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Principles MBCHB > Microbio, Pathology and Immunology > Flashcards

Microbio, Pathology and Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

In short chains/ pairs with 90 capsular types

A

Strep. Pneumoniae

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2
Q

Vaccine against 23 strains and sensitive to penicillin

A

Strep. Pneumoniae

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3
Q

Partial Haemolysis - a

A
  • Strep. Pneumoniae

- Strep. Viridian’s

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4
Q

Complete Haemolysis - b

A
  • Strep. pyrogens

- Group B strep

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5
Q

Gram positive Cocci in chains.

- Common Commensals of the upper res. tract, bowel and vagina

A

Strep. Viridans

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6
Q

Common cause of endocarditis

A

Strep. Viridans

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7
Q
  • Most pathgenic of all STREPTOCOCCUS
A

Strep. Pyogenes

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8
Q

Produces powerful exotoxins

  • Can cause tonsillitis
  • Puerperal Sepsis
A

Strep. Pyogenes

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9
Q

Sensitive to penicillin and amoxicillin

A

Strep. Pyogenes

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10
Q

Life threatening if pregnant

A

Strep. Pyogenes

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11
Q

Normal flora of the bowel, not particularly pathogenic

A

Enterococcus

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12
Q

Common cause of the UTI

A

Enterococcus

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13
Q

What is E. Faecalis

A

sensitive to amoxicillin

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14
Q

What is E. Faecium

A

Resistant

- Can cause mrsa in hospital

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15
Q

Define staphylococcus SPP.

A
  • Aerobic
  • Gram Positive
  • Cocci in grape like clusters
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16
Q

What is the Coagulase test used for?

A

To distinguish Staph. Aureus from all other staphlococci

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17
Q

Colonises in the nose and upper respiratory tract (not harmful there)

A

Staph. Aureus

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18
Q

Strains can produce exotoxins that cause toxic shock syndrome or Panton-Valentine Leukocid

A

Staph. Aureus

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19
Q

Sensitive to flucoloxacillin

A

Staph. Aureus

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20
Q

Commonest cause of joint and bone infection

A

Staph. Aureus

21
Q

Infection at any site may result in bacteria entering the blood system

A

Staph. Aureus Bacteria

22
Q

Patient may become septic —> can cause abscesses

A

Staph. Aureus Bacteria

23
Q

Common Cause of Meningitidis

A

Neisseria Meningitidis

24
Q

Neisseria Gonorrhoeae

A

Causes gonorrhoea

25
Q

They look like e.coli on gram film

A

The coliforms

26
Q

Name common gut commensal coliforms

A

E.Coli
Klebsiella Spp
Proteus
Enterobacter Spp

27
Q

Gut commensal pathogens

A

Salmonella Spp
Shigella Spp
Verotoxin (e.coli 0157, e.coli 0104)

28
Q

Can Cause

  • UTI
  • Peritonitis
  • Bilary tract infection
A

Coliforms

29
Q

1st line antibiotic GENTAMICIN

A

Coliforms

30
Q
  • Gram Positive anaerobic bacilli
  • Normal bowel flora
  • Found in face and soil
A
  • Clostridium Spp.
31
Q

Produces spores

A
  • Clostridium Spp.
32
Q

What does Clostridium Perfringens do?

A

Causes Gangrene

33
Q

Describe the bacteriodes

A
  • Gram Negative anaerobic bacilli
  • Normal bowel flora
  • Non-Pathogenic
34
Q

Can cause infection if reaches a sterile site such as the PERITONEUM or BILARY TRACT
- Treated by METRONDAZOLE

A

Bacteriodes

35
Q

How are pathogens recognised in the human body?

A

Pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPS)

- Express things not found in human cells so are easy to distinguish

36
Q

Which immune cell tackles Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

A

Toll-like receptor 4 (TLR4) (cell surface)

37
Q

Explain the process of: CLEARANCE OF APOPTOTIC CELLS BY TISSUE-RESIDENT MACROPHAGE

A
  1. Apoptotic cells release ‘find-me’ signals to attract and activate macrophages
  2. Macrophages recognize specific ‘eat-me’ signals expressed on the surface of
    apoptotic cells
  3. Macrophages rearrange their cytoskeletal to internalize apoptotic cells
  4. Digestion of the ingested ‘cargo’
  5. Secretion of anti-inflammatory mediators
38
Q

What happens if we fail to remove apoptotic material

A
  • Autoimmune disease
39
Q

Explain the steps of phagocytosis..

A
  1. Receptor binds to the “eat me” signals on the apoptotic cell - resulting in formation of the phagocytic cup
  2. Cup extends around the target and pinches off, hence forming a phagosome
  3. Fusion with LYSOSOME to for PHAGOLYSOSOME - leads to degradation of contents
  4. Debris is the released into the extracellular fluids
40
Q

How are macrophages enhanced?

A

cytokines - e.g. IFNγ

Acts on macrophages to

i. Increase production of toxic reactive oxygen and nitrogen species
ii. Increase microbicidal activity
iii. Boost Antigen Presentation capability

41
Q

Function of Natural Killer (nk) cells

A

SPECIFICALLY kill virally infected and abnormal cancer cells

42
Q

What is C function protein?

A
  • A major acute phase protein
  • Used as a marker for inflammation
  • Enhances phagocytosis
  • Complement System activation
    opsonizes bacteria, facilitating heir clearance by phagocytes
43
Q

What is the complement system?

A

The complement system consists of more than 20 components circulating within the plasma.

  • It is a major defence mechanism
  • Which contributes to the inflammatory response
44
Q

The Acute Phase Response and CRP

A
  • Results from the action of cytokines on the liver

- Limits spread of infection and prevents systemic inflammation

45
Q

Name the 3 enzymes that can destroy antibiotics

A
  • Beta-lactamase
  • Extended spectrum beta-lactamase (“ESBL”)
  • Carbapenemase (“CPE”)
46
Q

Neoplasm

A

New Growth
- Abnormal mass of tissue
- Uncoordinated
> All cells in the tumour appear to have arisen from one parent cell

47
Q

Features of benign tumours

A

Surrounding tissue forms a fibrous capsule

  • Cells are similar to the normal tissue in which they arise
  • NORMAL NUCLEI
48
Q

What is a G Protein

A

proteins that act as molecular switches inside cells, and are involved in transmitting signals from a outside a cell to its interior.

Rregulated by factors that control their ability to bind to and hydrolyze GTP to GDP. When they are bound to GTP, they are ‘on’, and, when they are bound to GDP, they are ‘off’

49
Q

What does “Diapedesis” refer to?

A

Neutrophils squeeze between the endothelial cells

Principles MBCHB (6 decks)

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