Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Board > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

What are pilus/fimbria for?

A

helps bacteria adhere to cell surfaces

forms sex pilus during conjugation (transfer of DNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Some bacteria have capsules. What is it for? What is is made of?

A

protects against phagocytosis as they can’t be tagged by macrophages until opsonized

made of polysaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the slime layer for? Common locations?

A

helps w adhesion & supports biofilm formation

Gut, GU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Capsulated organisms

A

Please SHiNE my SKiS

P. aeruginosa
S. pneumoniae
H. influenza type B
N. meningitidis
E. coli
Salmonella
K. pneumoniae
Group B strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Outer membrane = Gram (_) bacteria ONLY.
The outer membrane contains what on the outer leaflet & inner leaflet?

A

Gram (-) ONLY

outer: endotoxin (LPS/LOS) which induces TNF & IL-1

inner: phospholipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The cell wall is made up of _______ & provides _______

It is larger in gram (_) bacteria

A

peptidoglycan sugar backbone; protection against osmotic pressure

gram (+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Difference between gram (+) & gram (-) bacteria

A

gram (+) = larger peptidoglycan cell wall, no inner membrane

gram (-) = inner & outer membranes, smaller peptidoglycan wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Lipoteichoic acids in gram (_) ONLY, induces what

A

gram (+)

induces TNF-a & IL-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the site of oxidative & transport enzymes

A

Cell envelope/cytoplasmic membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Spores are commonly seen in ____ & ____ gram (_) bacterias.

It helps with what?

A

bacillus & clostridium

gram (+) ONLY

helps w resisting dehydration, heat & chemicals so that it can be in suspended animation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Urease (+) organisms & what is it for?

A

urease keeps bacteria alive

Pee CHUNKSS bc alot are in GU

Proteus
Cryptococcus
H. pylori
Ureaplasma
Nocardia
Klebsiella
S. epidermidis
S. saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

2 acid fast bacterias

A

Mycobacteria & nocardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Lactose fermenters that stain pink colonies on ____ agar

A

E. coli, citrobacter, enterobacter, klebsiella

MacConkey Agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Non-Lactose fermenters that stain colorless colonies on ____ agar

A

Salmonella, shigella, proteus
MacConkey Agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Clostridium is a

A

anaerobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Folliculitis

A

superficial inflammation of hair follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Furuncle

A

boil; inflammation of hair follicle or sebaceous gland → abscess or pustule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Carbuncle

A

larger & deeper lesion via clusters of furuncles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Impetigo

A

bubble-like swellings that can break & peel away

common in newborns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Osteomyletitis = infection in ____ of bone

A

metaphysis

abscess forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

S. hominis lives around _____ while S. capitis lives around _____

A

apocrine sweat glands; scalp,face, ext ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

S. saprophyticus lives on

A

skin, intestine, vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

MRSA

A

resistance to penicillin & ampicillin

S. aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

WHat test differentiates S. aureus from other staph species?

A

Coagulase as its the only coagulase (+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The most serious streptoccal pathogen = ___ & it inhabits ___

A

Beta-hemolytic streptococcus pyogenes

strict parasite

inhabits throat, nasopharynx, skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Extracellular enzymes are virulence factors of S. pyogenes.

Streptokinase does what?

Hylauronidase does what?

A

Streptokinase = digests fibrin clots

Hylauronidase = breaks down connective tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Think impetigo = ____ & erysipelas = ___

A

impetigo = s. aureus

erysipelas = strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Strep throat = what bacteria

A

streptococcal pharyngitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Long term complications of Group A infections

A

rheumatic fever & acute glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Streptococcus mutans think ___

most widespread resident of __ & ___

A

viridians

gums & teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

subacute endocarditis = ___

acute endocarditis = ____

A

s. viridians, damages valves

s. aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

S. MUTANS produces what?

A

slime layers that adhere to teeth, builds plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

S. pneumoniae requires ___ agar & lacks ___

A

chocolate agar

catalase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

S. pneumoniae occurs when?

How does it gain access?

A

Occurs when cells are aspirated into lungs of suscpetible individuals

gains access to middle ear via eustachian tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Neisseria characteristic

A

gram (-), diplococci, NO spores

capsule & pili to adhere to walls

strict parasites

aerobic

produces catalase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Factors contributing to gonococcal pathogenicity

A

fimbriae: attachment & slows down phagocytosis

IgA protease: cleaves secretory IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Gonococcal is gram (_) & can be found intracellularly in

A

gram (-), neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Factors contributing to meningitidis pathogenicity

A

capsule, adhesive fimbriae, IgA protease, endotoxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Reservoir of meningitidis

A

nasopharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Meningitidis can do what that makes it so dangerous?

A

cross the BBB & permeate meninges, grow in CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Petechiae; lesions on trunk & appendages

what path?

A

meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Most endospore forming bacteria are gram (_) & motile

A

gram (+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Bacillus = aerobic/anaerobic?

What about Clostridium?

A

aerobic

anaerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are 2 important species of bacillus & what do they cause?

A

B. anthracis = anthrax

B. cereus = food poisoning

45
Q

Anthrax is reported in _____ & have 3 types. what are they?

A

livestock

1) cutaneous; least dangerous
2) pulm; soil
3) GI; ingested; rare & lethal

46
Q

B. cereus is transmitted via ____

duration?

A

airborne & dustborne

24 hour

47
Q

Clostridium perfringens causes soft tissue & wound infections such as

A

gas gangrene & myonecrosis

48
Q

Virulence factors of Clostridium perfringens

A

alpha toxin (RBC rupture, edema, tissue destruction)

collagenase

hyaluronidase

DNAse

49
Q

Clostridium tetani = what path?

How? Aerobic/anaerobic?

A

tetanus/lock jaw/neuromuscular disease

puncture wounds

anaerobic

50
Q

Tetanospasmin

A

neurotoxin causes paralysis by binding to MOTOR nerve endings = muscles contract uncontrollably

51
Q

C. perf causes what WW?

A

2nd most common form of food poisoning WW

52
Q

C. botulinum causes what from what

A

flaccid paralysis via home canned foods

53
Q

C. botulinum is aerobic/anaerobic?

A

anaerobic

54
Q

Botulinum toxin is carried to ________ & blocks the release of NT ____, resulting in what?

Sxs?

A

neuromuscular junction; ACh

double vision, difficulty swallowing

55
Q

C. bot vs C. tet

A

C.bot = cant contract

C. tet = actin/myosin problem. can’t relax

56
Q

Non-spore forming Baccili (2)

A

Listeria & e. rhus

57
Q

Listeria characteristics

A

replicates in cytoplasm of cells & avoids humoral immune cells

58
Q

Listeriosis is associate w what food? What population is it bad?

A

dairy

Immunocomp & neonates = affects brain & meninges

59
Q

E. rhus

A

associate w pig tonsils causing dark red lesions (erysipeloid)

60
Q

Corynebacterium diptheriae

A

pseudomembrane

61
Q

Virulence factors of Myco tuberculosis

A

complex waxes that prevent destruction by lysosomes or macrophages

62
Q

Myco leprae

A

Hansen’s/leprosy

multiplies in host cell - globi

63
Q

leprosy begins in the ___ & progesses to

A

skin & mucus membranes

nerves

64
Q

Myco leprae can be incubated for ______ & grows in ______ cells of the peripheral nerves

A

2-5 years; schwann

65
Q

Nocardia causes nocardiosis which is of what organism? Causes what? Similiar to TB but is

A

N. brasiliensis

pulm dz

acid fast

66
Q

Gram (-) bacilli that are rod-shaped & aerobes that do not ferment carbs

A

pseudomonas & bordetella

67
Q

Gram (-) bacilli that have single polar flagellum

A

Pseudomonas

68
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa think of

A

healthcare setting

grapelike odor, greenish-blue

69
Q

Main reservoir of pseudomonas aeru

A

soil & water

70
Q

Bordetella pertussis causes what?

virulence factor?

A

whooping cough (pertussis)

ciliated resp epithelial cells

71
Q

legionella is commonly found in

A

water, amoebas

72
Q

Complex surface antigens contribute to pathogenicity & trigger immune response.

H =
K =
O=

A

H = flagellar antigen
K = capsule/fimbrial antigen
O= somatic/cell wall antigen

73
Q

Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)

A

hemorrhagic & kidney damage

74
Q

Enterotoxigenic E. Coli (ETEC)

A

diarrhea, fluid loss, fimbraie

75
Q

Enteroinvasive E. Coli (EIEC)

A

inflam of large intestine

76
Q

Enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC)

A

infantile diarrhea, wasting form

77
Q

Enteroaggregative E. Coli (EAEC)

A

pediatric diarrhea

78
Q

Diffusely adherent E. Coli (DAEC)

A

minor cause of ped diarrhea

79
Q

O157:H7

A

think e. coli d/t hamburgers

causes direct port. binds ribosomes & disrupts protein synthesis

80
Q

Yersinia pestis

A

flea vector NOT mice

unusual bipolar staining

81
Q

Bubonic plague vs septicemic plague

A

enters lymph, causes necrosis & swelling (bubo) in groin & axilla

intravascular coagulation subcutaneous hemorrhage & purpura

82
Q

Pasteurella multocida

A

veterinarians; opportunist

83
Q

Haemophilus

A

loves blood

pleomorphic

requires hemin, NAD or NADP

bacterial meningitis

84
Q

H. influenzae subtype aegyptius

A

pink eye

85
Q

endocytosis vs fusion

A

endocytosis = entire virus is engulfed & enclosed in vesicle

fusion = envelope merges w membrane

86
Q

DNA viruses are generally replicated & assembled in ____ while RNA is in the _____

A

DNA = nucleus

RNA = cytoplasm

87
Q

Papillomarvirus = _____ cancer vs EBV = ______ cancer

A

Papillomarvirus = cervical cancer

EBV = Burkitt’s lymphoma

88
Q

Bacteriophages ( ____ ) is special bc

A

only the nuclei acidd enters the cytoplasm so it doesnt need to uncoat

cell lysis

89
Q

Temperate phages

A

adsorption & penetrates but does not replicate

90
Q

Prophage

A

a cell that becomes inactive d/t not replicating

91
Q

Lysogeny

A

prophage is retained & becomes part of normal cell genome

spreads virus w/o killing host cell

92
Q

What organisms are associated w lysogeny?

A

C. diptheriae
Vibrio cholerae
C. bot

93
Q

Prions

A

misfolded proteins, contains no nucleic acid

think mad cow dz, Jakob syndrome (encephalopathies)

94
Q

Satellite viruses depends on

A

depends on other viruses for replication

adenoviruses

95
Q

nosocomial means vs iatrogenic

A

hospital given

provider

96
Q

Acute viral infection

A

more lymphocytes, less neutrophils

NK cells & cytotoxic T cells kill

Interferons produced to (+) antiviral response

humoral response = IgM/IgG

97
Q

Chronic viral infection

A

decrease lymphocytes

98
Q

Acute bacterial infections

A

less lymphocytes, more neutrophils

humoral response = antibodies to opsonize for phagocytosis

induces complement

99
Q

Chronic bacterial infections

A

less neutrophils, more monocytes

100
Q

Who phagocytosis

A

macrophages, monocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils

they “eat” the bacteria

101
Q

What structure reads the body temp?

A

anterior hypothalamus

102
Q

Pyrogens increase the production of _____ which acts on the ____ to increase the production of _____ which does what?

A

IL-1; anterior hypothalamus; prostaglandins; increase set-point temp

fever

103
Q

Heat exhaustion vs stroke

A

exhaustion = excessive sweating, (blood vol & BP decrease & syncope occurs)

stroke = body temp increases to tissue damage, drying, unable to sweat

104
Q

Where do fetal stem cells go to mature into T-cells?

A

thymus

105
Q

Where do t cells & b cells hang out?

A

lymph nodes

106
Q

Where do stem cells originate?

A

bone marrow

107
Q

What is the spleen’s role?

A

Detains & inactivates, kills antigens

think jail

108
Q

GALT

A

gut associated lymphoid tissue

IgA

109
Q

Peyer’s patches

A

gut, lymphoid tissue

Board (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions