0% Micro USMLE 8-30(21) (qmax 8/29 incorrect qs) Flashcards

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1
Q

For an HIV-infected patient, findings of fever, headache, altered mental status, vision changes, and an elevated opening pressure on lumbar puncture should raise concerns for an infectious intracranial process. In a patient who is noncompliant with medications and has had exposure to pigeon droppings (based on her gardening in a park), the primary concern is Cryptococcus neoformans meningoencephalitis. C. neoformans meningoencephalitis is acquired by inhaling dust from soil contaminated with bird droppings, particularly those of pigeons. This is an AIDS-defining illness, because it generally does not occur until the CD4+ cell count is <50. Under the microscope, Cryptococcus appears as ?

A

a heavily encapsulated nondimorphic yeast with narrow-based budding on India ink stain

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2
Q

Broad-based budding yeast refers to Blastomyces. Blastomyces is found in wooded areas east of the Mississippi River.
Budding yeast with pseudohyphae refers to?

A

Candida albicans, which can cause thrush, vulvovaginitis, and numerous other mucocutaneous infections.
Mold with hyphae that branch at 45-degree angles refers to Aspergillus fumigatus, which more commonly infects individuals with underlying pulmonary disease or those working in construction (due to inhalation exposure).
Small intracellular yeast refers to Histoplasma, a fungus found in the Mississippi and Ohio River valleys.

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3
Q

In a patient with HIV infection, neurologic symptoms, and an increased opening pressure on lumbar puncture suggest meningoencephalitis due to infection with Cryptococcus neoformans. Cryptococcus is an ?

A

encapsulated yeast with narrow-based budding, and cryotococcosis is an AIDS-defining illness.

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4
Q

This patient has the classic presentation for diphtheria, a grayish white pseudomembrane on the pharynx or tonsils (see image). Other symptoms of diphtheria, which is caused by the gram-positive rod Corynebacterium diphtheriae, include sore throat, malaise, and cervical lymphadenopathy. Fever is usually mild or absent. The pseudomembrane associated with this infection should not be disrupted to prevent increased absorption of the lethal exotoxin produced by this organism.
Diphtheria is rarely observed in vaccinated populations but is endemic to certain parts of the world. Moreover, cases may be seen in any?

A

developing country. Löffler medium and tellurite agar can be used in conjunction for culture and subsequent diagnosis of C. diptheriae infection

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5
Q

A patient with pharyngitis and a pseudomembrane on the pharynx is likely infected with C. diphtheriae, which is best cultured on a ?

A

Löffler medium in combination with tellurite agar. Other symptoms of infection include a sore throat, cervical lymphadenopathy, and low-grade fever.

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6
Q

This patient presents with nausea, abdominal cramping, bloating, and watery diarrhea. Although a number of bacterial and viral infections can manifest with such symptoms, the patient’s recent camping trip suggests that he has been infected with Giardia lamblia. Colonization of the gut by Giardia trophozoites results in?

A

small bowel inflammation and villous atrophy, which reduces absorptive capability. The image of the duodenal aspirate reveals a pear-shaped trophozoite.

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7
Q

Giardia trophozoites can lead to small bowel inflammation and villous atrophy, resulting in ?

A

reduced absorptive capability and malabsorption. Giardia infection is diagnosed by duodenal aspiration.

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8
Q

This pregnant woman presents with jaundice and complains of nausea, vomiting, fever, and abdominal pain. These symptoms and the patient’s recent travel to rural India indicate that hepatitis E virus (HEV) is the most likely cause of this patient’s disease. Hepatitis A virus (HAV), however, may also be a possibility. Both are ?

A

single-stranded linear RNA viruses transmitted via the fecal-oral route that are endemic in developing countries.
Most cases of sporadic acute viral hepatitis E are self-limiting and not associated with chronic liver disease or persistent viremia. Yet hepatitis E is notable for its predilection to cause fulminant hepatic failure in pregnant patients. One of the characteristic features of the infection is the high mortality rate among pregnant women, which approaches 20%.

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9
Q

The concern for this 2-month-old infant is meningitis, which can be caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi. The classic symptom triad is fever, headache, and nuchal rigidity. In an infant with an open fontanelle, there will be no nuchal rigidity, but the open fontanelle will appear to bulge. Other symptoms such as rash and photophobia are also commonly present. Inference from the history, such as severe crying in a normally quiet baby, may indicate headache or muscle stiffness.
A lumbar puncture and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis is essential in determining the cause. Classic CSF findings for bacterial meningitis are elevated opening pressure, elevated levels of polymorphonuclear leukocytes, elevated protein levels, and decreased glucose levels, as seen in this patient. In newborns age 0–6 months old, the three most common causes of meningitis are all bacterial and include?

A

group B Streptococci, Escherichia coli, and Listeria monocytogenes. Culture and microbiology analysis can differentiate among these species.

In newborns and babies, the meningitis symptoms of fever, headache, and neck stiffness may be absent or difficult to notice. However, the mortality rate for untreated meningitis is high, and patients can quickly deteriorate. Therefore, empiric treatment should be initiated prior to obtaining the results of CSF analysis.

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10
Q

Group B streptococci, E. coli, and Listeria monocytogenes are the most common causes of ?

A

meningitis in children 0–6 months old. In newborns and babies, the meningitis symptoms of fever, headache, and neck stiffness may be absent or difficult to notice. Definitive diagnosis can be made based on CSF analysis, with meningeal inflammation demonstrated by increased WBC count, elevated protein level, and low glucose level in the CSF.

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11
Q

A transplant patient presents with a fever, decreased SpO2, shortness of breath, non-productive cough, nausea, vomiting, and tachypnea. Because of these symptoms and her transplant history, she should be suspected of having?

A

cytomegalovirus (CMV) pneumonitis, which is a common complication in immunocompromised patients after receiving a lung transplant, solid organ transplant or a bone marrow transplantation and occurs typically 1-4 months post-transplant.

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12
Q

Radiographic manifestations of CMV pneumonia are most commonly seen as bilateral, symmetrical, peribronchovascular, and alveolar processes occurring predominantly in the lower lobes, as in this patient. However, it can cause a focal consolidation or a solitary pulmonary nodule, but this is more suggestive of a bacterial or fungal infection. Histopathology shows large cells with intranuclear basophilic inclusions (?owl’s eyes?—see black arrow in image below) and are pathognomonic of CMV infection. CMV is an enveloped, double stranded linear DNA virus that is ?

A

latent in mononuclear cells. This patient’s history as well as radiographic and histologic findings make CMV the most likely causative organism.

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13
Q

Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is an enveloped double stranded linear DNA virus that is ?

A

latent in mononuclear cells. It is seen histologically as large cells with intranuclear inclusions (“owl′s eyes”) and is a common cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised patients, especially those 1-4 months post-transplant.

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14
Q

This patient is admitted to the hospital in status asthmaticus, and mechanical ventilation is initiated after he experiences acute respiratory failure. After 96 hours, the patient requires additional ventilatory support. He has also developed a fever and tracheobronchial secretions. X-ray of the chest reveals a right lower lobe infiltrate. This patient likely has ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP), a common complication among patients requiring ventilation. Sedative medications required during intubation depress the native ciliary elevator function of natural respiration, leading to VAP. Symptoms include fever or hypothermia, new purulent sputum, or a change in respiratory support requirements. In order for VAP to be diagnosed, a patient must have been receiving mechanical ventilation for at least 48 hours. Both chronic lung disease and convalescence in the intensive care unit are risk factors for VAP. It is often caused by?

A

the gram-negative bacillus Pseudomonas aeruginosa. For this reason, empiric antibiotic therapy for VAP, such as piperacillin-tazobactam, must be prescribed to cover Pseudomonas.

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15
Q

Sedative medications required for intubation can cause depression of native ciliary elevator function of natural respiration. This increases a patient’s susceptibility to certain respiratory pathogens and can lead to ?

A

VAP. P. aeruginosa is the organism most commonly associated with VAP.

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16
Q

This patient presents with raised segments of skin that do not tan appropriately. The KOH preparation reveals spores with short mycelia. Together these findings suggest ?

A

tinea versicolor (also called pityriasis versicolor). This skin rash appearing on a similar patient is shown in the image below.

Tinea versicolor is caused by Malassezia furfur infection. Symptoms include hypopigmented skin lesions that occur in hot and humid conditions. A KOH test will demonstrate the characteristic spores with short mycelia referred to as the “spaghetti and meatballs” sign of tinea versicolor. M. furfur is treated with topical miconazole or selenium sulfide, and empiric therapy is usually attempted before a formal work-up is performed.

17
Q

Pityriasis rosea begins with a herald patch, followed by a pruritic rash in a “Christmas tree” distribution.
Tinea cruris is another name for jock itch, which is caused by Epidermophyton floccosum and Trichophyton rubrum.

Tinea nigra is an infection of ?

A

the stratum corneum with Hortaea werneckii.

Vitiligo is an autoimmune disease directed at melanocytes, causing patches of extreme discoloration.

18
Q

Malassezia furfur causes ?

A

tinea versicolor, also called pityriasis versicolor. KOH preparation shows “spaghetti and meatballs” mycelia.

19
Q

This patient presents with urethritis and a purulent discharge, symptoms that are characteristic of infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae in a man. A Gram stain showing gram-negative diplococci within neutrophils (pictured above) is sufficient for a diagnosis of gonorrhea in male patients. The same is not true for the presence of gram-negative organism in a female sample because non-pathogenic (commensal) Neisseria comprise part of the normal vaginal flora and would be present absent a gonococcal infection.
N. gonorrhoeae have ?

A

specialized antigenically variable pili that mediate its attachment to mucosal surfaces. These surface-associated pili vary continually so that an effective immune response cannot be mounted. This is the reason why individuals can be repeatedly infected.

20
Q

The ability to metabolize urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide is characteristic of Ureaplasma urealyticum, which causes nongonococcal urethritis. A life cycle involving an extracellular infectious form and intracellular replicative form is specific for ?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis. Treponema pallidum, which causes syphilis, has a helical shape with two cell membranes and flagella trapped between these two membranes (endoflagella). Neisseria meningitidis causes meningitis and has a polysaccharide capsule with the ability to ferment maltose.

21
Q

Urethritis and a purulent urethral discharge point toward an infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae, a gram-negative diplococcus with ?

A

antigenically variable pili that mediate its virulence in the human host. There is a high incidence of comorbid gonococcal and chlamydial infections.

22
Q

The patient is presenting with several painless, purple plaques on his upper back. He is homeless, has a history of IV drug use, and is showing signs of being immunocompromised due to two recent episodes of pneumonia and oral thrush seen on physical exam. These facts should raise the suspicion for AIDS.
A biopsy of one of the lesions is performed and results show spindle-shaped tumor cells. In the context of a possible HIV infection, this is diagnostic for Kaposi sarcoma, a neoplasm of endothelial cells. Kaposi sarcoma classically appears as?

A

purple plaques or nodules. Human herpesvirus 8, also known as Kaposi sarcoma-associated herpesvirus, is the oncogenic virus that infects endothelial and spindle cells, giving rise to purple lesions, as seen on the patient. Kaposi sarcoma is a considered an AIDS-defining illness.

23
Q

Although all of these infections could be present in patient with AIDS, the clinical signs and symptoms would be very different. Hepatitis C virus (HCV) can be transmitted through IV drug use and is associated with?

A

hepatocellular carcinoma. Porphyria cutaneous tarda is seens in some patients with HCV, but the blistering lesions of PCT are painful, not purple and painless as in this patient.

24
Q

Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is common in patients with HIV, but is not associated with Kaposi sarcoma. HPV type 16 and type 18 are associated with cervical, anal, and penile carcinoma. Human T-cell lymphoma virus type 1 (HTLV1) is associated with?

A

adult T-cell leukemia. HTLV1 can cause cutaneous skin lesions, but a biopsy would not show spindle-shaped tumor cells characteristic of Kaposi sarcoma.

25
Q

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is associated with ?

A

Burkitt lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, and hairy leukoplakia.

26
Q

Kaposi sarcoma (with its spindle-shaped tumor cells) is due to ?

A

human herpesvirus 8 and is found commonly in AIDS patients.

27
Q

This baby born to a mother who did not receive prenatal care presents with erythematous conjunctiva, swollen lids, and purulent ocular discharge, consistent with acute bacterial conjunctivitis. Given the time of presentation at 13 days of life, the likely cause is infection with ?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis (serotypes D through K), which is the most common sexually transmitted disease in the United States. In addition to conjunctivitis, Chlamydia trachomatis may cause pneumonia.

28
Q

All neonates born in the U.S. are given prophylactic erythromycin eye drops to decrease the risk of gonococcal conjunctivitis, but this practice does not effectively prevent chlamydial conjunctivitis. Aggressive therapy with topical and oral erythromycin is warranted in neonates with inclusion conjunctivitis, both to treat the conjunctivitis and to prevent the development of neonatal pneumonia as a result of descending infection. (Ocular infections may spread from the eyes to the nasopharynx via the nasolacrimal duct and downward to the lungs.) Infants with chlamydia pneumonia develop ?

A

cough, respiratory distress, and pneumonia between 4 and 11 weeks of life. A CBC may show eosinophilia (this is a commonly tested point on the Step 1 exam). The image shown above displays eukaryotic cells infected with C. trachomatis, in which the diffuse inclusion body in the center of the cell pushes the nucleus to the cell’s periphery.

29
Q

Gastroenteritis tends to be uncommon in neonates, and bacterial gastroenteritis is exceedingly uncommon in this age group. Meningitis is caused by several neonatal pathogens and infants of mothers without prenatal care are at higher risk, but Chlamydia trachomatis does not cause meningitis. Chorioretinitis is associated with ?

A

congenital toxoplasmosis. Urethritis is uncommon in neonates, although urinary tract infection (cystitis, pyelonephritis) is a common cause of fever of unknown origin in pediatrics, but Chlamydia trachomatis is not a typical pathogen. Fever may be an unreliable sign of infection in neonates; but if present is associated with a high risk of severe bacterial infection.

30
Q

Neonatal chlamydial infection (serotypes D through K) produces inclusion conjunctivitis 5–14 days after birth. Another complication of neonatal chlamydial infection is?

A

pneumonia, which occurs between 4 and 11 weeks after birth.