Micro USMLE 8-21 (3) Flashcards

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1
Q

Based on her X-ray findings, leukocytosis, and sputum analysis, this woman has developed bacterial pneumonia (circle in image). The observation of gram-positive cocci in clusters (shown in the vignette image) is diagnostic of Staphylococcus aureus. S. aureus is a common cause of secondary bacterial pneumonia after initial infection with the influenza virus, and its principal virulence factor is protein A. It is also a common cause of hospital-acquired pneumonia. Pneumonia due to this organism frequently leads to complications such as lung abscess or empyema. This patient’s X-ray findings display?

A

lobar pneumonia. However, postinfluenza pneumonia caused by S. aureus can also lead to bronchopneumonia, which may even be more common. This would instead appear as patchy infiltrates on chest X-ray. If the disease process is rapidly progressive, S. aureus can even lead to extensive infiltrates bilaterally, appearing similar to pulmonary edema on chest X-ray.

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2
Q

Legionella pneumophila is a weakly staining gram-negative bacillus that is the agent behind Legionnaires’ disease. It thrives in aquatic environments and can be acquired from inhalation of aerosol from contaminated water sources, frequently in a hospital setting. It secretes Ank proteins as its primary virulence factor.

Capsular polysaccharide (CPS) and lipopolysaccharide are two important virulence factors in Klebsiella pneumoniae infection. CPS makes up the outer layer of the microbe, protecting it from phagocytic destruction. Klebsiella makes up the ?

A

normal flora the mouth and intestines, but K. pneumoniae is an important cause of hospital acquired pneumonia, typically seen in immunocompromised patients.

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3
Q

Haemophilus influenzae is a gram-negative bacillus that secretes an IgA protease. It is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia, particularly in patients with underlying pulmonary pathology such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. In unvaccinated children, the encapsulated form of H. influenzae can cause life-threatening acute epiglottitis. In addition, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Neisseria also have IgA protease as an important virulence factor.

Mycoplasma pneumoniae is the most common cause of?

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bacterial pneumonia in young adults. It generally causes a mild atypical interstitial pneumonia (“walking pneumonia”) that can be treated on an outpatient basis. M. pneumoniae lacks a cell wall and thus cannot be detected on Gram stain.

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4
Q

Staphylococcus aureus can cause a postviral lobar pneumonia, with the appearance of gram-positive clusters on light microscopy. Notably, S. aureus provides ?

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protein A as its primary virulence factor.

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5
Q

A neonate with purulent umbilical discharge for 1 day presents with fever, irritability, and diffuse flushing. One day later she is covered in large, fluid-filled blisters that rupture easily, leaving raw red areas beneath. Blood cultures are taken, which within 24 hours grow an organism that is subsequently Gram stained with the results shown below.

The skin symptoms observed in this case are due to the involvement of which of the following intercellular structures?

A

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS) is caused by the release of two exotoxins (epidermolytic toxins A and B) from Staphylococcus aureus. Desmosomes (also called “macula adherens”) are responsible for binding epithelial cells to one another to form a coherent whole. The exotoxins that are released bind to a molecule within the desmosome called desmoglein 1, thereby disrupting cell adhesion. In SSSS, the epidermis separates at the stratum granulosum due to the binding of exotoxins to desmosomes in this layer. Clinically, this results in bullous lesions and a positive Nikolsky’s sign.

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6
Q

Gap junctions are circular intercellular contact areas that permit the passage of small molecules between adjacent cells, allowing communication to facilitate electrotonic and metabolic function.

Hemidesmosomes are present on the basal surface of epithelial cells adjacent to the basement membrane, and serve to connect epithelial cells to the underlying extracellular matrix.

Intermediate junctions lie deep to tight junctions, comprised of actin filaments forming a?

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continuous band around the cell, providing structural support just below tight junctions.

Tight junctions are located beneath the luminal surface of simple columnar epithelium (eg, intestinal lining) and seal the intercellular space to prevent diffusion between cells.

In staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, the epidermis separates at the stratum granulosum as a result of binding of epidermolytic toxins A and B to desmoglein 1 in this layer.

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7
Q

This patient presents with acute chest pain, dry cough, fatigue, malaise, chills, and a systolic murmur secondary to tricuspid regurgitation. This clinical picture, together with his history of intravenous drug use, provide strong diagnostic clues. He most likely has infective endocarditis of the tricuspid valve caused by Staphylococcus aureus bacteremia introduced through intravenous drug use.
More than 50% of cases of infective endocarditis secondary to intravenous drug use will only affect the tricuspid valve. Tricuspid valve vegetations may also seed?

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septic emboli from the right side of the heart, resulting in pulmonary emboli, with the presence of cough, pleuritic chest pain, diffuse pulmonary infiltrates, and pyopneumothorax. S. aureus is a catalase-positive, coagulase-positive, β-hemolytic, gram-positive (in clusters) facultative coccus (shown in the image below). S. aureus produces a golden-yellow pigment in culture.

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8
Q

It’s imperative to suspect S. aureus in intravenous drug users who may not manifest with the classic symptoms of infectious endocarditis (Roth spots, Osler nodes, and Janeway lesions) owing to isolated tricuspid valve infection with pulmonary emboli rather than systemic embolization as in left-sided endocarditis.

Catalase-negative β-hemolytic cocci is characteristic of Group A streptococci (Streptococcus pyogenes), which are uncommon causes of endocarditis in injection-drug users. Catalase-positive, coagulase-negative cocci is characteristic of ?

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Staphylococcus epidermidis which most commonly grows on and damages cardiac valve replacements, but not native valves. α-hemolytic cocci with optochin resistance is characteristic of viridans streptococci, which damage native cardiac valves, but less commonly than S. aureus in injection-drug users. α-hemolytic cocci with optochin sensitivity is characteristic of Streptococcus pneumoniae, which is a common cause of meningitis, otitis media, and pneumonia, but less common in endocarditis. Non-hemolytic cocci in chains is characteristic of enterococci and Lancefield group D streptococci, which can cause subacute bacterial endocarditis, and are also associated with biliary and urinary tract infections

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9
Q

Staphylococcus aureus (S. aureus) can cause an acute infective endocarditis of native heart valves resulting in high fevers, chills, and an acute heart murmur. It’s imperative to suspect S. aureus in intravenous drug users who may not manifest with ?

A

the classic symptoms of infectious endocarditis (Roth spots, Osler nodes, and Janeway lesions) owing to isolated tricuspid valve infection with pulmonary, rather than systemic emboli.

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10
Q

A 70-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with fever, chills, swelling, erythema, and decreased range of motion in the left knee. She had a left total knee replacement two weeks ago and had a prosthetic joint implanted. Her surgeon decides to tap the joint and sends the fluid for Gram stain and culture.

Which of the following is most likely to be observed upon laboratory examination of the joint fluid?

A

Gram-positive, catalase-positive cocci could refer to either Staphylococcus aureus or Staphylococcus epidermidis. Overall, S. aureus is the most common cause of septic arthritis in adults and children. However, S. epidermidis is also known for causing nosocomial infections of implanted foreign bodies such as catheters, joint prosthetics, and prosthetic heart valves. S. aureus and S. epidermidis can be differentiated by coagulase testing: S. aureus is coagulase-positive while S. epidermidis is coagulase-negative.

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11
Q

Gram-negative, glucose-fermenting cocci identifies an organism such as Neisseria gonorrhoeae. N. gonorrhoeae is a common cause of septic arthritis in young, sexually active adults. It is sexually transmitted and causes a purulent infiltration of the synovium. N. gonorrhoeae ferments only glucose, whereas N. meningitidis ferments both glucose and maltose.

Gram-negative, lactose-fermenting bacilli identifies an organism such as Escherichia coli. E. coli is the most common cause of urinary tract infections. It is not implicated as a cause of postsurgical septic arthritis.

Gram-negative, non-lactose fermenting bacilli identifies an organism such as?

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Salmonella. Salmonella species are usually implicated in bloody diarrhea. When infecting bone, Salmonella causes osteomyelitis rather than septic arthritis, particularly in asplenic individuals such as adults with sickle cell anemia.

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12
Q

Gram-positive, catalase-negative cocci identifies an organism such as Streptococcus. S. pyogenes is implicated in bacterial pharyngitis and scarlet fever, among other diseases. It could cause polyarthralgias in a patient with rheumatic fever, but it is not a likely cause of postsurgical septic arthritis.

Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are gram-positive, catalase-positive cocci that are likely to cause?

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septic arthritis after joint replacement surgery.

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13
Q

The patient’s strong muscle contractions and trismus (contraction of the jaw muscles) are symptoms of tetanus. Tetanus is caused by?

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Clostridium tetani spores that are found in the soil. These organisms classically enter the body as spores through a puncture wound. In the low-oxygen environment of a deep wound, the anaerobic bacteria sporulate and grow, producing tetanus toxin.

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14
Q

Clostridium tetani is a spore-forming, gram-positive bacillus that is transmitted through contaminated soil and animal feces, whose entrance into the body is often facilitated by puncture wounds from spore-contaminated sharp objects like nails. It produces an?

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exotoxin that blocks glycine and GABA from inhibiting muscular contractions, resulting in tonic contraction (tetanus).

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15
Q

The disease pathology is associated with the production of an exotoxin known as tetanospasmin or tetanus toxin. This toxin binds to the presynaptic membrane of the neuromuscular junction and is internalized and transported retroaxonally to the spinal cord. Enzymatically, tetanus toxin is a zinc metalloprotease that cleaves the protein synaptobrevin, an integral neurovesicle protein involved in membrane fusion. Without membrane fusion, the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters glycine and GABA is blocked. The net result of this is to?

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prevent the inhibitory signal from reaching motor neurons downstream, thus predisposing motor neurons to tonic contraction, or tetanus.

Prevention of tetanus is accomplished by vaccination using an inactivated form of tetanus toxin called tetanus toxoid. Protection against tetanus is excellent after immunization but wanes over time. It is unlikely that our patient has followed an adequate vaccination schedule, as she has not seen a doctor in over 10 years.

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16
Q

A cytotoxin that damages colonic mucosa refers to Clostridium difficile, which causes pseudomembranous colitis.
A heat labile-toxin that stimulates adenylate cyclase refers to Escherichia coli, which can cause watery diarrhea.
A toxin that blocks release of acetylcholine at spinal synapses refers to?

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Clostridium botulinum, which can cause flaccid paralysis.
A superantigen that binds to MHC II protein and T lymphocyte receptors refers to Staphylococcus aureus, which can cause toxic shock.

17
Q

This young patient’s clinical presentation and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis are consistent with a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. The most common cause of bacterial meningitis in children between 3 months and 10 years of age is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which shows up as gram-positive diplococci on Gram stain (shown here). In adolescents and young adults, meningitis caused by ?

A

Neisseria meningitidis is more common, but Streptococcus pneumoniae again becomes the most common agent in older adults.

18
Q

Neisseria meningitidis would be indicated by gram-negative diplococci. It is more common in adolescents and young adults, specifically between the ages of 10 and 24 years of age.
Haemophilus influenzae and Escherichia coli are gram-negative rods. H. influenzae is a less common cause of?

A

meningitis in children of this age group due to the Hib vaccine, and E. coli is a common culprit of meningitis in newborns.
Listeria species are gram-positive rods that are much more commonly seen in newborns (age 0–6 months) and the elderly.
Viral meningitis would result in a negative Gram stain.

The most likely agent for causing bacterial meningitis in children between 3 months and 10 years of age is Streptococcus pneumoniae, a gram-positive diplococcal organism. They often appear on Gram stain as lancet-shaped diplococci that grow in chains.

19
Q

This patient arrives with his sister complaining of new-onset seizures and decreased visual acuity, which is confirmed in his physical exam by a right homonymous hemianopia. These findings, along with his low CD4 count and enlarged lymph nodes, indicate that he may have toxoplasmosis, which results from?

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a Toxoplasma gondii infection. Toxoplasmosis occurs in patients with HIV whose CD4 count is <100 cells/μL. It most commonly manifests with encephalitis characterized by seizures and/or focal neurologic deficits. The classic picture on a CT scan or an MRI of the head is a ring-enhancing lesion with surrounding edema and mass effect (as shown in this MRI). The specific visual field defect in this patient is due to the cerebral lesions causing a focal neurologic deficit.

20
Q

New-onset seizures in an HIV-positive patient with a CD4 count <100 cells/µL is highly suggestive of toxoplasmosis. Other manifestations are chorioretinitis, which is characterized by eye pain and decreased visual acuity, as seen in this patient.

Another pathogen that causes similar symptoms is cytomegalovirus (CMV). CMV causes retinitis, rather than specific cuts of visual fields, and does not often cause new-onset seizures.

Aspergillus fumigatus typically causes ?

A

pneumonia but not ocular or neurologic symptoms.
Candida albicans infection manifests with esophageal and oropharyngeal symptoms in immunocompromised patients, with disseminated disease rare except in severe AIDS.
Neurocysticercosis infection can manifest similarly with new-onset seizures, but occurs more commonly outside of the United States, especially in people who have recently eaten raw or undercooked pork.

21
Q

Toxoplasmosis is a central nervous system infection of HIV patients (with CD4 <100 cells/μL) that leads to focal neurologic deficits and chorioretinitis. Toxoplasmosis has been reported as the most common opportunistic infection in HIV/AIDS in developed countries and is the most common cause of?

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focal brain lesions, coma, and death. It commonly causes encephalitis in HIV-infected patients.

22
Q

The patient presents with abdominal pain and swelling, and reports regular travel to Brazil where he bathed in the Amazon river.
Schistosomiasis is a parasitic blood fluke disease with hepatic involvement. Schistosoma mansoni (see image) cercariae are commonly found in fresh waters in tropical and subtropical areas of sub-Saharan Africa, the Middle East, South America, and the Caribbean.

Schistosoma mansoni penetrates the skin and invades the peripheral vasculature, eventually settling in the portal or pelvic venous vasculature. Patients may develop intestinal symptoms such as abdominal pain, poor appetite, and bloody diarrhea due to migration of parasites to the intestinal vasculature. Patients may also develop ?

A

more systemic signs of infection, such as fever. Parasite ova carried by portal blood to the liver provoke local fibrosis and granuloma formation. Therefore, during chronic infection, the presence of S. mansoni in the portal circulation may lead to cirrhosis and portal hypertension. Sequelae of portal hypertension, including hepatosplenomegaly, ascites, and esophageal varices, may also be observed. The abdominal distension seen in this patient may be due to ascites.

23
Q

CBC shows eosinophilia. Liver function test (LFT) show a mild increase in ALP and GGT but urinalysis was unremarkable. Although the liver injury in schistosomiasis is primarily due to portal obstruction, some hepatocellular injury does occur, and associated cholestasis may occur with modest increases in hepatic enzymes.

Microscopy of stool and urine can be used to aid in the diagnosis. X-ray of the abdomen would show “fetal head” calcification. Sonography can detect thickened fibrosed portal tracts. Liver biopsy may also demonstrate granuloma and periportal fibrosis (also called Symmer pipestem fibrosis). The drug of choice is praziquantel.

The patient’s unremarkable urinalysis makes?

A

nephrotic syndrome an unlikely cause of the abdominal distention. The presence of bowel sounds and lack of changes in bowel habits, makes bowel obstruction and enterocolitis less likely; and neither is usually associated with ascites, nor with a course of illness measured in months. A ruptured viscus would present with an acute abdomen (ie, rebound tenderness and guarding) – but this patient’s abdominal examination is relatively benign.

24
Q

Schistosoma mansoni, a parasite that lives in freshwater in many parts of the world, can cause portal hypertension by invading the venous vasculature of the liver. Treatment is a single oral dose of?

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praziquantel.

25
Q

This patient is experiencing right upper quadrant pain that is likely caused by the liver mass found on ultrasound. He also has a low-grade fever and elevated percentage of eosinophils on differential. His history is important. What would exposure to sheep have to do with his condition?
Sheep are an intermediate host for the tapeworm Echinococcus granulosus. Once a human becomes infected, the eggs of E granulosus are carried via the portal circulation from the intestinal tract to the liver, where they can cause?

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walled-off cystic lesions known as hydatid cysts.

On ultrasound, hydatid cysts of the liver are typically hypoechoic and often show “eggshell calcifications” at the rim. These cysts can become quite large (see axial CT image), and their rupture can cause anaphylaxis.

26
Q

Thus chemotherapy has widely replaced surgical excision as the first-line treatment for these cysts. Albendazole can be used on its own for single-compartment cysts <5 cm or in combination with puncture, aspiration, injection, and reaspiration (PAIR) for single-compartment cysts > 5 cm. Multicompartment cysts can be treated with catheterization or with surgery combined with medical therapy.

Aerobic gram-negative bacteria, such as Pseudomonas species, and nonmotile gram-negative bacteria, such as Shigella, may be associated with?

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liver abscesses in suitable hosts but typically arise acutely, are associated with significant systemic symptoms, and are not associated with eosinophilia. Amebae, such as Entamoeba histolytica, are on the differential for hepatic abscesses in immigrants from an endemic area; however, patients with an amebic liver abscess usually present more acutely. Infection with flagellates, such as Giardia and Trichomonas species, manifests with diarrhea or dysuria and genital discharge, which are symptoms that this patient does not have.

27
Q

In a patient presenting with right upper quadrant pain, a liver mass, and eosinophilia, the most likely diagnosis is a hydatid cyst caused by Echinococcus granulosus. Ultrasound of the liver typically shows a hypoechoic lesion. Patients at risk for infection typically live in endemic areas and have been exposed to?

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sheep, which are the hosts in the life cycle of the tapeworm.

28
Q

This patient presents with raised segments of skin that do not tan appropriately. The KOH preparation reveals spores with short mycelia. Together these findings suggest?

A
tinea versicolor (also called pityriasis versicolor). 
Tinea versicolor is caused by Malassezia furfur infection. Symptoms include hypopigmented skin lesions that occur in hot and humid conditions. A KOH test will demonstrate the characteristic spores with short mycelia referred to as the "spaghetti and meatballs" sign of tinea versicolor. M. furfur is treated with topical miconazole or selenium sulfide, and empiric therapy is usually attempted before a formal work-up is performed.
29
Q

Pityriasis rosea begins with a herald patch, followed by a pruritic rash in a “Christmas tree” distribution.
Tinea cruris is another name for jock itch, which is caused by ?.

A

Epidermophyton floccosum and Trichophyton rubrum.

Tinea nigra is an infection of the stratum corneum with Hortaea werneckii.

Vitiligo is an autoimmune disease directed at melanocytes, causing patches of extreme discoloration

30
Q

This patient presents with bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and mild fever following exposure to presumably undercooked meat. These symptoms are suggestive of infection with Escherichia coli O157:H7, shown in this micrograph. This bacteria is an enterohemorrhagic strain that has acquired Shiga toxin and is often ingested via undercooked hamburger. The stool smear often indicates an infection and the presence of a gram-negative oxidase-negative bacteria.
The findings of an infection with gram-negative oxidase-negative bacteria, combined with the history of hamburger ingestion and bloody diarrhea, make?

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E. coli O157:H7 a likely cause. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome is a life-threatening condition associated with infection with this organism. It is characterized by anemia, thrombocytopenia, and elevated creatinine, indicating renal failure (often manifested by uremia).

Migratory polyarthritis can be caused by infectious organisms (bacteria, virus) or via an immunologic response like that in rheumatic fever. New murmur and splinter hemorrhages suggest infective endocarditis. Petechial rash combined with adrenal gland hemorrhage is caused by Neisseria meningitidis. Ascending muscle weakness and hyporeflexia can be caused by Guillain-Barré syndrome.