Micro USMLE 8-29(16) (qmax 8/24- 1-31) Flashcards

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1
Q

Fever, chills, flank pain, and costovertebral angle tenderness in the context of dysuria and increased urinary frequency suggests a diagnosis of pyelonephritis. Pyelonephritis is most commonly caused by infection ascending to the kidneys from the lower urinary tract. In rare cases, infections can spread to the kidney via the bloodstream. The diagnosis is based largely on clinical symptoms, combined with results from urinalysis and urine culture. Pyelonephritis is more common in women than men and is caused most often by?

A

Escherichia coli (a lactose-fermenting, gram-negative rod). E. coli can be found in 82% of cases in women and 73% of cases in men.

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2
Q

An oxidase-negative, lactose-nonfermenting, gram-negative rod describes proteus mirabilis, which is associated with struvite stones.
An oxidase-positive, lactose-nonfermenting, gram-negative rod describes pseudomonas aeruginosa in the context of nosocomial infections.
Gram-negative bacteria capable of catalyzing urea to ammonia like Proteus mirabilis and Ureaplasma urealyticum can cause ?

A

urinary tract infections and pyelonephritis, but are not the most common cause of community acquired pyelonephritis.
Novobiocin-resistant, coagulase-negative, gram-positive cocci in clusters refers to Staphylococcus saprophyticus, which commonly causes cystitis.

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3
Q

Pyelonephritis can present as fever, chills, flank pain, and costovertebral angle tenderness, combined with urinary symptoms such as dysuria and increased frequency. E. coli (a lactose-fermenting, gram-negative rod) is the most common cause of ?

A

pyelonephritis.

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4
Q

Many years ago this patient had tuberculosis (TB) as indicated by his positive PPD and his receipt of isoniazid therapy. He currently is experiencing cough, night sweats, and unintentional weight loss, all of which suggest a reactivation of tuberculosis. Hematogenous spread due to reactivation of a latent focus of Mycobacterium tuberculosis from a previous infection can lead to disseminated disease, also known as miliary TB.

Sometimes reactivation occurs spontaneously, but more often, it is the result of a ?

A

weakened immune system that is no longer able to contain the latent infection. Miliary TB demonstrates widespread seeding of the lungs with mycobacteria in a pattern that resembles millet seed. His chest x-ray clearly shows many small opacities distributed throughout the lung, indicated by arrows in the image, representing multiple fine granulomas.

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5
Q

Almost every organ can be infected with reactivated M tuberculosis, most commonly affected are the lungs (through reseeding), liver, bone marrow, spleen, adrenal glands, and meninges. The lesions in these organs on biopsy resemble those in the lungs: 1- to 2-mm yellowish granulomas. Miliary TB is the most deadly progression of the disease.

Bridging fibrous septae are characteristic of end-stage cirrhosis and represent the liver’s attempt at regenerating damaged hepatocytes. Diffuse nodularity is characteristic of long-standing cirrhosis. Centrilobular hemorrhagic necrosis is the result of?

A

inadequate oxygenation and is not associated with TB. Clear macrovesicular globules are characteristic of hepatic steatosis and do not contain any bacteria.

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6
Q

Patients with previous Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection are at risk of developing miliary TB, characterized by ?

A

1- to 2-mm granulomas in the lung, liver, bone marrow, spleen, adrenal glands, and meninges.

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7
Q

The patient presents with cognitive symptoms (deteriorating academic performance) and physical symptoms (generalized seizures and visual disturbances) which appear to be worsening. Based on the lab results and his medical history, the patient is most likely suffering from ?

A

subacute sclerosing panencephalitis. This is a rare progressive demyelinating disease, associated with chronic central nervous system infection with measles virus.

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8
Q

There is often a history of primary measles infection at an early age (approximately 2 years) followed by a latent interval of 6–8 years. Initial manifestations usually include poor school performance, mood and personality changes, and insomnia. Fever and headache do not occur. As the disease progresses, patients develop ?

A

progressive intellectual deterioration, focal and/or generalized seizures, myoclonus, ataxia, and visual disturbances. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is acellular with normal or mildly elevated protein and markedly elevated gamma-globulin (>20% of total CSF protein). CSF anti-measles antibodies are also elevated. CT and MRI show evidence of multifocal white matter lesions (indicated by the arrows in this image), cortical atrophy, and ventricular enlargement.

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9
Q

Classic measles presentation includes cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, high fever, and a red maculopapular rash that spreads downward from the head. Koplik spots (1mm white-gray lesions on an erythematous base) are seen in the buccal mucosa, and Warthin-Finkeldey cells (giant multinucleated cells) in the respiratory secretions are pathognomonic for measles. Measles virus is caused by?

A

an ss-RNA virus with hemagglutinins on its surface (for adhesion) and matrix proteins (for viral assembly).

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10
Q

Herpes simplex virus type 2 causes genital herpes and aseptic meningitis acutely.
• Mumps presents with parotitis, orchitis, pancreatitis and aseptic meningitis.
• Neisseria meningitidis can cause bacterial meningitis.
• Rubella virus, or German measles, is characterized by ?

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fever and upper respiratory symptoms that resolve with subsequent rash.
• Group A streptococcus (GAS) infection can cause pharyngitis and impetigo, which may result in post-infectious complications of rheumatic fever (pharyngitis only) and glomerulonephritis (pharyngitis or impetigo).

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11
Q

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is a rare complication of prior measles infection that causes ?

A

progressive neurologic disease leading to death. CSF exams usually reveal normal pressure, cell count, and total protein content. However, CSF globulin is almost always elevated, constituting up to 20%–60% of CSF protein.

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12
Q

This patient’s symptoms of hoarse voice, inspiratory stridor, and violent cough (seal-like barking cough), along with a chest x-ray demonstrating a positive “steeple sign” (narrowing of the subglottis), are consistent with a diagnosis of croup, a common respiratory tract infection in children (see table).
Croup is caused by the parainfluenza virus of the Paramyxoviridae family. Paramyxoviruses have an ?

A

envelope and a helical capsid. They are single-stranded, negative-sense, linear, nonsegmented RNA viruses. Other illnesses caused by paramyxoviruses include respiratory syncytial virus, measles, and mumps. A mnemonic for circular RNA viruses is Dhey Are Balls (Delta virus, Arenavirus, Bunyavirus). All other RNA viruses are linear.

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13
Q

Reoviruses contain double-stranded, linear RNA, and caliciviruses contain single-stranded, positive-sense, linear, nonsegmented RNA. Both reoviruses and caliciviruses can cause diarrhea, but not croup. Delta virus (hepatitis D virus) is a single-stranded, negative-sense, circular RNA virus that worsens hepatitis B infections. Orthomyxoviruses are?

A

single-stranded, negative-sense, linear, segmented RNA viruses, such as the influenza virus, which can cause chills, muscle aches, runny nose, headaches, and fatigue in addition to congestion, cough, and fever.

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14
Q

A “barking” cough, hoarse voice, inspiratory stridor, and a positive “steeple sign” on a chest x-ray are found in patients with croup. Croup is caused by the parainfluenza virus, which is ?

A

a single-stranded, negative-sense, linear, nonsegmented RNA virus.

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15
Q

his newborn girl has an umbilical purulent discharge, fever, irritability, diffuse flushing, and large fluid-filled blisters that rupture easily. Blood culture yields gram-positive cocci in clusters on Gram staining. Together these findings suggest Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS).

SSSS is caused by the release of ?

A

Two exotoxins (epidermolytic toxins A and B) from Staphylococcus aureus. Desmosomes (also called “macula adherens”) are responsible for binding epithelial cells to one another to form a coherent whole.

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16
Q

The exotoxins that are released by S aureus bind to a molecule within the desmosome called desmoglein 1, thereby disrupting cell adhesion. In SSSS, the epidermis separates at the stratum granulosum due to the binding of exotoxins to desmosomes in this layer. This results in ?

A

bullous lesions and a positive Nikolsky sign (slight rubbing of the skin results in exfoliation of the outermost layer). SSSS commonly affects young children.

17
Q

Gap junctions permit the passage of small molecules between cells. A defect here would not cause blisters found in this patient.
Hemidesmosomes connect the epithelial cells to the underlying basement membrane. A defect here would cause large fluid-filled blisters, characteristic of bullous pemphigoid. The average age of onset for this disease is 65 years old.
Intermediate junctions form a ?

A

band around the cell to provide structural support. A defect here would not cause the fever, blisters, and discharge seen in this patient.
Tight junctions prevent diffusion between the cells. A defect in diffusion between cells would not cause the blisters found in this patient.

18
Q

In staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, the epidermis separates at the stratum granulosum as a result of binding of epidermolytic toxins A and B to?

A

desmoglein 1 (desmosomes) in this layer.

19
Q

The patient arrives with headache, fatigue, and fever, along with visible track marks on his arms. Based on the results of his lumbar puncture, he shows signs of cryptococcal meningitis, which can be diagnosed if encapsulated yeast forms are seen on an India ink stain of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). The positive cryptococcal antigen test provides even stronger confirmation. Cryptococcus is the most common cause of subacute bacterial meningitis. The CSF findings seen in this patient are typical of ?

A

fungal or mycobacterial meningitis, including lymphocytosis, decreased glucose, and increased protein. Intravenous drug users are at especially high risk of acquiring HIV and developing opportunistic infections such as cryptococcal meningitis. One should have a high index of suspicion for cryptococcal meningitis in individuals with HIV, a CD4 count of <100, and an isolated fever and headache.

Amphotericin B is the treatment of choice for cryptococcal meningitis. This drug binds ergosterol, a compound unique to the fungal cell membrane, and induces pore formation.

20
Q

Amphotericin B causes severe adverse effects, including fever, chills, hypotension, arrhythmias, and nephrotoxicity. As noted in the question, it is important to check blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels before treatment with amphotericin B is initiated. Typical induction treatment includes 2 weeks of intravenous amphotericin B, with or without oral flucytosine. If the patient’s condition appears to be improving, the consolidation phase is started, and amphotericin B and flucytosine are discontinued and replaced with?

A

an oral azole (fluconazole) for 8 weeks. This is followed by a suppression phase with a lower dose of fluconazole for 1 year.

21
Q

Fluconazole is most often used to treat Candida infections, and it can be used later in the treatment of cryptococcal meningitis.
Flucytosine can be used with amphotericin B in the treatment of cryptococcal meningitis, but it cannot be used alone.
Terbinafine is most often used as?

A

an oral agent to treat dermatophyte (tinea) infection of the hair (tinea capitis) and nails (onychomycosis) and as a topical agent to treat tinea (dermatophyte) infections of the skin.
Griseofulvin is most often used as an oral agent to treat dermatophyte (tinea) infection of the hair (tinea capitis) and nails (onychomycosis).

22
Q

Cryptococcal meningitis is an AIDS-defining illness that rarely occurs in immunocompetent patients. Although CSF stained with India ink shows fungi with surrounding capsules, the diagnostic test of choice is cryptococcal antigen testing. The most common initial treatment is amphotericin B with flucytosine, followed by long-term administration of fluconazole. However, cryptococcal meningitis may be treated successfully without ?

A

the addition of flucytosine, which can be toxic for some patients.

23
Q

This college-aged patient presents with a high fever, headache, and neck stiffness. The positive Brudzinski sign (passive flexion of the neck causing spontaneous hip flexion) suggests he has contracted infectious meningitis. The most likely cause of this infection would be bacterial. It would be helpful to know the composition of a cerebral spinal fluid analysis, which should show high protein, low glucose, and the presence of white blood cells. Absent these data points, it is still prudent to suspect bacterial meningitis.
The two most likely causes of bacterial meningitis in the demographic of this patient are ?

A

Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae. Of these two organisms, N. meningitidis is classically associated with scenarios where individuals that have not known each other before are brought in close contact (daycare centers, dorm rooms, army barracks, etc). N. meningitidis is transiently associated with the normal oral flora and generally does not cause disease. This organism produces a type-specific capsule. This capsule forms the basis for a vaccine. Of note is that the capsular type from group B meningococci is composed of polysialic acid. This structure is found on human tissues; therefore, antibodies cannot be produced against strains bearing this capsular motif. Ultimately, the immune status (prior exposure or vaccination) is an important determinant of protection from this organism.

24
Q

If the organism is able to move from the oral flora into the bloodstream, disseminated infection can ensue. This can result in ?

A

hypotension, tachycardia, a rapidly enlarging maculopapular petechial or purpuric rash . disseminated intravascular coagulation, and coma. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is a possible complication of meningococcemia. In this disorder, bilateral hemorrhage into the adrenal glands causes acute adrenal insufficiency (decreased sodium, increased potassium, decreased glucose, metabolic acidosis, and increased blood urea nitrogen result).

25
Q

An ejection murmur, small erythematous lesions on the palms, and splinter hemorrhages on the nail bed are all signs of bacterial endocarditis.
Migratory polyarthritis, carditis, erythema marginatum are characteristics of ?

A

rheumatic fever.
Simultaneous ataxia, urinary incontinence, and cognitive decline are signs of normal pressure hydrocephalus.
Symmetric ascending muscle weakness beginning in the distal lower extremities is characteristic of Guillain-Barré syndrome.

26
Q

Neisseria meningitidis is a gram-negative diplococcus that is a major cause of meningitis and sepsis. It can result in ?

A

disseminated intravascular coagulation, shock, and adrenal failure (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

27
Q

The cause of this patient’s pulmonary symptoms is most likely Nocardia asteroides. The acid-fast stain of the sputum sample shows long, branching filaments. Organisms with long, branching filaments can be either fungi or the bacteria Nocardia asteroides or Actinomyces israelii. Fungi would not necessarily be evident on acid-fast stain. In addition, the filaments of fungi tend to be ?

A

thicker than those shown in this stain. Therefore, bacteria are more likely.

28
Q

The clinical scenario is important to help distinguish between N. asteroides and A. israelii. Due to his recent kidney transplant, this man is very likely to be immunocompromised and is at risk of developing pulmonary infection from N. asteroides. A. israelii, on the other hand, causes oral and facial abscesses. Although N. asteroides is weakly acid fast, A. israelii is not. The initial treatment of choice for Nocardia pneumonia is ?

A

a sulfa-based antibiotic, such as sulfamethoxazole, given intravenously in high doses. Following this, imipenem/cilastatin is given for at least 4 weeks.

29
Q

Fluconazole can be used to treat many fungal infections; however, it has no effect on bacteria since it blocks the synthesis of ergosterol, a crucial component of the fungal cell membrane. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside that would require the addition of a sulfa antibiotic to be effective against N. asteroides. Metronidazole is only effective against anaerobic bacteria. Although penicillin is useful against Actinomyces, it is not effective against ?

A

N. asteroides. Isoniazid is part of the treatment of tuberculosis, and although N. asteroides is also an acid-fast bacteria, isoniazid is not used for this type of infection.

30
Q

Nocardia asteroides causes pulmonary infection in immunocompromised hosts and is treated with ?

A

a sulfa-based antibiotic, whereas Actinomyces israelii causes oral/facial abscesses and is treated with penicillin-based antibiotics.