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Apollon > MICROBIOLOGY > Flashcards

MICROBIOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

Capsule can be used for

A

Serotype by swelling

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2
Q

To demonstrate capsule, grow the culture on media containing

A
  • milk

* serum

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3
Q

The Quellung test depends on the antigenic specificity of the

A

capsule

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4
Q

Dark staining granules

A

Metachromatic

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5
Q

Organisms that vary in size and shape

A

Pleomorphic

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6
Q

In the bacterial growth cycle, growth ceases because nutrients are exhausted or toxic metabolic products have accumulated in the

A

Stationary/Plateau Phase

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7
Q

Bacteria form spores

A
  • Clostridium

* Bacillus

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8
Q

Bacteria that grow in the absence of athmospheric (free) oxygen and obtain oxygen from oxygen containing compounds

A

Anaerobes

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9
Q

The temperature at which bacteria grow best

A

Optimum

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10
Q

A slimy colony on blood agar medium indicates which of the following characteristics may be present?

A

Organism has a capsule

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11
Q

On blood agar plates a small zone of alpha-hemolysis surrounded by zone beta hemolysis after refrigeration

A

Alpha-prime

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12
Q

When using fractional sterilization the sequence

A

Heating (kill vegetative bacteria)
Incubation (spores germinate)
Heating (kills remaining vegetative bacteria)

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13
Q

Most effective method of sterilization

A

Autoclave

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14
Q

Used for quality control for the dry heat oven

A

Bacillus subtilis

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15
Q

Filters can give 100% sterility

A

Millipore (0.22um)

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16
Q

Media that cannot be heated can be sterilized by

A

Filtration

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17
Q

Which of the following is not a disinfectant?

A

70% alcohol

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18
Q

Iodophors are composed of

A

Iodine and Detergent

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19
Q

Quarternary ammonium disinfectants are easily inactivated by

A

Organic Material

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20
Q

Term that describes a process or treatment that renders a medical device, instrument or environment surface to handle

A

Decontamination

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21
Q

Gram positive bacteria stain

A

Purple

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22
Q

The mordant used in the Ziehl-Neelsen acid fast stain

A

Heat

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23
Q

Smear for an acid fast stain fixed

A

Slide warmer at 65C for 2 hours

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24
Q

Acid fast bacteria appear what color microscopically

A

Red

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25
Q

Acid fast organism in tissue are best stained by

A

Kinyoun

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26
Q

In the Ziehl-Neelsen staining mtd, the decolorizer

A

Alcohol + HCl

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27
Q

An exmaple of negative stain

A

India Ink stain

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28
Q

NOT gram negative

A

Peptococcus

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29
Q

NOT an anaerobe

A

Campylobacter

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30
Q

If a patient is taking antimicrobials, which can neutralize the antimicrobials

A

Thiol broth

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31
Q

From a bronchial washing, organisms are seen on a Gram stain, but no growth occurs aerobically and anaerobically. This most likely due to

A

Inhibition by antibiotic therapy

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32
Q

Use to remove antimicrobials before culturing

A

Antimicrobial Removal Device

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33
Q

Sodium Polyanethol sulfonate may be used as an anticoagulant in blood cultures because it

A
  • Prevents phagocytosis

* Neutralizes the bactericidal effect of human serum

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34
Q

Most abundant normal flora in throat culture

A

Alpha hemolytic Streptococcus

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35
Q

Most common pathogen in throat culture

A

Group A Streptococcus

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36
Q

Why must blood agar plates for throat cultures can be incubated aerobically and anaerobically when beta hemolytic streptococci are suspected

A

Some may produce beta hemolysis under aerobic conditions

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37
Q

Nasopharyngeal swabs are recommended for the detection of carriers such as

A

Haemophilus influenzae
Neisseria
Bordetella pertussis

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38
Q

Todd- Hewitt broth is recommended for

A

Culture of beta-hemolytic streptococci for fluorescence microscopy

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39
Q

Phenylethyl alcohol is used in media to

A

Inhibit gram negative bacteria

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40
Q

Why is a first morning urine specimen preferred for urine cultures

A

Specimen is more concentrated

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41
Q

what indicates vaginal or urethral contamination of urine

A

Many squamous epithelial cells

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42
Q

In the pour-plate mtd for colony counts, how does the amount of agar added affect the dilution

A

Dilution is not affected

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43
Q

Smears of CSF are usually stained with

A

Gram stain

India ink stain

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44
Q

Smears of CSF are prepared from

A

CSF sediment

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45
Q

Test for bacterial antigen on cultures isolated from CSF is more sensitive and faster

A

Latex agglutination tests

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46
Q

Staphylococcal protein A coated with antiserum is used in which of the serological test on CSF

A

Coagglutination test

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47
Q

NOT cause of venereal disease

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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48
Q

Using sheep blood agar plates eliminates beta hemolytic

A

Hemophilus

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49
Q

A positive tube coagulase test is observed for

A

clotting of plasma

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50
Q

Type of plasma is used for the tube coagulase test

A

Rabbit

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51
Q

Some citrate positive organism cause a false positive tube coagulase test because the organism uses the citrate

A

and releases Calcium

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52
Q

A nonhemolytic, catalase positive, coagulase negative, gram possitive coccus

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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53
Q

Preferred mtd of differentiating S.aureus from S. epidermidis

A

Coagulase test

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54
Q

Staphylococci that cause of UTI in young females

A

S. saphrophyticus

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55
Q

S. aureus can be isolated from stool cultures by the use of

A

Medium with 7.5% salt concentration

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56
Q

Most common cause of bacterial food poisoning in the US

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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57
Q

Gram positive cocci that ferment glucose

A

Staphylococci

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58
Q

Produced by beta hemolytic streptococci, is oxygen stable and non antigenic

A

Streptolysin S

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59
Q

Cultures for beta hemolytic streptococci must include

A

Anaerobic incubation to detect hemolysis in all strains

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60
Q

Destroyed by oxygen

A

Streptolysin O

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61
Q

Group A beta hemolytic streptococci

A

Bacitracin Susceptible

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62
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

Optochin susceptible

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63
Q

Alpha hemolytic streptococci

A

Optochin resistant

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64
Q

Group B, beta hemolytic streptococci

A

Hippurate hydrolysis positive

CAMP test positive

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65
Q

Enterococcus

A

Bile esculin positive

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66
Q

Whenever a biochemical test is substituted for a serological test is reported

A

As “presumptive” with the name of the biochemical test

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67
Q

CAMP is a factor produced by group B beta-hemolytic streptococci that

A

Enlarges the zone of lysis formed by staphylococcal beta-hemolysin

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68
Q

A positive Quellung test is

A

From capsular swelling due to an antigen-antibody reaction

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69
Q

Serological test used for a confirmatory test for streptococci

A

Phadebac test
Fluorescent antibody test
Lancefield precipitin test

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70
Q

When performing a bacitracin differentiation test for group A beta hemolytic streptococci, use disks that have how many units?

A

0.02-0.04 units

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71
Q

Group A streptococci

A

“strep throat”

Scarlet fever

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72
Q

Group B streptococci

A

Major pathogen of the newborn

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73
Q

Alpha hemolytic streptococci

A

Subacute bacteria Endocarditis

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74
Q

What do optochin and bacitracin tests have in common

A

Growth inhibition is a positive result

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75
Q

Bile esculin test is used to differentiate

A

Group D streptococci from other strep

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76
Q

Hippurate hydrolysis is used to differentiate

A

Group A from Group B streptococci

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77
Q

A bacitracin resistant, hippurate hydrolysis positive, bile esculin positive, beta hemolytic Streptococcus that grows in 6.5% NaCl

A

Enterococcus

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78
Q

Pneumococci that are resistant to penicillin should be tested for

A

Production of beta lactamase

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79
Q

Gram negative, coffee bean shaped diplococci with adjacent sides flattened

A

Neisseria

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80
Q

Diagnosis of gonorrhea in males can be made from

A

Positive urethral smear
Symptoms
History

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81
Q

Specimens may be appropriate for culturing Neisseria gonorrhea

A

Eyes
Rectum
Oral cavity

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82
Q

Medium choice for culturing gonococci and meningococci

A

Modified Thayer Martin

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83
Q

Differentiates Thayer Martin medium from Modified Thayer Martin medium

A

Trimethoprim lactate

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84
Q

Thayer Martin medium is basically an

A

Enriched chocolate agar

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85
Q

Color of a positive oxidase test

A

Dark Purple

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86
Q

Genera that are oxidase positive

A

Moraxella
Aeromonas
Neisseria

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87
Q

Techniques that can be used when performing the oxidase test

A

Put a drop of reagent on the colony
Rub colony on a filter paper strip and add a drop of reagent
Rub the colony on a piece of filter paper containing the reagent

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88
Q

What do “PPNG” gonococci produce

A

Penicillinase-producing gonococci

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89
Q

Methods for testing for the production of beta lactamase

A

Chromogenic cephalosphorin mtd
Acidometric mtd
Iodometric mtd

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90
Q

Positive reaction for the beta lactamase chromogenic cephalosphorin mtd

A

Color change

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91
Q

An oxidase positive, gram neg coccus from a throat culture

A

Neissseria

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92
Q

A fastidious, oxidase positive, gram negative coccus from rectal swab

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

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93
Q

Neisseria meningitidis degrades what sugars

A

Glucose

Maltose

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94
Q

Which of the following test can give a presumptive identification of Branhamella catarrhalis if the isolate is a gram neg diplococcus that is oxidase positive and isolated from middle ear fluid

A

Beta lactamase test

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95
Q

Why should beta lactamase tests be performed with growth from primary isolation media

A

Plasmid coding for the enzyme may be lost in subculturing

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96
Q

Purpose of potassium tellurite in tellurite medium

A

Inhibits the normal flora

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97
Q

Potassium tellurite medium produces what color colonies of Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

Gray-black

98
Q

When culturing Corynebacterium diphtheriae, which of the following media will enhance pleomorphism and granule production

A

Leoffler serum agar

Pai coagulated egg medium

99
Q

Morphology of Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

Gram positive, nonmotile rods

100
Q

The term “pallisading” “picket fence” and “chinese letter” describe the common arrangement of cells of

A

Corynebacterium

101
Q

Babes Ernst granules are characteristics of

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

102
Q

Considered diphtheroids

A

Corynebacterium xeroxis

Corynebacterium JK

103
Q

Diphtheroids found in the normal throat

A

Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum

104
Q

Elek test is for the detection of

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxin, in vitro

105
Q

The morphological cycle of Rhodococcus equi from coccoid to rod form tales

A

24 hours

106
Q

Gram positive to gram variable coccobacillus

A

Listeria monocytogenes

107
Q

Listeria monocytogenes produces a positive of what biochemical test

A

Catalase

108
Q

Virulence test for Listeria monocytogenes

A

Anton test

109
Q

Refrigeration of the specimen for several months may enhance isolation of

A

Listeria monocytogenes

110
Q

Differentiate Listeria monocytogenes from the corynebacteria

A

Non motile and salicin negative

111
Q

Spore forming cells in bamboo pole arrangement of bacillus anthracis can be found in

A

Cultures

112
Q

Aerobic, gram positive, sporulating rods can cause food poisoning

A

Bacillus cereus

113
Q

Very large gram negative rods with spores are seen in a non turbid thioglycollatebroth culture of spinal fluid, but there is no growth anaerobically or aerobically. This most likely due to:

A

Bacillus sp. in the dehydrated medium are killed and made gram negative by autoclaving the medium

114
Q

Ziehl-Neelsen acid fast staining:

  1. Primary dye
  2. Mordant
  3. Decolorizer
  4. Counterstain
A
  1. Carbol fuchsin
  2. Heat to speed staining
  3. Acid (3% HCl) alcohol
  4. dilute methylene blue
115
Q

Color of non acid fast bacilli stain

A

blue

116
Q

Acid fast bacilli retain the dye

A

Carbol fuchsin

117
Q

An acid fast stain that does not use heat as a mordant

A

Kinyoun stain

118
Q

Media is clear so that the colonies of mycobacteria can be examined microscopically

A

Middlebrook 7H11

119
Q

Color of negative enzymatic hydrolysis of Tween 80 test

A

Amber

120
Q

Mycobacterial cultures should be incubated

A

in 5% Carbon Dioxide

121
Q

A slow growing, unbranched, acid fast rod that is nitrate reduction negative and niacin negative

A

Mycobacterium bovis

122
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best differentiated form M. bovis by

A

Niacin and nitrate reduction test

123
Q

Slow growers

A

M. kasasii
MAI
M. tb

124
Q

Differential test for identifying the species of Mycobacterium splits phenolphthalein form tripotassium phenolphthalein sulfate within 2-3 days

A

Arylsulfatase test

125
Q

Used for identification of mycobacteria

A

Growth rate
Pigment production
Biochemical reactions

126
Q

One tube of Lowenstein-Jensen medium is incubated covered with foil and one tube is incubated uncovered. When is the covered tube observed

A

When growth appears on the uncovered tube

127
Q

Group IV (rapid growers)

A

M. fortuitum
M.chelonae
M. phlei
M. smegmatis

128
Q

Macrophages containing acid fast bacilli

A

Lepra cells

129
Q

Acid fast rods in a specimen from nasal mucosa

A

Are not a diagnostic point

130
Q

The Fite-Faracco acid fast stain is different from other acid fast stains because it uses

A

Hematoxylin rather than methylene blue as a counterstain

131
Q

Specimen usually used for the diagnosis of Hansen’s disease

A

Tissue juice

132
Q

Lumpy jaw is caused by

A

Actinomyces israelli

133
Q

NOT anaerobic

A

Actinomyces

134
Q

Urease Positive

A

Nocardia

135
Q

Nocardia will grow on any media that does not contain

A

Antibiotics

136
Q

Haemophilus influenzae (dis)

A

Meningitis

137
Q

H. ducreyi (dis)

A

Ulcerative chancroid

138
Q

H. aegypticus (dis)

A

Pink eye

139
Q

H. haemolyticus (dis)

A

Normal flora in respiratory tract

140
Q

Medium preferred for the culture of most Haemophilus

A

enriched chocolate agar

141
Q

A fastidious, small to filamentous, gram neg rod from nasopharyngeal swab

A

H. influenzae

142
Q

Cultures of Staphylococcus supplies what for cultures of Haemophilus

A

V factor

143
Q

Type of blood used in blood agar plates for better production of beta hemolysis of Haemophilus

A

Horse

144
Q

Organism cause whooping cough

A

Bordetella pertussis

145
Q

Specie of Bordetella that is urease and oxidase positive

A

B. parapertussis

146
Q

Preferred medium for the isolation of Bordetella pertussis

A

Charcoal-cephalexin agar

147
Q

A Brucella isolate that does not produce H2S, does not require CO2 and is not inhibited by thionin or basic fuchsin

A

Brucella melitensis, biotype 1

148
Q

Gram negative, fastidious bacillus that has been isolated from air conditioning towers

A

Legionella pneumophila

149
Q

Gram negative, fastidious bacillus that is difficult to stain by Gram stain

A

Legionella pneumophila

150
Q

A relatively slow growing and fastidious, gram negative rod that produces a characteristic brown pigment on Feeley-Gorman agar

A

Legionella pneumophila

151
Q

Most sensitive for the diagnosis of infections with Legionella pneumophila

A

Detection of soluble microbial products in body fluids

152
Q

Best medium for the isolation of Legionella

A

Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar

153
Q

Composition of Campy gas mixture

A

10% CO2
5% O2
85% Nitrogen

154
Q

“Rice water” stools often contain

A

A pure culture of Vibrio cholorae

155
Q

A curved, gram negative rod that is non fermentive, nitrate positive and microaerophilic

A

Campylobacter jejuni

156
Q

Campylobacter is an

A

Obligate microaerophile

157
Q

A gram negative, slender, curved rod with a single polar flagellum is the cause of gastroenteritis and best isolated on

A

Campy blood agar

158
Q

Clue cells may be found in infections with

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

159
Q

Mycoplasma are not true bacteria because they

A

Have no cell wall

160
Q

Microorganisms form colonies that are embedded in the agar giving a fried egg appearance

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

161
Q

Best method for the identification of Mycoplasma species

A

Inhibition of growth by specific antisera

162
Q

Purpose of enrichment fluid media when culturing Enterobacteriaceae

A

Decreases lag phase of pathogens

Extends lag phase of normal flora

163
Q 
Crystal violet
Bile salts
Neutral red
Lactose
Brick red colonies
Colorless colonies
A

MacConkey medium

164
Q

Eosin Y and Methylene bllue
lactose and sucrose
black or purple colonies
colorless colonies

A

Holt harris EMB medium

165
Q

Eosin Y and Methylene bllue
Lactose only
black or purple colonies
colorless colonies

A

Levine’s EMB agar

166
Q

Non fermenters produce what reaction in triple sugar iron (TSI)

A

Alkaline slant, alkaline or neutral butt

167
Q

Hydrogen sulfide indicator in Triple Sugar Iron (TSI)

A

Sodium thiosulfate

168
Q

IMViC is a series of which of the following tests

A

Indole
Methyl Red
Vogues-Proskauer
Citrate

169
Q

Indicator of methyl red test

A

Methyl Red

170
Q

Most Enterobacteriaceae give what type of Methyl Red and Voges-Proskauer reactions

A

Opposite

171
Q

Indicators of Simmons citrate agar

A

Bromthymol blue

172
Q 
Lactose only
Bile salts and brilliant green
Neutral red
Citrate to inhibit coliforms and Proteus
Red colonies
Colorless colonies
A

Salmonella- Shigella (SSA)

173
Q

Glucose (dextrose)
Ferrous sulfate
Brilliant Green only; inhibitor for gram positive organisms and coliforms
Black colonies surrounded by black zone with metallic sheen
Green colonies

A

Bismuth-sulfite (BSA)

174
Q

Phenol Red
Ferric (ammonium) citrate + sodium thiosulfate
xylose, lactose, sucrose
Red colonies with black center

A

Xylose-Lysine deoxycholate (XLD)

175
Q

Lactose, Sucrose, Salicin
Bromthymol blue
Blue-green colonies with black center
orange salmon pink colonies

A

Hektoen Enteric Agar (HEA)

176
Q

Whitish snowflake colony surrounded by brilliant red agar

A

Brillian Green Agar

177
Q

Amino acids that are used in the test for decarboxylase

A

Lysine
Ornithine
Arginine

178
Q

Why the testing 3 amino acids would require 4 tubes

A

1 tube is needed for control

179
Q

Enzyme that removes the amino group (NH2) from an amino acid

A

Deaminase

180
Q

Organisms that produce urease do what to medium

A

Hydrolyze urea to NH4OH

181
Q

Hydrogen sulfide production, other than in TSI agars requires

A

An organic source of sulfur

A source of metal

182
Q

Negative result in the malonate utilization test

A

Green

Yellow

183
Q

Gelatinase breaks down gelatin to

A

Amino acids

184
Q

What indicates a positive DNAse result after 0.1 N HCl is added to plate

A

Agar clears around the colony

185
Q

The DNAse test is based on

A

Destruction of sugars in the culture medium

186
Q

If the negative nitrate reduction test does not change color after the powdered zinc is added, how it is reported?

A

Positive

187
Q

Salmonella, Shigella, E.coli and Serratia are all

A

Members of Enterobacteriaceae

188
Q

Purpose of the ONPG test

A

Detects slows lactose fermenters

189
Q 
From urine culture:
Gram negative rod
TSI= A/A +G
IMViC= ++--
Urease= negative
A

Escherichia coli

190
Q 
From Blood Culture:
Gram Neg Rod
TSI= A/A +G
IMViC= --++
motile
Lysine decarboxylase= negative
No Capsule
A

Enterobacter cloacae

191
Q 
From Blood Culture:
Gram Neg Rod
Urease and Phenylalanine deaminase = positive
TSI= K/A +G -H2S
Lysine Decarboxylase= negative
Ornithine Decarboxylase= positive
Motility= positive or negative
A

Morganella morganii

192
Q 
From Stool Culture:
Gram Neg Rod
Urease and Phenylalanine Deaminase = negative
TSI K/A -G -H2s
Lysine decarboxylase= negative
Non motile
A

Shigella spp.

193
Q

Allows viability of acid production by oxidizers in oxidation-fermentation (OF) medium

A

Peptone content is low

194
Q 
From stool culture:
Gram Neg Rod
Urease and Phenylalanine deaminase= negative
TSI= K/A +G +H2S
Motile
Lysine Decarboxylase= positive
Indole= positive
A

Aeromonas hydrophila

195
Q

Oxidase positive

A

Aeromonas hydrophila

Moraxella osloensis

196
Q

Reagent used for string test

A

0.5% sodium desoxycholate

197
Q

Any organism that is indole positive and nitrate reduction positive is also

A

Cholera red- positive

198
Q

How many tubes of oxidation-fermentation media is/are inoculated and what precautions should be taken?

A

2 tubes, one covered with oil so air is excluded

199
Q

Normal flora of the skin

A

Acinetobacter calcoaceticus biotype anitratus

200
Q

PRAS means

A

Prereduced, anaerobically sterilized

201
Q

Why should thioglycollate broth be boiled for 10 minutes before being used

A

To drive off oxygen

202
Q

Nagler agar is selective medium for

A

Clostridium

203
Q

Peptococcus and Peptostreptococcus are both

A

Anaerobic, Gram Positive Cocci

204
Q

Propionibacteria are

A

Anaerobic, Gram Positive Rods

205
Q

A gram neg, anaerobic coccus that produces a red fluorescence under ultraviolet light

A

Veilonella

206
Q

Anaerobic, gram positive rods produce terminal “lollipop” spores

A

Clostridium tetani

207
Q

Anaerobes causes an antimicrobial associated diarrhea

A

Clostridium difficile

208
Q

Clostridia produca a double zone of hemolysis around colonies on blood agar

A

Clostridium perfringens

209
Q

Mycoplasmas pneumoniae is incubated

A

Aerobically, in a sealed container, in carbon dioxide

210
Q

A positive urease test for ureaplasma is indicated by a

A

Brown halo surrounding the colonies

211
Q

Organisms produces no haze in a broth culture

A

Ureaplasma urealyticum

212
Q

Cause Primary Atypical Pneumoniae

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

213
Q

Has both RNA and DNA

A

Rickettsia

Chlamydia

214
Q

Rickettsia are transmitted by

A

Arthropod vectors

215
Q

NOT caused by Rickettsia

A

Typhoid fever

216
Q

Have a bacterial cell wall

A

Rickettsia

Chlamydia

217
Q

Small non motile, coccobacillus that is cultured in yolk sac of a chick embryo

A

Rickettsia

218
Q

Chlamydia are cultured in

A

McCoy cells

219
Q

“TRIC” conjunctivitis includes

A

Inclusion conjuctivitis

Trachoma

220
Q

Serological test done for Chlamydia trachomatis on genital smears

A

Direct FA using monoclonal Abs

221
Q

Most common tick-borne disease in the US

A

Lyme disease

222
Q

What is erythema chronicum migrans (ECM)

A

Cardinal sign of Lyme disease at site of tick bite

223
Q

What are broad spectrum antibiotics

A

Act against gram negative bacteria
Act against gram positive bacteria
Acts against bacterial and non bacterial organisms

224
Q

Substances produced by microorganisms, that in very small amounts inhibit other microorganisms are called:

A

Antibiotics

225
Q

Inhibit the growth of the organism

A

Bacteriostatic agents

226
Q

The time it takes half a dose of antibiotic to dissappear from the blood is called

A

Half- life

227
Q

Resistance to an antibiotic can be transferred from a resistant to a susceptible organism

A

Extrachrosomal plasmid

228
Q

In the Kirby Bauer susceptibility test, the 0.5 McFarland std used to

A

Adjust the turbidity of the inoculum

229
Q

After inoculating the Mueller-Hinton plates for the Kirby Bauer susceptibility test, how long should the plates dry before adding the disks

A

3-5 minutes

Not more than 15 minutes

230
Q

How does one measure the zone of growth inhibitor, for the Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test

A

On the other side of plate
With the unaided eye
Using a ruler, caliper or template

231
Q

What does the size of the zone of growth inhibition correlate with if the correct procedure has been used

A

Minimum Inhibitory Concentration

232
Q

If there is too much moisture on the surface of a Mueller-Hinton plate when performing a Kirby Bauer susceptibility test, what will happen to the growth

A

smaller zone

233
Q

Best indicator of poor storage

A

Penicillin and Methicillin

234
Q

In Mueller-Hinton agar, what can cause increased resistance of Pseudomonas aeruginosa to aminoglycosides

A

Increased Calcium and Magnesium

235
Q

When doing a susceptibility test with sulfonamides there are two concentric zones around the disk. How should the zone be measured?

A

Measure the diameter of the outer zone

236
Q

The lowest concentration of drug that will kill all but the minimum defined proportion of viable organism after incubation for a fixed time under a given set of conditions is definition of the

A

Minimum lethal concentration

Minimum bactericidal concentration

237
Q

For quality control when monitoring reagents, how often should reagent DISKS be checked

A

When container is FIRST opened

Once each WEEK of use

238
Q

How often should CATALASE, OXIDASE and COAGULASE reagents be tested

A

When vial is FIRST opened

Once each DAY of use

239
Q

Record TEMPERATURES of incubators, water baths, heating blocks, refrigeration, freezers and thermometers

A

At each TIME of use
At the ‘beginning’ of each DAY
At the ‘end’ of each DAY

240
Q

Check the face velocity of SAFETY CABINETS each

A

MONTH

241
Q

Setting of RPMs marked on the face of the rheostat control on the CENTRIFUGE should be checked once

A

MONTHLY

Apollon (4 decks)

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