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General Microbiology > micro test 4 > Flashcards

micro test 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

the attachment of the virion to the host cell

A

adsorption

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2
Q

injection of DNA/RNA into the cell

A

penetration

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3
Q

uses the cell’s machinery, transcription and translation of viral proteins

A

synthesis of nucleic acid and protein

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4
Q

capsids self assemble

A

assembly and packaging

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5
Q

enzymes lyse host cell

A

release/lysis

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6
Q

does penetration happen in animal viruses

A

no

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7
Q

what kind of growth curve do viruses have

A

one step

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8
Q

specificity of viruses for particular hosts is mediated by —

A

receptors in the host cell surface

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9
Q

what is the eclipse in the one step growth curve

A

no infectious virions present in the cell (only viruses)

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10
Q

what events occur during the latent period of viral replication

A

eclipse and maturation

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11
Q

virus DNA may be restricted by host –

A

endonucleases

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12
Q

host endonucleases only affect what kind of viruses

A

dsDNA

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13
Q

can viruses modify host DNA

A

yes

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14
Q

how do restriction enzymes recognize self DNA

A

methylation of certain bases

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15
Q

what do restriction endonucleases do to DNA recognized as foreign

A

cleave

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16
Q

– recognize specific sequences of DNA and cleave it

A

Restriction endonucleases

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17
Q

— modify the DNA at the recognition sequences, preventing endonucleases from actting

A

methylases

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18
Q

class I virus

A

dsDNA

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19
Q

class II virus

A

ssDNA

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20
Q

class III virus

A

dsRNA

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21
Q

class IV virus

A

ssRNA, plus sense

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22
Q

class V virus

A

ssRNA, minus sense

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23
Q

class VI virus

A

ssRNA, DNA intermediate

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24
Q

class VII virus

A

dsDNA, ssRNA intermediate

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25
Q

what does plus sense mean

A

RNA can be read by a translational apparatus in the cell

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26
Q

what does minus sense mean

A

RNA that is complementary to the translation-able RNA

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27
Q

what do class VI and class VII viruses both use

A

reverse transcriptase

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28
Q

class I viruses have what type of replication

A

classical semiconservative

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29
Q

class II viruses have what type of replication

A

classical semiconservative, discard - strand

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30
Q

class VII viruses have what type of replication

A

transcription followed by reverse transcription

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31
Q

class III viruses have what type of replication

A

classical semiconservative of RNA (not DNA)

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32
Q

class IV viruses have what type of replication

A

make ssRNA (-) and transcribe to make ssRNA (+) genome

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33
Q

class V viruses have what type of replication

A

make ssRNA (+) and transcribe to make ssRNA (-) genome

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34
Q

class VI viruses have what type of replication

A

make ssRNA (+) genome by transcription off of - strand of ds DNA, reverse transcription

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35
Q

class III, VII, I, and V viruses both need to – the – strand before becoming mRNA (+)

A

transcribe, minus

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36
Q

class – viruses can be used directly as mRNA

A

IV

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37
Q

class – viruses synthesize another strand before transcription into mRNA

A

II

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38
Q

DNA viruses (3)

A

I, II, VII

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39
Q

RNA viruses (4)

A

III, IV, V, VI

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40
Q

why must some types of virus contain enzymes in the virion in order for mRNA to be produced

A

because they need reverse transcriptase to make an intermediate

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41
Q

class VI viruses are also known as

A

retroviruses

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42
Q

what is the most common type of bacteriophage genome

A

dsDNA

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43
Q

what makes T4 bacteriophages resistant to most restriction endonucleases

A

glucosylation

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44
Q

circular permutation

A

entire replication of genome plus a little more (13 hours on a clock)

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45
Q

headfuls of cleaved viral genome have the same two starting and ending letters, –

A

repeated terminal sequences

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46
Q

– phage have alternate life cycles- lytic and lysogenic

A

temperate

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47
Q

temperate phage life cycle where they can replicate new virions

A

lytic cycle

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48
Q

temperate phage life cycle where they integrate within the host genome and replicate with the bacterium

A

lysogenic cycle

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49
Q

a lysogenized cell is called a

A

prophage

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50
Q

what happens after the lysogenic cycle

A

lytic cycle

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51
Q

what is the switch from lysogenic to lytic called

A

induction

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52
Q

the – protein causes repression of the lambda lytic events

A

cl (lambda repressor)

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53
Q

the – protein controls activation of lytic events

A

Cro

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54
Q

– destroys the cl lambda repressor resulting in Cro activation

A

RecA protease

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55
Q

what events need to happen for lambda to become a prophage

A

adsorption, penetration, injection of DNA, DNA cos sites connect to form a circular molecule, integrase is expressed

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56
Q

many animal viruses are —

A

enveloped

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57
Q

orthomyxovirus example

A

influenza

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58
Q

retrovirus example

A

HIV

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59
Q

herpesvirus example

A

varicella zoster (chicken pox)

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60
Q

hepadnavirus example

A

hep B

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61
Q

rhabdovirus example

A

rabies

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62
Q

animal virus infection where provirus is made or the virus can replicate autonomously outside of the genome of the host, tend not to kill the host; primary acute infection, virus harbored in nervous tissue, recurrent infection, recurrence with trauma or stress

A

latent infection

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63
Q

animal virus infection where the cell is always infected and virus particles are made and shed continuously, tend not to kill the host cell immediately

A

persistent infection

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64
Q

up regulated genes that push cell cycle forward, broken gas pedal

A

oncogenes

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65
Q

down regulated genes that don’t stop the cell cycle, broken brakes

A

tumor suppressor

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66
Q

Hemagglutinin and Neruaminidase are used to identify strains of

A

influenza

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67
Q

antigenic – - rearrangement of genome segments to produce different viruses

A

shift

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68
Q

antigenic – - minor antigenic changes due to genetic mutations

A

drift

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69
Q

small (~250-400 bp) circular ssRNA particles known to infect plants, naked nucleic acid with no protein encoding regions

A

viroids

70
Q

extracellular proteins that cause neurological diseases, mis-folding

A

prions

71
Q

result from a change in a single base pair and can lead to a single amino acid change in a polypeptide or to no change at all

A

point mutations

72
Q

cause a more dramatic change in DNA than point mutations, including frameshift, often result in complete loss of gene function

A

deletions/insertions

73
Q

— genomes typically accumulate mutations at a higher rate than – genomes

A

RNA, DNA

74
Q

chemical, physical, or biological agents that increase the mutation rate

A

mutagens

75
Q

activated as a result of some types of DNA damage and initiates a number of DNA repair processes, both error prone and high fidelity

A

SOS regulatory system

76
Q

what test measures mutagenesis

A

Ames test

77
Q

uptake of naked DNA directly from the environment, could be from lysed cells

A

transformation

78
Q

phage mediated transfer of DNA

A

transduction

79
Q

transfer via cell-to-cell contact, pilus mediated, cell sex

A

conjugation

80
Q

if a heat killed S strand of strep pneumoniae and a live R strain are both put in a mouse, will the mouse die

A

yes, live S and R will be found

81
Q

will a mouse be killed from the heat killed S strand of strep pneumoniae alone

A

no

82
Q

will a mouse be killed from the live R strain of strep pneumoniae alone

A

no

83
Q

will a mouse be killed from the live S strain of strep pneumoniae alone

A

yes

84
Q

what is the difference between generalized transduction and specialized transduction

A

specialized includes viral integration in the bacterial chromosome

85
Q

– plasmid allows gene transfer

A

F

86
Q

what is an Hfr strain

A

when the F plasmid is incorporated into the chromosome

87
Q

do F- cells become F+ after attaching to a Hfr cell

A

no

88
Q

which type of horizontal transfer of genetic information between bacteria may involve the use of the lytic phage as a vector

A

general transduction

89
Q

which type of horizontal transfer of genetic information between bacteria may involve the use of a temperate phage as a vector

A

specialized transduction

90
Q

regions of dyad symmetry, DNA sequences in which regions are repeated and inverted to each other

A

molecular/genetic palindromes

91
Q

two of the same subunit bound through a region of the folded peptide that allows interaction.

A

homodimers

92
Q

stimulus-response coupling mechanisms to allow organisms to sense and respond to changes in many different environmental conditions

A

two component regulatory mechanism

93
Q

regulation in response to fluctuations in cell population density

A

quorum sensing

94
Q

specific sequence of DNA where a particular repressor protein can bind

A

operator

95
Q

a – can bind to a sterically hindered repressor to make it the correct shape

A

corepressor

96
Q

the – operon is an example of an operon when a repressor needs to bind to a corepressor to prevent amino acid synthesis

A

arginine

97
Q

beta-galactosidase breaks down —

A

lactose

98
Q

the lac operon is in the default – position

A

off

99
Q

a – can bind to an operator bound repressor to prevent it from binding

A

inducer

100
Q

the – operon is an example of a operon where a repressor is bound to an inducer and allows for a gene to be expressed

A

lac

101
Q

a – can bind to an activator binding site so an unattracted RNA pol can bind to an operon

A

activator protein

102
Q

activator proteins must bind to a – to bind to an activator binding site

A

inducer

103
Q

– and – are proteins that bind to DNA sites

A

activators and repressors

104
Q

– and – are small molecules that interact with repressors or activators to change their activity

A

corepressors, inducers

105
Q

the upstream end of the transcription unit is called the

A

promoter

106
Q

the downstream end of the transcription unit is called the

A

terminator

107
Q

RNA nucleotides are added to the – end of the growing RNA strand made by RNA pol

A

3’

108
Q

when the – is transcribed, it will cause an instability in the transcription complex that makes RNA pol fall off

A

terminator

109
Q

can multiple prokaryotic genes be controlled by 1 promoter

A

yes

110
Q

can multiple eukaryotic genes be controlled by 1 promoter

A

no

111
Q

all genes controlled by the same promoter are part of the same –

A

operon

112
Q

in Rho – transcription, the terminators encoded in the DNA make a stem loop structure in RNA followed by a UUU residue

A

independent

113
Q

the – protein acts at specific sites only, binds to a single stranded RNA, migrates to the paused transcription complex using ATP, and terminates transcription

A

rho

114
Q

– have multiple forms of RNA pol

A

eukaryotes

115
Q

– have one form of RNA pol

A

prokaryotes

116
Q

– means one promoter for multiple genes

A

polycistronic

117
Q

where does transcription happen in prokaryotes

A

cytoplasm

118
Q

assemblages of bacterial cells attached to a surface via an adhesive polysaccharide matrix

A

biofilm

119
Q

dental plaque is a –

A

biofilm

120
Q

rhizobium does what

A

nitrogen fixation

121
Q

nitrogenase is oxygen sensitive so rhizobia have to

A

keep O2 levels low

122
Q

these organisms are consistently found in association with humans and may have various symbiotic relationships with their host

A

normal flora

123
Q

these organisms are almost always associated with disease in infected humans, some are obligate parasites

A

obligate pathogens

124
Q

these organisms, though normally not pathogens, may cause disease in a compromised host

A

opportunistic pathogens

125
Q

is infection always disease

A

no

126
Q

– is established microbial growth in the host (vs. host damage)

A

infection

127
Q

– is host damage or dysfunction (vs. established growth)

A

disease

128
Q

do microbes typically grow in host blood, lymph, organs, or nervous system

A

no

129
Q

what is the typical normal flora type (gram, etc)

A

Gram positive, coagulase negative

130
Q

S. epi is all over the outside of the body. is it coagulase + or -

A

negative

131
Q

the – is a dry and acidic environment on the human body

A

skin

132
Q

in newborn mouths, – predominate

A

aerotolerant anaerobes

133
Q

in adult mouths, – predominate in gingival crevices

A

anaerobes

134
Q

ears mostly have coagulase — staph like s. epi

A

negative

135
Q

eyes have mostly coagulase – staph

A

negative

136
Q

– helps the eyes keep populations down

A

tearing

137
Q

environment in the GI tract with possible high O2 and low pH

A

stomach

138
Q

environment in the GI tract with no O2 and high pH

A

large intestine/colon

139
Q

does diet have an effect on gut flora

A

yes

140
Q

resident flora in the URT are kept in check by —

A

competition and host defenses

141
Q

the LRT has — bacteria

A

few

142
Q

– helps to keep organisms out of the bladder

A

urine

143
Q

does estrogen affect microorgansims in the vagina

A

yes

144
Q

what microoranisms predominate in the vagina during estrogen producing years

A

lactobacilli

145
Q

pathogenesis that obstructs host function, even if there is not damage to host cells

A

colonization

146
Q

pathogenesis where the host is effected regardless of the presence of a viable bacterial cell

A

toxins

147
Q

pathogenesis where colonizing cells grow next to host cells that are then damaged when the immune system activates

A

immune-mediated damage

148
Q

the preference of an organism toward a particular type of tissue

A

tissue tropism

149
Q

the likelihood of a bacteria to cause a disease

A

virulence

150
Q

loss of virulence, cell is still alive

A

attenuation

151
Q

toxins that are excreted proteins

A

exotoxins

152
Q

toxins that are lipopolysaccharides

A

endotoxins

153
Q

enterotoxins cause

A

diarrhea (cholera)

154
Q

diptheria toxin inhibits

A

protein synthesis

155
Q

botulinum toxin inhibits

A

muscle contraction (acetocholine)

156
Q

tetanus toxin inhibits

A

muscle relaxation

157
Q

— overstimulate the immune system

A

superantigens

158
Q

are endotoxins or exotoxins more potent

A

exotoxins

159
Q

only – cells have endotoxins

A

gram negative

160
Q

diptheria toxin, cholera toxin, tetanus toxin, botulinum toxin, anthrax toxin, and pertussis toxin are all –

A

A-B toxins

161
Q

cholera toxin causes an excess of –, which leads to water loss

A

solutes

162
Q

botulinum toxin blocks the release of

A

acetylcholine

163
Q

“infant” botulism is a –

A

bacterial infection

164
Q

tetanus toxin blocks the release of

A

GABA

165
Q

general, non-specific mechanisms common to healthy individuals

A

constitutive defenses

166
Q

these mechanisms are induced (activated) by exposure to a pathogen, and involve immune system mediated defenses

A

inducible

167
Q

food stability is due to several factors, but a major one is –

A

water availability

168
Q

yeast produce – and – when they ferment sugar

A

ethanol and CO2

169
Q

why are mushrooms considered microorganisms

A

the mycelium that are growing underground produce it as a fruit

170
Q

illness from the consumption of food containing microbial toxins, viable organisms might not be present

A

food poisoning

171
Q

all food poisoning microorganisms are gram —

A

positive

172
Q

an illness from consumption of foods containing pathogenic microorganisms

A

foodborne infection

General Microbiology (4 decks)

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