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Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

What are pilus/fimbria for?

A

helps bacteria adhere to cell surfaces

forms sex pilus during conjugation (transfer of DNA)

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2
Q

Some bacteria have capsules. What is it for? What is is made of?

A

protects against phagocytosis as they can’t be tagged by macrophages until opsonized

made of polysaccharides

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3
Q

What is the slime layer for? Common locations?

A

helps w adhesion & supports biofilm formation

Gut, GU

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4
Q

Capsulated organisms

A

Please SHiNE my SKiS

P. aeruginosa
S. pneumoniae
H. influenza type B
N. meningitidis
E. coli
Salmonella
K. pneumoniae
Group B strep

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5
Q

Outer membrane = Gram (_) bacteria ONLY.
The outer membrane contains what on the outer leaflet & inner leaflet?

A

Gram (-) ONLY

outer: endotoxin (LPS/LOS) which induces TNF & IL-1

inner: phospholipids

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6
Q

The cell wall is made up of _______ & provides _______

It is larger in gram (_) bacteria

A

peptidoglycan sugar backbone; protection against osmotic pressure

gram (+)

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7
Q

Difference between gram (+) & gram (-) bacteria

A

gram (+) = larger peptidoglycan cell wall, no inner membrane

gram (-) = inner & outer membranes, smaller peptidoglycan wall

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8
Q

Lipoteichoic acids in gram (_) ONLY, induces what

A

gram (+)

induces TNF-a & IL-1

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9
Q

What is the site of oxidative & transport enzymes

A

Cell envelope/cytoplasmic membrane

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10
Q

Spores are commonly seen in ____ & ____ gram (_) bacterias.

It helps with what?

A

bacillus & clostridium

gram (+) ONLY

helps w resisting dehydration, heat & chemicals so that it can be in suspended animation

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11
Q

Urease (+) organisms & what is it for?

A

urease keeps bacteria alive

Pee CHUNKSS bc alot are in GU

Proteus
Cryptococcus
H. pylori
Ureaplasma
Nocardia
Klebsiella
S. epidermidis
S. saprophyticus

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12
Q

2 acid fast bacterias

A

Mycobacteria & nocardia

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13
Q

Lactose fermenters that stain pink colonies on ____ agar

A

E. coli, citrobacter, enterobacter, klebsiella

MacConkey Agar

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14
Q

Non-Lactose fermenters that stain colorless colonies on ____ agar

A

Salmonella, shigella, proteus
MacConkey Agar

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15
Q

Clostridium is a

A

anaerobe

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16
Q

Folliculitis

A

superficial inflammation of hair follicle

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17
Q

Furuncle

A

boil; inflammation of hair follicle or sebaceous gland → abscess or pustule

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18
Q

Carbuncle

A

larger & deeper lesion via clusters of furuncles

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19
Q

Impetigo

A

bubble-like swellings that can break & peel away

common in newborns

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20
Q

Osteomyletitis = infection in ____ of bone

A

metaphysis

abscess forms

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21
Q

S. hominis lives around _____ while S. capitis lives around _____

A

apocrine sweat glands; scalp,face, ext ear

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22
Q

S. saprophyticus lives on

A

skin, intestine, vagina

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23
Q

MRSA

A

resistance to penicillin & ampicillin

S. aureus

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24
Q

WHat test differentiates S. aureus from other staph species?

A

Coagulase as its the only coagulase (+)

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25
The most serious streptoccal pathogen = ___ & it inhabits ___
Beta-hemolytic streptococcus pyogenes strict parasite inhabits throat, nasopharynx, skin
26
Extracellular enzymes are virulence factors of S. pyogenes. Streptokinase does what? Hylauronidase does what?
Streptokinase = digests fibrin clots Hylauronidase = breaks down connective tissues
27
Think impetigo = ____ & erysipelas = ___
impetigo = s. aureus erysipelas = strep
28
Strep throat = what bacteria
streptococcal pharyngitis
29
Long term complications of Group A infections
rheumatic fever & acute glomerulonephritis
30
Streptococcus mutans think ___ most widespread resident of __ & ___
viridians gums & teeth
31
subacute endocarditis = ___ acute endocarditis = ____
s. viridians, damages valves s. aureus
32
S. MUTANS produces what?
slime layers that adhere to teeth, builds plaque
33
S. pneumoniae requires ___ agar & lacks ___
chocolate agar catalase
34
S. pneumoniae occurs when? How does it gain access?
Occurs when cells are aspirated into lungs of suscpetible individuals gains access to middle ear via eustachian tube
35
Neisseria characteristic
gram (-), diplococci, NO spores capsule & pili to adhere to walls strict parasites aerobic produces catalase
36
Factors contributing to gonococcal pathogenicity
fimbriae: attachment & slows down phagocytosis IgA protease: cleaves secretory IgA
37
Gonococcal is gram (_) & can be found intracellularly in
gram (-), neutrophils
38
Factors contributing to meningitidis pathogenicity
capsule, adhesive fimbriae, IgA protease, endotoxins
39
Reservoir of meningitidis
nasopharynx
40
Meningitidis can do what that makes it so dangerous?
cross the BBB & permeate meninges, grow in CSF
41
Petechiae; lesions on trunk & appendages what path?
meningitis
42
Most endospore forming bacteria are gram (_) & motile
gram (+)
43
Bacillus = aerobic/anaerobic? What about Clostridium?
aerobic anaerobic
44
What are 2 important species of bacillus & what do they cause?
B. anthracis = anthrax B. cereus = food poisoning
45
Anthrax is reported in _____ & have 3 types. what are they?
livestock 1) cutaneous; least dangerous 2) pulm; soil 3) GI; ingested; rare & lethal
46
B. cereus is transmitted via ____ duration?
airborne & dustborne 24 hour
47
Clostridium perfringens causes soft tissue & wound infections such as
gas gangrene & myonecrosis
48
Virulence factors of Clostridium perfringens
alpha toxin (RBC rupture, edema, tissue destruction) collagenase hyaluronidase DNAse
49
Clostridium tetani = what path? How? Aerobic/anaerobic?
tetanus/lock jaw/neuromuscular disease puncture wounds anaerobic
50
Tetanospasmin
neurotoxin causes paralysis by binding to MOTOR nerve endings = muscles contract uncontrollably
51
C. perf causes what WW?
2nd most common form of food poisoning WW
52
C. botulinum causes what from what
flaccid paralysis via home canned foods
53
C. botulinum is aerobic/anaerobic?
anaerobic
54
Botulinum toxin is carried to ________ & blocks the release of NT ____, resulting in what? Sxs?
neuromuscular junction; ACh double vision, difficulty swallowing
55
C. bot vs C. tet
C.bot = cant contract C. tet = actin/myosin problem. can't relax
56
Non-spore forming Baccili (2)
Listeria & e. rhus
57
Listeria characteristics
replicates in cytoplasm of cells & avoids humoral immune cells
58
Listeriosis is associate w what food? What population is it bad?
dairy Immunocomp & neonates = affects brain & meninges
59
E. rhus
associate w pig tonsils causing dark red lesions (erysipeloid)
60
Corynebacterium diptheriae
pseudomembrane
61
Virulence factors of Myco tuberculosis
complex waxes that prevent destruction by lysosomes or macrophages
62
Myco leprae
Hansen's/leprosy multiplies in host cell - globi
63
leprosy begins in the ___ & progesses to
skin & mucus membranes nerves
64
Myco leprae can be incubated for ______ & grows in ______ cells of the peripheral nerves
2-5 years; schwann
65
Nocardia causes nocardiosis which is of what organism? Causes what? Similiar to TB but is
N. brasiliensis pulm dz acid fast
66
Gram (-) bacilli that are rod-shaped & aerobes that do not ferment carbs
pseudomonas & bordetella
67
Gram (-) bacilli that have single polar flagellum
Pseudomonas
68
Pseudomonas aeruginosa think of
healthcare setting grapelike odor, greenish-blue
69
Main reservoir of pseudomonas aeru
soil & water
70
Bordetella pertussis causes what? virulence factor?
whooping cough (pertussis) ciliated resp epithelial cells
71
legionella is commonly found in
water, amoebas
72
Complex surface antigens contribute to pathogenicity & trigger immune response. H = K = O=
H = flagellar antigen K = capsule/fimbrial antigen O= somatic/cell wall antigen
73
Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)
hemorrhagic & kidney damage
74
Enterotoxigenic E. Coli (ETEC)
diarrhea, fluid loss, fimbraie
75
Enteroinvasive E. Coli (EIEC)
inflam of large intestine
76
Enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC)
infantile diarrhea, wasting form
77
Enteroaggregative E. Coli (EAEC)
pediatric diarrhea
78
Diffusely adherent E. Coli (DAEC)
minor cause of ped diarrhea
79
O157:H7
think e. coli d/t hamburgers causes direct port. binds ribosomes & disrupts protein synthesis
80
Yersinia pestis
flea vector NOT mice unusual bipolar staining
81
Bubonic plague vs septicemic plague
enters lymph, causes necrosis & swelling (bubo) in groin & axilla intravascular coagulation subcutaneous hemorrhage & purpura
82
Pasteurella multocida
veterinarians; opportunist
83
Haemophilus
loves blood pleomorphic requires hemin, NAD or NADP bacterial meningitis
84
H. influenzae subtype aegyptius
pink eye
85
endocytosis vs fusion
endocytosis = entire virus is engulfed & enclosed in vesicle fusion = envelope merges w membrane
86
DNA viruses are generally replicated & assembled in ____ while RNA is in the _____
DNA = nucleus RNA = cytoplasm
87
Papillomarvirus = _____ cancer vs EBV = ______ cancer
Papillomarvirus = cervical cancer EBV = Burkitt's lymphoma
88
Bacteriophages ( ____ ) is special bc
only the nuclei acidd enters the cytoplasm so it doesnt need to uncoat cell lysis
89
Temperate phages
adsorption & penetrates but does not replicate
90
Prophage
a cell that becomes inactive d/t not replicating
91
Lysogeny
prophage is retained & becomes part of normal cell genome spreads virus w/o killing host cell
92
What organisms are associated w lysogeny?
C. diptheriae Vibrio cholerae C. bot
93
Prions
misfolded proteins, contains no nucleic acid think mad cow dz, Jakob syndrome (encephalopathies)
94
Satellite viruses depends on
depends on other viruses for replication adenoviruses
95
nosocomial means vs iatrogenic
hospital given provider
96
Acute viral infection
more lymphocytes, less neutrophils NK cells & cytotoxic T cells kill Interferons produced to (+) antiviral response humoral response = IgM/IgG
97
Chronic viral infection
decrease lymphocytes
98
Acute bacterial infections
less lymphocytes, more neutrophils humoral response = antibodies to opsonize for phagocytosis induces complement
99
Chronic bacterial infections
less neutrophils, more monocytes
100
Who phagocytosis
macrophages, monocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils they "eat" the bacteria
101
What structure reads the body temp?
anterior hypothalamus
102
Pyrogens increase the production of _____ which acts on the ____ to increase the production of _____ which does what?
IL-1; anterior hypothalamus; prostaglandins; increase set-point temp fever
103
Heat exhaustion vs stroke
exhaustion = excessive sweating, (blood vol & BP decrease & syncope occurs) stroke = body temp increases to tissue damage, drying, unable to sweat
104
Where do fetal stem cells go to mature into T-cells?
thymus
105
Where do t cells & b cells hang out?
lymph nodes
106
Where do stem cells originate?
bone marrow
107
What is the spleen's role?
Detains & inactivates, kills antigens think jail
108
GALT
gut associated lymphoid tissue IgA
109
Peyer's patches
gut, lymphoid tissue

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