L2 intervertebral disc level

253
Q

What does the spinal cord end as?

A

The conus medullaris

254
Q

What part of the dermatome strip do posterior rami supply?

A

The paramedian strip

255
Q

All limb dermatomes are supplied by what rami?

A

Anterior

256
Q

Name one branch from the brachial plexus?

A

Musculocutaneous (made from axons from both C5 and C6 anterior rami

257
Q

What is the right cervical plexus made up of and what does it supply?

A

C1 - C4 anterior rami (supplies mainly neck wall)

258
Q

What is the right brachial plexus made up from and what does it supply?

A

C5 - T1 anterior rami

Supplies upper limb

259
Q

What does the right lumbar plexus supply and what is it made from?

A

L1 - L4 anterior rami

Supplies lower limb

260
Q

What does the right sacral plexus supply and what is it made from?

A

L5 - S4 anterior rami

Supplies pelvis/perineum and lower limb

261
Q

What are the 5 named nerves supplying the upper limb, from the brachial plexus?

A 
Axillary
Median
Musculocutaneous
Radial
Ulnar
262
Q

What segments of the spinal cord have lateral horns?

A

T1 - L2

263
Q

What do sympathetic axons from the brain descend in?

A

Spinal cord white matter

264
Q

Which cranial nerves contain parasympathetic axons?

A

III, VII, IX & X

265
Q

Where do nerves containing parasympathetic axons only travel to?

A

Organs

266
Q

What receptors receive pain?

A

Nociceptors

267
Q

What happens at the right primary somatosensory area?

A

Sensory APs arriving here bring left sided body wall sensations into consciousness

268
Q

Where is the right primary somatomotor area and what does it do?

A

In the right frontal lobe (other one is in parietal)
Motor APs originating here as a result of conscious planning of a movement bring about contractions of the correct left sided skeletal muscles to make that movement

269
Q

In the body wall what do sympathetic fibres supply?

A

Skin sweat glands
Skin arrector muscles
All arterioles

270
Q

What is the distal urethra lined by?

A

Protective stratified squamous epithelium

271
Q

From urter to upper urethra what are the tubes lined with?

A

Transitional epithelium

272
Q

What ribs protect the kidenys?

A

11 and 12

273
Q

What two fat layers are on the kidneys?

A

Paranephric fat and perinephric fat

274
Q

What does the glomerulus of the kidnehy do?

A

Ultrafiltration of the blood arriving via branches of the renal artery

275
Q

What does the collecting duct do?

A

Passes through the pyramid to drain the modified filtrate into the minor calyx as urine

276
Q

What artery does the ureter cross the anterior aspect of?

A

The common iliac artery

277
Q

Where is the trigone of the bladder located?

A

On the floor of the bladder between the bilateral ureteric and midline urethral orifices

278
Q

What type of muscle does the bladder have in its walls?

A

detrusor

279
Q

What artery fo the right vertebral and left vertebral artery joint to make?

A

Basilar artery

280
Q

What is the carotid sinus innervated by?

A

CN IX

JL Principles (12 decks)

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