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MT Q&As > HEMA > Flashcards

HEMA Flashcards

1
Q

Factor of hemophilia A

A. VIII
B. VI
C. X
D. XI

A

A. VIII

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2
Q

Total white cell count is the estimate of the total number of WBC’s in

A. Cubic millimeter
B. Cubic micrometer
C. Millimeter
D. None

A

A. Cubic millimeter

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3
Q

According to Landsteiner, when a specific antigen is present on blood cells, the corresponding antibody

A. Is absent from the serum
B. Is present in the blood cells
C. Is present in the serum
D. May or may not be present depending on the agglutinogens present

A

A. Is absent from the serum

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4
Q

Strong Antigen:

A. Vitamin
B. Carbohydrate
C. Protein
D. Glycoprotein

A

Protein

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5
Q

Storage Temperature of platelets

A. 37C
B. 35-40C
C. 22-27C
D. -4C

A

22-27C

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6
Q

High total count is termed as

A. Leukopenia
B. Leukocytosis
C. Hypercytosis
D. Hypocytosis

A

Leukocytosis

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7
Q

What is the minimum number of bone marrow blast needed for the diagnosis of acute leukemia?

A. 29%
B. 50%
C. 5%
D. 30%

A

30%

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8
Q

Which of the following Fisher-Race phenotypes is the same as Rz

A. Dce
B. DCe
C. DcE
D. DCE

A

DCE

capital R correlates to capital D
z correlates to capital C and E

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9
Q

Insufficient centrifuge will result in:

A. A false increase in hematocrit (Hct) value
B. A false decrease in Hct value
C. No effect on Hct value
D. All of these options, depending in the patient

A

A false increase in hematocrit (Hct) value

insufficient centrifugation does not pack down the red blood cells; therefore, the Hct which is the volume of packed cells, will increase

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10
Q

what is the normal WBC differential lymphocyte percentage (range) in the adult population?

A. 5-10%
B. 10-20%
C. 20-44%
D. 50-70%

A

20-44%

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11
Q

The general blood donor is

A. A blood group
B. B blood group
C. O blood group
D. AB blood group

A

O blood group

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12
Q

To what extent changes of hemoglobin in a day said to be normal?

A. 1.5 gm/dl
B. 2.5 gm/dl
C. 3 gm/dl
D. 3.5 gm/dl

A

1.5 gm/dl

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13
Q

Myeloid leukemia is

A. High Leukocyte
B. Low Leukocyte
C. Normal Leukocyte

A

High Leukocyte

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14
Q

The battlement scan pattern is employed in an eye-count differential examination of wedge blood film because:

A. Small lymphocytes will be concentrated in the feather edge
B. Large leukocytes occur more frequently in the feather edge
C. Eosinophils occur more frequently in the center of the film.
D. Leukocytes are distributed evenly throughout the film.

A

Eosinophils occur more frequently in the center of the film.

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15
Q

Pelger-Huet anomaly is neutrophil characterized by

A. Hyposegmented
B. Hypersegement
C. Toxic granules
D. All

A

Hyposegmented

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16
Q

Prolonged bleeding time commonly occurs in

A. Damage to vascular endothelium
B. Defect platelets function
C. Reduction Platelet number
D. Disorder of blood coagulation
E. All

A

All

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17
Q

Hb range in adult

A. 13.5-17.5 gm/dl
B. 12-16 gm/dl
C. 13.5-17.5 mg/dl
D. 11-15 gm/dl

A

13.5-17.5 gm/dl

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18
Q

The principle involved in some automated blood cell counters is based on the

A. Value of the cell indices
B. Weight of the hemoglobin in the red cell
C. Size of the particle being counted
D. Amount of hemoglobin in the red cell

A

Size of the particle being counted

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19
Q

The following are index sensitive and will measure iron deficiency anemia:

A. Transferrin
B. Ferritin
C. TIBC
D. Hb Concentration
E. All of the above

A

All of the above

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20
Q

The person should not have donated blood within the previous

A. 3 months
B. 5 months
C. 2 months
D. 1 year

A

3 months

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21
Q

Which is the major Hgb found in the RBCs of patients with sickle cell trait?

A. Hgb S
B. Hgb F
C. Hgb A2
D. Hgb A

A

Hgb A

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22
Q

Anti-Lea can react with:

A. Le (a+b+) cells
B. Le (a-b-) cells
C. Le (a+b-) cells
D. Le (a-b+) cells

A

Le (a+b+) cells
Le (a+b-) cells

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23
Q

A 7.0ml ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) tube is received in the laboratory containing only 2.0 ml of blood. If the laboratory is using manual techniques, which of the following tests will most likely be erroneous?

A. RBC count
B. Hemoglobin (Hgb)
C. Hct
D. WBC count

A

Hct

excessive anticoagulant causes shrinkage of cells, thus the Hct will be affected RBC and WBC counts remain the same as does the Hgb content.

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24
Q

The following index sensitive and will measure the total of iron deficiency anemia

A. Transferrin
B. Ferritin
C. TIBC
D. Hb electrophoresis
E. All of the above

A

All of the above

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25
Q

Diluting fluid for Manual platelet count

A

1% ammonium oxalate

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26
Q

What is the effect of prolonged tourniquet application to the level of VWF in the specimen?

A

False increase

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27
Q

The megakaryocyte progenitor that undergoes endomitosis is

A. MK-I
B. BFU-Meg
C. CFU-Meg
D. LD-CFU-Meg

A

LD-CFU-Meg

Both A and D performs endomitosis LD-CFU-Meg is a progenitor while MK-I is a precursor

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28
Q

Cellular Unltrastructural component unique to the platelet.
Absorb albumin, fibrinogen, and other plasma protein through endocytosis

A

Glycocalyx

29
Q

PAR 1 and 4 receptor
Activates what ligand?

A

Thrombin

30
Q

Protein that form MICROTUBULES

A

Tubulin

31
Q

Protein form MICROFILAMENTS

A

Actin

32
Q

Which of the following platelet granules contain coagulation factors?

A. Alpha
B. Dense
C. Lysosome
D. Nota

A

ALPHA GRANULES

33
Q

Which of the eosinophil granules contain cyclooxygenase?

A

Lipid bodies

34
Q

Other name of ASPIRIN

A

Acetylsalicylic acid

35
Q

Ideal length of blood smear (wedge method)

A

2/3 to 3/4

36
Q

Process of replacing red marrow by yellow marrow during development?

A

RETROGRESSION

37
Q

M:E ratio

A

1.5:1 to. 3.3:1

38
Q

Leukemia M:E ratio

A

10:1

39
Q

Total mass of RBCs circulating in the peripheral blood and the bone marrow RBC precursors

A

Erythron

40
Q

Erythrocytes in the circulation

A

RBC mass

41
Q

A term that describes the dynamics of RBC creation and destruction

A

Erythrokinetics

42
Q

Immature Hematopoietic cell that is committed to a cell line but CANNOT be identified morphologically?

A

Progenitor cells

43
Q

Immature Hematopoietic cell that is morphologically INDENTIFIABLE as belonging to a given cell line

A

PRECURSOR CELLS

44
Q

earliest marker of eryrhroid differentiation; transferrin receptor

A

CD71

45
Q

How many days for the BFU-E to mature to an erythrocyte?

A

18-21 days

BFU-E to CFU-E : 1week
CFU-E to Rybriblast : 1 week

46
Q

Last stage with a NUCLEOLUS
First stage of HEMOGLOBIN SYNTHESIS

absence of nucleuli
Gives rise to 4 rubricyte

A

Prorubricyte (basophilic normoblast)

47
Q

Last stage capable of MITOSIS
first stage in which the cytoplasm becomes PINK

Gives rise to 2 metarubricyte
Checkerboard
Muddy or gray color

A

Rubricyte / Polychromatic normoblast

48
Q

Nucleus is extruded at this stage, and the cells becomes a reticulocyte.

Nucleus: pyknotic (dense mass of degenerated chromatin)

Cytoplasm: salmon-pink

Last stage with a NUCLEUS

A

Metarubricyte / Orthochromatic normoblast

49
Q

Last stage of HEMOGLOBIN SYNTHESIS
Spends 2 to 3 days in the bone marrow and 1 day in the peripheral blood before developing into a mature RBC.
Cytoplasm: Salmon pink

A

RETICULOCYTE

50
Q

Anion transporter, supports ABH antigens

A

Band 3

51
Q

Glucose transporter, supports ABH antigen

A

GLUT-1

52
Q

Primary cytoskeletal proteins

A

Alpha spectrin
Beta spectrin

53
Q

Increase MCHC (35 & 38)
Autosomal Dominant

Defect in protein that disturbs vertical membrane interaction between transmembrane protein and underlying cytoskeleton; loss of membrane and decreased surface area to volume ration

A

Hereditary Spherocytosis

54
Q

A flow cytomertry based test
Most sensitive and specific test to confirm the diagnosis of hereditary spherocytosis

A

Ema Binding test

55
Q

Glucose penetrates the red blood cell with no energy expenditure via GLUT-1 (a transmembrane protein)

Produce 2 molecule of ATP

A

Embden-Meyerhof Pathway

56
Q

Most common enzyme deficiency of the EMP and is the most common form of hereditary nonspherocytic hemolytic anemia

Has ACANTHOCYTES, BURR CELLS

A

Pyruvate kinase deficiency

Pk fluorescent spot tets - recommended screening test
AUTOHEMOLYSIS - screening
QUANTITATIVE PK ASSAY - Confirmatory

57
Q

Most common enzyme deficiency in the pentose Phosphate pathway and is also the most common RBC enzyme defect (prevalence of 5% of the global population, or approximately 400 M people worldwide)
PBS: HEINZ BODIES, BITE CELLS

A

Glucose 6 Phosphate dehydrogenase

G6PD FLUORESCENT SPOT TEST - recommended screening
AUTOHEMOLYSIS - screening
QUANTITATIVE G6PD ASSAY - Confirmatory

58
Q

Severe, episodic acute hemolytic anemia associated with infections, certain drugs and fava beans; not self-limited and may require transfusion during hemolytic episodes

Favism
G6PD Mediterranean variat

A

G6PD TYPE II

59
Q

Prevent the denaturation of the GLOBIN by oxidation
Functionally dependent on G6PD

A

Hexose Monophosphate shunt

60
Q

Maintains iron in the HEME in it’s reduced state (ferrous)

A

Methemoglobin reductase pathway

61
Q

Increase PH
Decrease PCO2
Decrease 2,3 BPG
Decrease TEMP
Increase O2 AFFINITY

A

Shift to the left

62
Q

Decrease PH
Increase PCO2
Increase 2,3 BPG
Increase TEMP
Decrease O2 AFFINITY

A

Shift to the right

63
Q

RBC with slit like central pallor

Rh Deficiency Syndrome, alcoholism,
Electrolyte imbalance,
Dehydrated hereditary, syomatocytosis (a. k. a. Hereditary Xerocytosis), overhydrated hereditary

A

Stomatocyte / Mouth cell

64
Q

Abetalipoproteinemia (a.k.a. Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome & Hereditary Acanthocutosis)
McLeod syndrome
Pyruvate kinase deficiency
Hepatic hemangioma
Neonatal hepatitis
After heparin administration
Postspkenectomy
Cirrhosis

RBCs with irregular spiculated surface

A

ACANTHOCYTES
Thorn cell
Spur cell

65
Q

RBCs with regularly spiculated surface
Uremia
Pyruvate kinase deficiency

A

BURR cell
Echinocyte

66
Q

Pear-shaped or teardrop shaped RBCs

Primary Myelofibrosis (a.k.a. Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia)
Megaloblastic anemia,
Thalassemia,

A

Dacrayocyte
Teardrop cells

67
Q

Fragmented RBCs

Patient with artificial heart valves, Uremia, severe burns, MAHAs

A

Schistocyte / Schizocyte

68
Q

Two forms of drepanocytes

  1. Cresent shaped, with long projections, when reoxygenated they fragment
  2. Have less pronounced projections, when reoxygenated they return to the original, biconcave disk shape
A
  1. Irreversible sickle cell
  2. Oat shaped cells

MT Q&As (7 decks)

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