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MICROBIO Flashcards

1
Q

Congenital Parasites infected human

A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Giardia Lamblia
C. Trypanosoma sp.
D. Plasmodium Malaria
E. Toxoplasma Gondii

A

Toxoplasma Gondii

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2
Q

A trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica usually contains

A. Eccentrically located endosome in the nucleus
B. A coarse, granular, blunt pseudopod
C. Bacteria and coarse granules in the cytoplasm
D. Red blood cells in the cytoplasm

A

Red blood cells in the cytoplasm

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3
Q

Gram Positive stained more easy than gram Negative because

A. Gram - cell wall is thin while gram + is thick
B. Gram + cell wall is thin while gram - is thick
C. Gram - cell wall contain more peptidoglycan
D. All

A

A. Gram - cell wall is thin while gram + is thick

gram + bacteria have a thick mesh-like cell wall made of peptidoglycan (50-90% of cell envelope). and as a result are stained purple by crystal violet. whereas gram - bacteria have a thinner layer (10% of cell envelope). so do not retain the purple stain and are counter-stained pink by safranin.

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4
Q

MacConkey Agar

A

is used for the isolation of gram-negative enteric bacteria and the differentiation of lactose fermenting from lactose non-fermenting gram-negative bacteria.

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5
Q

Wuchereria Bancrofti diagnose:

A. Microscopic examination of blood smears
B. Microscopic examination of concentrated urine
C. Microscopic examination of stool smear
D. Microscopic examination of blood or urine smears

A

Microscopic examination of blood or urine smears

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6
Q

Biochemical test is rapidly and simply performed to detect strepto-pyogenes and enterococcus

A. PYR
B. Coagulase
C. Citrate
D. Bile solubility
E. Indole

A

PYR

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7
Q

The cause of sleeping sickness:

A. Trypanosoma gambiense
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Trypanosoma rhodesiense
D. a & c

A

a & c

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8
Q

Bacteriological culture media are generally sterilized by:

A. The autoclave
B. The oven
C. Filtration
D. Bunsen burner

A

The autoclave

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9
Q

Eating poorly cooked pork can lead to an infection with:

A. Taenia solium and Trichinella spiralis
B. Taenia saginata and Hymenolepis nana
C. Trichuris trichiura and Hymenolepis diminuta
D. Diphyllonothrium latum and Ascaris lumbricoides

A

Taenia solium and Trichinella spiralis

both Taenia solium (pork tapeworm) and Trichinella spiralis can be acquired from the ingestion of raw or poorly cooked pork.

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10
Q

When to collect blood for malaria blood should be collected?

A. As soon as malaria is suspected
B. Before the patient receive anti-malarial drug
C. A&B
D. After symptoms appear
E. After rising in temperature

A

A & B

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11
Q

Plasmodium will transfer by:

A. Mosquito
B. Fly
C. Mite
D. All of the above

A

Mosquito

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12
Q

The infective stage of the hookworm is the

A. Filariform
larva with a pointed tail
B. Rhabditiform larva with a long buccal cavity
C. Rhabditiform larva with a short buccal cavity
D. Filariform larva with a notched tail

A

Filariform
larva with a pointed tail

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13
Q

Most belong to the families Enterobacteriaceae or Pseudomonidaceae

A. Spore forming bacteria
B. Non-spore forming bacteria

A

Non-spore forming bacteria

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14
Q

Which of the following produce by Staph. aureus & not produced by other Staph?

A. DNA produce
B. Coagulase
C. Catalase
D. Urease

A

Coagulase

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15
Q

Anti-Lea can react with:

A. Le (a+b+) cells
B. Le (a-b-) cells
C. Le (a+b-) cells
D. Le (a-b+) cells

A

Le (a+b+) cells
Le (a+b-) cells

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16
Q

A metazoan, Loss of parasitic cytoplasmic microtubules causing impaired glucose uptake

A

Albendazole

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17
Q

Inhibitor of arachidonic acid for microfilariae

A

Diethylcarbamazine

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18
Q

Increase calcium entry to worms causing contraction

A

Praziquantel

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19
Q

Reduced forms serve as parasitic nuclei acid inhibitor

A

Metronidazole

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20
Q

Generation of highly active radical (heme, free radicals)

A

Artemeter

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21
Q

Infective stage of taenia spp.

A

Cysticercosis
Inhalation (embryonated egg)

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22
Q

Hammer shaped hooks

A

Railletina spp. Scolex

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23
Q

Humans can be any of the following in regards to taenia solium infection

A. Definitive
B. Intermediate
C. Both
D. Neither

A

Both

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24
Q

How many Larval stages of clonorchis that can be seen in snail

A

Miracidia
Sporocyst
Redia
Cercaria

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25
Q

Smallest entameba
No chromatoidal bodies and no peripheral chromatin

A

Endolimax Nana

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26
Q

Basket shape nucleus

A

Iodameoba butschlii

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27
Q

Resemble Trojan horse 🐴
Harbors other pathogen

A

Acanthamoeba

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28
Q

Cyst has a double walled refractile
Can be seen in formed and watery stools

A

Neobalantidium coli

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29
Q

Most common method for treating infection waste.
Safest method to ensure ni infective materials remain.

A

Incineration

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30
Q

Resistant to QUATS: Benzalkonium chloride

A

P. Aeruginosa

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31
Q

For disinfecting lab sink

A

Sodium hypochlorite

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32
Q

Contact time of Betadine (alcohol & iodine)

A

1-2 mins.

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33
Q

Filtration size of most bacteria, yeasts, and molds but not pseudomonas like organism.

A

0.45-0.80

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34
Q

Filtration size for parenteral solutions, pore size most widely used for sterilization.

A

0.22 / 0.2

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35
Q

HEPA filter remove organism

A

> 0.3 um

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36
Q

Biological indicator for moist heat

A

B. Stearothermophilus

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37
Q

Biological indicator for Dry heat

A

B. Subtilis var Niger

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38
Q

Biological indicator for Ethylene oxide

A

B. Subtilis

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39
Q

70% recirculated to the cabinet work area through HEPA; 30% balance can be exhausted through HEPA back into the room or to outside through a canopy unit

A

II, AI

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40
Q

30% recirculated. 70% exhausted.

A

II, B1

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41
Q

No recirculation. Total exhaust to the outside through a HEPA filter.

A

I, B2

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42
Q

Bas 100 of intake air velocity and plenums ate under negative pressure to Room; exhaust air can be ducted to the outside through a canopy unit.
Filter toxic Chem and radionucleotides

A

A2/B3

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43
Q

Transport medium for stool

A

Buffered glycerol saline
Cary Blair

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44
Q

Stool to preservative ratio

A

1:3

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45
Q

Anaerobe must be transported with anaerobic transport system

A

PRAS
Prereduced anaerobically sterilized transport medium

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46
Q

Distinguish gram (+) from gram (+)

A

Decolorizer

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47
Q

Stains bacteria whose cell wall contain long chain fatty (mycolic) acids

A

Acid Fast Stain

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48
Q

Fluorescent stain for mycolic acid
Has potassium permanganate as counterstain
Result: yellow against dark background

A

Auramine Rhodamine stain

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49
Q

Binds specifically to cellulose and chitin, detects yeast and hyphae

A

Calcofluor white

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50
Q

Used to stain the cell walls of medically important fungi grown in slide culture

A

Lactophenol cotton blue

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51
Q

Stain for Rickettsia

A

Gimenez
Macchiavelo

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52
Q

Stain for Spirochetes

A

Levaditi
Silver impregmentation
Fontana tribondeau

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53
Q

Stain for C.trachomatus inclusion bodies

A

Papanicolaou
Iodine

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54
Q

Stain for Mycoplasma

A

Methylene & Dienes

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55
Q

To optimize visualization
The extent to which Detail in the magnified objrct is maintained

A

Resolution

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56
Q

Designed to provide maximum illumination and Resolution when observing images

A

Kholer illumination

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57
Q

Contain specific nutrients required to enhance the growth of particular bacterial pathogens from a mixture of organisms

A

Enrichment

58
Q

Contains nutrient that support growth of most nonfastiduous organism without giving any particular organism a growth advantage

A

Nutritive
Support media

59
Q

Contain one or more agents that are inhibitory to all organism except those selected by the specific growth condition or chemical

A

Selective

60
Q

Allows colonies of one bacterial species or type to exhibit certain metabolic or culture characteristics that can be used to distinguish it from other bacteria growing on the same plate

A

Differential

61
Q

Differential isolation and presumptive identification of group D streptococci and enterococci

A

Bile esculin agar (BEA)

62
Q

Cultivation of nonfastiduous microorganisms, determination of hemolytic reactions
W/ Trypticase soy agar, Brucella agar, or beef heart infusion w/ 5% sheep blood

A

Blood agar

63
Q

Enrichment for Legionella spp. Supports the growth of Francis Ella and Nocardia spp.

A

Buffered Charcoal Yeast Extract Agar (BCYE)

64
Q

Enrichment and selection for Legionella spp.
Supplemented with polymyxin B, Vancomycin, and ansamycin to inhibit gram negative bacteria

A

Buffered Charcoal Yeast Extract Agar with antibiotic

65
Q

Selective for Yersinia spp. May be useful for isolation of Aeromonas spp.
Neutral red and crystal violate indicator

A

Cefsulodin Irgasan Novobiocin
(CIN)

“CIN YA’

66
Q

Cultivation of fastidious microorganism such as Haemophilus spp. Brucella spp. and pathogenic Neisseria spp.
Peptone base, enriched with solution of 2% hemoglobin or IsoVitaleX (BBL)

A

Chocolate agar

67
Q

Selective isolation of gram positive cocci

A

Columbia cilistin nalidixic acid (CNA)

68
Q

Isolation and differentiation of Lactose fermenting and non lactose fermenting enteric bacilli
Eosin Y and Methylene blue as indicator

A

Eosin Methylene blue agar (EMB)

69
Q

Differential, selective medium for the isolation and differentiation of Salmonella and Shigella spp. From other gram negative enteric bacilli
Bromthymol blue and acid fuschin indicator

A

Hektoen Enteric Agar (HE)

70
Q

Isolation and growth of corynebacterium

A

Loeffler’s medium

71
Q

Isolation and differentiation of Lactose fermenting and non lactose fermenting enteric bacilli
Gram (+) organisms inhibited by crystal violet and bile salts; neutral red as indicator

A

MacConkey agar

72
Q

For the selection and differentiation of E. Coli O157:H7 in stool specimens

A

MacConkey sorbitol agar

73
Q

Selective differentiation of staphylococci.
Peptone base, mannitol, and phenol red indicator; salt concentration of 7.5% inhibits most bacteria

A

Mannitol salt agar

74
Q

Selective for Neisseria gonorrhoeae; also supports the growth of Ureaplasma urealyticum and some Mycoplasma spp.

A

New York City agar (NYC)

75
Q

Selective isolation of aerobic gram (+) cocci and bacilli, and anaerobic gram (+) cocci, and negative bacilli

Phenylmethanol inhibits growth of gram (-) organism

A

Phenylethyl alcohol agar (PEA)

76
Q

Enrichment and selective medium for isolation of Bordetella pertussis

A

Regan Lowe

77
Q

Selective for Campylobacter and Helicobacter spp.

A

Schaedler agar

78
Q

Selective for Streptococcus pyogenes and Streptococcus agalactiae

A

Streptococcal Selective Agar (SSA)

79
Q

Selective for Salmonella and Shigella spp. Except S. Typhi

A

Tetrathionate broth

80
Q

Selective for N. Gonorrhoeae and N.meningitidis. Supports the growth of Francisella and Brucella spp.

A

Thayer Martin Agar

81
Q

Selective and differential for Vibrio spp.
Bromthymol blue acts as indicator

A

Thiosulfate citrate bike salts (TCBS)

82
Q

Selection and enrichment for Streptococcus agalactiae in female genital specimens

A

Todd Hewitt broth Supplemented with antibiotics (LIM)

83
Q

Incubation or Growth temp of bacterial culture

A

35-37*C

84
Q

Gram (+) susceptibility to antimicrobial agent

A

Vancomycin

85
Q

Gram (-) susceptibility to antimicrobial agent

A

Colistin or polymyxin

86
Q

Inhibit protein synthesis by binding 30S ribosomal subunit

A

Aminoglycosides
Glycylglycine
Tetracycline

87
Q

Inhibit cell wall synthesis by binding enzymes involved in peptidoglycan production (i.e., penicillin binding protein)

This drug class comprises the largest group of antibacterial agents, bactericidal action and lack of toxicity to humans and their molecular structures can be manipulated

A

B-lactams

88
Q

Inhibit protein synthesis by binding 50S ribosomal subunit

A

Chloramphenicol
Ketolides

89
Q

Inhibit DNA synthesis by binding DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV

A

Fluoroquinolones

90
Q

Binding and disruption of cell membrane
Gram (+) including those resistant to b-lactams and glycopeptides

A

Lipopeptides

91
Q

Bind to 50S ribosomal subunit to interfere with initiation of protein synthesis

A

Oxazolidinones

92
Q

Disruption of cell membrane

A

Polymyxin

93
Q

Inhibits RNA synthesis by binding DNA dependent, RNA polymerase

A

Rifampin

94
Q

Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to two separate site on the 50S ribosomal subunit

A

Streptogramins

95
Q

Interfere with folic acid pathway by binding the enzyme dihydropteroate synthase

A

Sulfonamides

96
Q

Depth of agar in disk

A

4 mm

97
Q

0.5 McFarland turbidity standard

A

1.5x10^8 CFU/mL

98
Q

Within 15 minutes of inoculation, the antimicrobial disks are applied and the plates are _________ for incubation to prevent the accumulation of __________ on the agar surface.

A

Inverted, Moisture

99
Q

Disk are only held up for _____ week in refrigerator temp

A

One

100
Q

Disk distance

A

15 mm

101
Q

Antibiotic dusk

A

6mm

102
Q

The highest concentration is _______ to the disk

A

Closest / Center

103
Q

<16 hrs. Incubation
>18 hrs. Incubation

> 15 mins. Before disk application
<15 mins. Before incubation
15 mins. Before incubation

A

False Susceptible / Large zone of inhibition
False Resistance / Small zone of inhibition

False Resistance
False Resistance
False Susceptible

104
Q

Plate is examined to confirm that a _______ lawn of growth has been obtained.

A

Confluent (too many to count)

105
Q

Plate are place a few inches above a black, non reflecting surface, and zone are examined from the ______ side of the plate illuminated with reflected light

A

Back

106
Q

Hazes of Growth

  1. Swarming of Proteus is??
  2. When testing Sulfonamide and Trimethoprim as a result of the organism population going through several doubling generation before inhibition /slight growth in the ZOI??
  3. Hazes outside of #1 and #2
  4. Staphylococci and Enterococci haze
A
  1. Ignore
  2. Ignore
  3. Should not be Ignored
  4. Use transmitted light
107
Q

Color if B-lactam ring is broken

A

Red

108
Q

Motility
L. Monocytogenes
Y. Enterocilitica
Y. Pseudotuberculosis
Campylobacter
Capnocytophaga
Leptospira
Treponema pallidum
Spirochetes

A

Tumbling Motile at 25C
Motile at 25C
Motile at 18-22*C
Darting Motility
Gliding Motility
Spinning Motility
Flexing / Graceful
Corkscrew Motility

109
Q

Fermentation ATP for slow growth
Repiration ATP for Fast growth

A

2 ATP slow growth
36 ATP Fast growth

110
Q

Catalase convert H202 to H20

A

Bubbles / Effervescence

111
Q

Gamma hemolysin associated to S.aureus

A

Panton Valentin Leukocidin

112
Q

30-50% of all S.aureus strains are capable of producing one of eight distinct serologic types of a heat _____ enterotoxin. The enterotoxin are resistant to hydrolysis by the gastric and intestinal enzymes. The toxin, which are often found in _______ product, are associated with pseudomembranous ___________ and _________ shock syndrome, and they may exacerbate the normal immune response, resulting in further tissue damage and systemic Pathology

A

Stable
Milk
Enterocolitis
Toxic

113
Q

Codes and Gold standard for MRSA ID

A

mecA gene

114
Q

Most common treatment for MRSA

A

Vancomycin

115
Q

Optochin (+)
Reagent: Ethyl hydrocupreine hydrochloride
Taxo P susceptibility

A

S. Pneumoniae

116
Q

A suspension of S.pneumoniae in a solution _________ lyses, and the solution becomes ________

A

Deoxycholate
Clear

117
Q

Oxidase (+): Purple
Reagent: 1% dimethyl-p- phenylenediamine dihydrochloride or tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride
Procedure:
1. Drop the reagent
2. Rub the colony on the paper + drop the rgt
3. Rub the colony on the paper w/ rgt

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

118
Q

Gram (-) nonfermenter
Hockey Puck & wagon wheel appearance
Otitis media
DNAase and butyrate esterase: (+) clear

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

119
Q

Microscopy: Coccobacillus and Gram VARIABLE
Optimal growth: 30-35C / 0.5-45C
COLD ENRICHMENT (4*C)
Tumbling Motility
Umbrella / Inverted Christmas tree Motility
Voge Proskauer (+)
Methyl Red (+)
Ocular Anton: (+) purulent conjunctivitis

A

Listeria Monocytogenes

120
Q

Palisading (V & L)
Chinese letter / Dumbell / Picket Fence
Methylene blue: Metachromatic granules (babes Ernst)
Catalase (+); Nonmotile
Urease (-)
Schick test

A

C. Diphtheriae
Kleb loeffler’s bacillus

121
Q

Red dse, Thread dse, Diamond Butcher dse
Catalase (-)
Hydrogen sulfide (+)
Nonmotile & nonhemolytic
Bottle brush, Test tube brush, Pipe cleaner @22*C

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

122
Q

Increase incidence among AIDS patient
Zigzag gram stain morphology

A

Rhodococcus equi

123
Q

Largest bacilli
Discovered by KOCH
black eschar
Pulmonary: Woolsorter’s / Ragpicker dse
Scotland outbreak
PEA for stool: CDC recommended
Skin testb Ascoli
Inverted pine tree

A

Bacillus Anthracis

124
Q

Primary purpose of egg yolk agar?

A

Determination of LECITHINASE production

125
Q

Box car shape & subterminal spore
Nonmotile
Ferment carbs
Catalase (+)
3rd most common food poisoning
Lecithinase / alpha toxin (+)
Nagler (+)
Reverse camp (+)
Tx: hyperbaric chamber

A

C. Perfringes

126
Q

Canned good bacillus
Subterminal spore
Botox for treating strabismus
B hemolysis
Lipase (+)
Lecithinase (-)
Indole (-)
Motile

A

C. Botulinum

127
Q

Subterminal
Gelatin (+)
Lecithinase (+)
Lipase (-)
Indole (-)
Esculi (V)
Nitrate (V)
Nonmotile

A

C. Perfringens

128
Q

Subterminal
Gelatin (+)
Lecithinase (-)
Lipase (+)
Indole (-)
Esculi (+)
Nitrate (-)
Motile

A

C. Botulinum

129
Q

Terminal
Gelatin (+)
Lecithinase (-)
Lipase (-)
Indole (-)
Esculi (-)
Nitrate (-/+)
Motile

Tack head bacillus
Drum stick
Smooth swarming
B hemolysis

A

C. Tetani

130
Q

Ova and Subterminal
Gelatin (+)
Lecithinase (-)
Lipase (-)
Indole (-)
Esculi (+)
Nitrate (-)
Motile

Antibiotic associated diarrhea
Banyard / horse stable odor

A

C. Difficile

131
Q

Vacuum sealed slice bacon 🥓

A

Lactobacillus

132
Q

Niacin (+) & Nitrate (+) mycobacterium

A

MTB
(M.tuberculosis, M.bovis, M.africanum, M.canettil, M.microti)

133
Q

MTB is rapidly killed by exposure to ________ sunlight, if protected from sunlight it remains alive and infectious for up to ____ weeks (dried Saliva). Can withstand most disinfectants and often remain in it’s dormant state.

A

Direct, 10

134
Q

Hansen dse
Tuberculous & Lepromatous leprosy
Footpad of armadillo / mouse
Cigar packet arrangements
Skin test: Mitsuda & Fernandez

A

M. Leprae

135
Q

Sputum and bronchial aspirates for mycobacteria?

A

Early morning specimen, 3 days consecutive

136
Q

Digestant (liquefy & Disinfect) for mycobacteria

A

N-Acetyl-L-cysteine

137
Q

Both Digestant and decontaminant (liquefy & Disinfect) for mycobacteria

A

Benzalkonium chloride

138
Q

Specific gravity of tubercle bacilli

A

0.79 - 1.07

139
Q

What is the purpose of Crystal Violet in MacConkey agar?

A

Inhibits the growth of gram (+) bacteria

140
Q

MALDI-TOF rapid confirmatory Matrix Assisted Lase Desorption ionization time of flight mass spectrometry (MALDI-TOF MS) is an advance chemical technique that uses ______ excitation to ionize chemical functional groups that are included in the proteins of an organism

A

LASER

141
Q

Porphyrin/D-ala positive bacteria

A

H. parainfluenzae
H. parahaemolyticus
H. paraphrohaemolyticus

142
Q
A

MT Q&As (7 decks)

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