Micro USMLE 8-26(7) Flashcards

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1
Q

This patient presents with symptoms of rhinorrhea, headache, sneezing, sore throat, and postnasal drip, all of which are consistent with an?

A

upper respiratory infection (URI). Rhinovirus is the most frequent cause of the common cold in otherwise healthy individuals, responsible for about 50% of all viral URIs annually. Rhinovirus is a non-enveloped, positive-sense, single-stranded linear RNA virus classified in the Picornaviridae family.

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2
Q

Adenovirus manifests with exudative tonsillitis, cervical adenopathy, and conjunctivitis. Coronavirus is the second most common cause of the common cold. It can also cause otitis media. Individuals with coronavirus present similarly to this patient. Orthomyxovirus causes ?

A

the flu, not a URI. Parainfluenza virus causes pneumonia, bronchitis or croup (in children) and manifests with more severe symptoms including fever.

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3
Q

Rhinovirus, a single-stranded linear RNA virus of the family Picornaviridae, is the most common cause of upper respiratory infections in adults. Coronaviruses are ?

A

the second most common cause of URI in adults and should also be considered, particularly if the patient reports a second URI of the season.

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4
Q

This pediatric patient, who was treated for a sore throat 10 days before presentation, has red-tinged urine and edema. In combination with findings of decreased complement, hematuria, and proteinuria on urinalysis, his symptoms point to a diagnosis of?

A

poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis

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5
Q

Post infectious glomerulonephritis presents between 1 and 3 weeks after a streptococcal infection (skin or throat) with a nephritic syndrome. A type III hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by ?

A

antigen-antibody complexes that lead to complement activation. Glomerulonephritis streptococcal infection Throat Nephritic syndrome Reaction Type III hypersensitivity

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6
Q

A delayed allergic reaction to penicillin usually manifests with a maculopapular or morbilliform rash 72 hours after exposure to the drug and can therefore be ruled out as the cause of this child’s symptoms. Other hypersensitivity reactions may also be eliminated as the etiology.
A type 1 hypersensitivity reaction is IgE mediated and manifests with different signs and symptoms including ?

A

rhinoconjunctivitis and anaphylaxis.

A type II hypersensitivity reaction is antibody mediated as IgG binds to an antigen on the surface of target cells. A type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by helper T cells and macrophages and does not involve antibodies.

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7
Q

A 5-month-old girl with respiratory distress (cough, wheezing, subcostal retraction) and a viral prodrome (fever, cough, runny nose), most likely has bronchiolitis. This lung infection is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), a single-stranded negative-sense RNA virus that is a member of the family Paramyxoviridae. Transmission is through close contact with an infected individual and typically occurs during the fall and winter. Bronchiolitis is usually self-limiting. In RSV infection, the viral surface contains two characteristic proteins. G protein enables viral attachment to the respiratory epithelium. F protein enables fusion to the respiratory epithelium and causes?

A

membranes of nearby cells to merge, forming the characteristic syncytia observed on histopathology. Although RSV infection can be diagnosed by direct immunofluorescence of the viral antigen, this test is rarely performed.

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8
Q

The pathogenesis of Bordetella pertussis involves an exotoxin that inactivates Gi to increase cAMP. The mechanism of allergic rhinitis involves IgE-mediated mast cell and basophil degranulation. The pathogenicity of Haemophilus influenzae is partly due to its ?

A

polyribosylribitol capsule that inhibits phagocytosis and can result in epiglottitis. Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections can induce the generation of oxygen free radicals, which contributes to epithelial necrosis within the lungs and the pathogenesis of bronchiolitis in children.

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9
Q

The most common cause of bronchiolitis in infants and young children ≤5 years of age is RSV, a member of the family Paramyxoviridae, that causes inflammation of the small airways. Its pathogenesis involves the surface protein F, which causes?

A

nearby cells to merge and induces the characteristic syncytial appearance in pathology. Clinically, the patient may present with rhinorrhea, cough, fever, and decreased appetite.

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10
Q

This patient presents with recurrent oral ulcers localized on the lips, and a biopsy of the lesion shows multinucleated giant cells (see circles on image). These findings suggest an infection with?

A

herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) that is causing herpes labialis, or ?cold sores? on the lips. A key finding here is the presence of multinucleated giant cells and intranuclear inclusions, which are characteristic (but not specific) for HSV.
HSV-1 infection can cause a number of other syndromes when an individual is infected for the first time, or upon reactivation of the latent virus. Of the answer options, only keratoconjunctivitis is correct

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11
Q

Impetigo is a localized bacterial infection of the superficial skin that manifests with honey-colored, crusted skin lesions, not painful vesicles as the patient presented is experiencing.
Macular rash may be caused by herpesvirus HHV-6 and HHV-7, associated with roseola infantum. These specific herpesvirus are not known to lead to lip ulcers.
Infectious mononucleosis is associated with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection, while a mononucleosis-like infection can occur with cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection in adults. Although EBV and CMV are herpesviruses, they do not cause recurrent ulcers on the lips.
Oral thrush is a sign of infection with?

A

fungal Candida species. Symptoms can include painful fissures on the corners of the mouth, but not recurrent ulcers on the lips.
Shingles is caused by a reactivation of varicella zoster virus (VZV) which is also a herpesvirus. VZV can show intranuclear inclusions on pathology but does not cause ulcers on the li

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12
Q

Infection with herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) may cause herpes labialis (cold sores), which are recurrent ulcers localized on the lips. HSV-1 infection can also manifest as?

A

keratoconjunctivitis, temporal lobe encephalitis, or gingivostomatitis. Biopsy of an HSV lesion shows characteristic multinucleated giant cells and intranuclear inclusions.
Type 1ColdUlcerLips

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13
Q

This patient presents with myalgia, fever, chills, and headache, followed by development of a dry cough and pulmonary edema. He had recently visited rural Colorado to clean out a cabin. This patient most likely has a ?

A

hantavirus infection.

Hantavirus is a genus in the Bunyaviridae family that causes the hantavirus pulmonary syndrome, which starts with fevers, headaches, severe myalgias, gastrointestinal upset, dizziness, and chills. Patients initially have no respiratory symptoms. As the disease progresses, however, the virus causes capillary leak syndrome in the lungs, resulting in pulmonary edema.

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14
Q

Plasmodium falciparum is the protozoan responsible for malaria. Patients present with paroxysms of fever, shaking chills, and sweating. Pulmonary edema may be present, but malaria is unlikely in the United States, since malaria eradication programs succeeded by 1951. The other viruses do not present with bilateral pulmonary edema. Alphavirus is responsible for?

A

viral encephalitis, which presents with a sudden onset of headache, high fever, chills, and vomiting, which may progress to disorientation, seizures, or coma. Patients infected with a flavivirus will typically present with acute fever, gastrointestinal symptoms, and headache. Infection with West Nile virus presents with signs of encephalitis, gastrointestinal distress, and fever.

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15
Q

Hantavirus is contracted through exposure to deer mouse droppings or urine. Hantavirus causes hantavirus pulmonary syndrome, which starts with fevers, headaches, severe myalgias, gastrointestinal upset, and dizziness. As the disease progresses, the virus causes capillary leak syndrome in the lungs resulting in?

A

pulmonary edema.

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16
Q

This patient presents with the classic triad of rickettsial illness (headache, fever, and rash) caused in this case by the gram-negative organism Rickettsia prowazekii (epidemic typhus). The rash of typhus differs from that of Rocky Mountain spotted fever because it starts on the trunk and moves outward, rather than starting on the extremities and moving inward. Nevertheless, the treatment of choice for all rickettsial illnesses is ?

A

doxycycline. Though immunoflourescence antibody testing is preferred for diagnosis, Weil-Felix reactions are also positive in rickettsial diseases, and so can be used to help differentiate them from other tick-borne diseases. The Weil-Felix reaction is a nonspecific agglutination test that detects antirickettsial antibodies in a patient’s serum.

17
Q

The rash of Rickettsia prowazekii, or epidemic typhus, characteristically begins centrally and spreads out; it is best treated with?

A

tetracyclines.

18
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid findings in fungal meningitis and encephalitis include high opening pressure, increased WBCs with lymphocytic/monocytic predominance, high protein, and low glucose. Stiff neck, photophobia, and vomiting are only seen in about one-fourth of patients; immunocompromised patients do not tend to present with classic symptoms. India ink staining showing encapsulated yeast is suggestive of ?

A

Cryptococcus (shown in the image with mucicarmine stain). It is typically never used alone due to resistance. Amphotericin B should be started as induction therapy along with flucytosine. If there is clinical improvement, these can be discontinued and fluconazole can be initiated and continued for 8 weeks. Flucytosine works by blocking fungal precursors from converting into pyrimidines.

19
Q

Cryptococcus is an opportunistic infection that stains with India ink. It is treated with?

A

amphotericin B and flucytosine.

20
Q

Empiric treatment for herpes simplex virus-1 infection with acyclovir, which halts viral replication, should be initiated as soon as meningitis/encephalitis is suspected without an obvious etiology because it is associated with a significant decrease in morbidity and mortality.
AcyclovirSoonMeningitisEncephalitisEtiologyDiseaseHerpes simplexViral replication
[ B ] [ 12% ]
Empiric coverage of bacterial meningitis consists of vancomycin and a third-generation cephalosporin, such as ceftriaxone. Given the appearance of the India ink-stained slide, it is unlikely that the patient’s illness is being caused by bacteria. As a third-generation cephalosporin, it has broad activity against gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. It is the treatment of choice for Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
VancomycinCephalosporinCeftriaxoneIndiaBacteriaGram-positive bacteriaBacterial meningitisGram-negative bacteria
[ D ] [ 11% ]
Nystatin is chemically similar to amphotericin B; however, it is used only for ?

A

topical infections such as oral thrush because it has systemic toxicity. Its mechanism of action involves binding to ergosterol to disrupt fungal membranes. It can also be used topically for diaper rash or vaginal candidiasis.
NystatinAmphotericin BToxicityBindingErgosterolFungusMembraneCandidiasisThrush, oralDiaper rash (disorder)
[ F ] [ 3% ]
Vidarabine is used for treatment of varicella zoster virus in HIV patients, decreasing lesion formation and severity of disease. Adverse effects can be severe, and include leukopenia and thrombocytopenia.
VidarabineHIVAdverse effectLeukopeniaThrombocyt

21
Q

Ribavirin is used in chronic hepatitis C and respiratory syncytial virus. It is not used in HIV patients with Cryptococcus. It works by inhibiting synthesis of guanine nucleotides. This medication is a teratogen; thus women of child-bearing age must be on two forms of birth control while they are taking this medication. Additionally, this medication can cause?

A

severe hemolytic anemia, so patients must be monitored closely for changes in blood cell values.

22
Q

This patient presents with many symptoms of a viral upper respiratory infection (rhinitis, sore throat, cough) and the finding of conjunctival infection or “pink eye.” He is also one of many children in his class to have such symptoms.

He likely has an ?

A

adenovirus infection, which is a major cause of epidemic keratoconjunctivitis (pink eye). It is the fourth most common cause of childhood respiratory tract infections after respiratory syncytial virus, parainfluenza, and rhinovirus. It is a naked, icosahedral, double-stranded linear DNA virus that results in a self-limited illness that requires no treatment.

23
Q
Although rhinovirus (a cause of the “common cold”) would cause many of the symptoms the child is experiencing, it is less likely to cause the pink eye seen in this patient.
Coxsackie A virus also causes cold symptoms, but would likely manifest with a component of rash, which this patient does not have. The virus can also cause ?
A

herpangina and hand, foot, and mouth (HFM) disease. Aside from fever, the patient does not present with the symptoms that children with HFM generally have, such as vesicles on the buccal mucosa and tongue, along with peripherally distributed cutaneous lesions on hands, feet, and buttocks.

24
Q

Cytomegalovirus (CMV) usually causes an asymptomatic infection in immunocompetent patients, such as this patient. It can reactivate in the immunocompromised and can manifest with symptoms resembling mononucleosis, with prolonged fevers, and, in less than a third of cases, dermatologic manifestations such as a rash.
Bordetella pertussis causes?

A

“whooping cough” and we can assume that this patient is up to date on his vaccinations, which would include vaccination against B. pertussis, and therefore is at low risk of infection. Also keep the clinical course of B. pertussis infection in mind. It is divided into three stages: catarrhal (1–2 weeks of a “cold-like” illness), paroxysmal (2–8 weeks of intense coughing spells), and convalescent (diminishment of cough over several months). The patient’s symptoms resolved after 1 week.

25
Q

Adenovirus is a double-stranded, linear DNA virus that causes a ?

A

highly contagious, self-limited keratoconjunctivitis.

26
Q

This patient’s fever in the setting of peritoneal dialysis with erythema around the catheter site suggests an infection likely involving bacteria normally present on the skin. Staphylococcus epidermidis (S. epidermidis) and other coagulase-negative staphylococci are part of the normal human skin flora and can cause systemic infection through entry sites into the body such as Foley urinary catheters, intravenous lines, prosthetic devices, and peritoneal dialysis catheters. S. epidermidis can migrate along the tubing with the help of biofilm creation. Fevers, chills, diffuse abdominal tenderness, and rebound tenderness all suggest a diagnosis of?

A

peritonitis, infection / inflammation of the peritoneal cavity, which can be caused by many bacteria, including S. epidermidis. This pathogen is also a common cause of endocarditis in patients with prosthetic valves and of intravenous line-associated infections. S. epidermidis is a

gram-positive, coagulase-negative coccus.

27
Q

The gram negative bacteria and acid fast bacilli described in the other answer choices rarely cause catheter-related infections as they are not typical skin microbes and are less common causes of device-associated infections than the coagulase-negative staphylococci. Bacteroides fragilis, a gram-negative, obligate anaerobic bacilli, is a normal member of the gastrointestinal flora and can cause peritoneal infections when the integrity of the bowel is compromised; it is rarely associated with catheter-associated peritonitis. Proteus mirabilis, a gram-negative, non-lactose fermenting, urease-positive bacilli, can cause ?

A

UTIs, as well as bacterial peritonitis. Klebsiella pneumoniae, a gram-negative, lactose-fermenting, urease-positive bacilli, is implicated in aspiration pneumonia and many other infections, including peritoneal infections, when the integrity of the bowel is compromised. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a gram-positive, acid-fast bacillus that is associated with pulmonary infection, though bovine tuberculosis associated with infected milk can present as a subacute peritonitis.

28
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis (and other coagulase-negative staphylococci) is a part of normal skin flora and can cause infections, including peritonitis, in the setting of indwelling prosthetic devices or catheters. It is the most common cause of ?

A

dialysis-associated peritonitis, with Staphylococcus aureus being the second most commonly implicated pathogen.
MicrobiotaPeritonitis

29
Q

A child who suffers from an immunosuppressive disease caused by deficiency in adenosine deaminase is brought to the pediatrician for his vaccinations.
This patient should be given only which of the following vaccines?

A

The Salk polio vaccine is a killed vaccine, meaning that it induces humoral immunity only, and it does not have the ability to replicate. Live attenuated vaccines induce both humoral and cell-mediated immunity, but are more dangerous for immunosuppressed patients because they can cause illness. The other vaccine for polio is the Sabin vaccine, which is given orally and is a live-attenuated vaccine.

30
Q

Measles is a live attenuated vaccine and is therefore contraindicated in the immunosuppressed. Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccination is contraindicated in patients with symptoms of immunodeficiency, including both congenital (as in this patient) and acquired (eg, AIDS) forms. However, MMR is not contraindicated in HIV-positive individuals who do not show symptoms of immunodeficiency. This condition occurs in the early stages of infections when CD4+ T-cell count is still high.

Rubella is a live attenuated vaccine and is therefore contraindicated in ?

A

the immunosuppressed. Note that measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccination is not contraindicated in HIV-positive patients who do not show symptoms of immunodeficiency (eg, low CD4+ T-cell count).

Varicella is a live attenuated vaccine and is therefore contraindicated in the immunosuppressed.

Mumps is a live attenuated vaccine and is therefore contraindicated in the immunosuppressed. Note that measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccination is not contraindicated in HIV-positive patients who do not show symptoms of immunodeficiency (eg, low CD4+ T-cell count).