micro test 4 Flashcards

1
Q

the attachment of the virion to the host cell

A

adsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

injection of DNA/RNA into the cell

A

penetration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

uses the cell’s machinery, transcription and translation of viral proteins

A

synthesis of nucleic acid and protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

capsids self assemble

A

assembly and packaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

enzymes lyse host cell

A

release/lysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what kind of growth curve do viruses have

A

one step

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

specificity of viruses for particular hosts is mediated by —

A

receptors in the host cell surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the eclipse in the one step growth curve

A

no infectious virions present in the cell (only viruses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what events occur during the latent period of viral replication

A

eclipse and maturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

virus DNA may be restricted by host –

A

endonucleases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

host endonucleases only affect what kind of viruses

A

dsDNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

can viruses modify host DNA

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how do restriction enzymes recognize self DNA

A

methylation of certain bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what do restriction endonucleases do to DNA recognized as foreign

A

cleave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

– recognize specific sequences of DNA and cleave it

A

Restriction endonucleases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

— modify the DNA at the recognition sequences, preventing endonucleases from actting

A

methylases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

class I virus

A

dsDNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

class II virus

A

ssDNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

class III virus

A

dsRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

class IV virus

A

ssRNA, plus sense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

class V virus

A

ssRNA, minus sense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

class VI virus

A

ssRNA, DNA intermediate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

class VII virus

A

dsDNA, ssRNA intermediate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what does plus sense mean

A

RNA can be read by a translational apparatus in the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what does minus sense mean

A

RNA that is complementary to the translation-able RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what do class VI and class VII viruses both use

A

reverse transcriptase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

class I viruses have what type of replication

A

classical semiconservative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

class II viruses have what type of replication

A

classical semiconservative, discard - strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

class VII viruses have what type of replication

A

transcription followed by reverse transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

class III viruses have what type of replication

A

classical semiconservative of RNA (not DNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

class IV viruses have what type of replication

A

make ssRNA (-) and transcribe to make ssRNA (+) genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

class V viruses have what type of replication

A

make ssRNA (+) and transcribe to make ssRNA (-) genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

class VI viruses have what type of replication

A

make ssRNA (+) genome by transcription off of - strand of ds DNA, reverse transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

class III, VII, I, and V viruses both need to – the – strand before becoming mRNA (+)

A

transcribe, minus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

class – viruses can be used directly as mRNA

A

IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

class – viruses synthesize another strand before transcription into mRNA

A

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

DNA viruses (3)

A

I, II, VII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

RNA viruses (4)

A

III, IV, V, VI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

why must some types of virus contain enzymes in the virion in order for mRNA to be produced

A

because they need reverse transcriptase to make an intermediate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

class VI viruses are also known as

A

retroviruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the most common type of bacteriophage genome

A

dsDNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what makes T4 bacteriophages resistant to most restriction endonucleases

A

glucosylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

circular permutation

A

entire replication of genome plus a little more (13 hours on a clock)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

headfuls of cleaved viral genome have the same two starting and ending letters, –

A

repeated terminal sequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

– phage have alternate life cycles- lytic and lysogenic

A

temperate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

temperate phage life cycle where they can replicate new virions

A

lytic cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

temperate phage life cycle where they integrate within the host genome and replicate with the bacterium

A

lysogenic cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

a lysogenized cell is called a

A

prophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what happens after the lysogenic cycle

A

lytic cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is the switch from lysogenic to lytic called

A

induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

the – protein causes repression of the lambda lytic events

A

cl (lambda repressor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

the – protein controls activation of lytic events

A

Cro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

– destroys the cl lambda repressor resulting in Cro activation

A

RecA protease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what events need to happen for lambda to become a prophage

A

adsorption, penetration, injection of DNA, DNA cos sites connect to form a circular molecule, integrase is expressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

many animal viruses are —

A

enveloped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

orthomyxovirus example

A

influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

retrovirus example

A

HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

herpesvirus example

A

varicella zoster (chicken pox)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

hepadnavirus example

A

hep B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

rhabdovirus example

A

rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

animal virus infection where provirus is made or the virus can replicate autonomously outside of the genome of the host, tend not to kill the host; primary acute infection, virus harbored in nervous tissue, recurrent infection, recurrence with trauma or stress

A

latent infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

animal virus infection where the cell is always infected and virus particles are made and shed continuously, tend not to kill the host cell immediately

A

persistent infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

up regulated genes that push cell cycle forward, broken gas pedal

A

oncogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

down regulated genes that don’t stop the cell cycle, broken brakes

A

tumor suppressor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Hemagglutinin and Neruaminidase are used to identify strains of

A

influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

antigenic – - rearrangement of genome segments to produce different viruses

A

shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

antigenic – - minor antigenic changes due to genetic mutations

A

drift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

small (~250-400 bp) circular ssRNA particles known to infect plants, naked nucleic acid with no protein encoding regions

A

viroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

extracellular proteins that cause neurological diseases, mis-folding

70
Q

result from a change in a single base pair and can lead to a single amino acid change in a polypeptide or to no change at all

A

point mutations

71
Q

cause a more dramatic change in DNA than point mutations, including frameshift, often result in complete loss of gene function

A

deletions/insertions

72
Q

— genomes typically accumulate mutations at a higher rate than – genomes

73
Q

chemical, physical, or biological agents that increase the mutation rate

74
Q

activated as a result of some types of DNA damage and initiates a number of DNA repair processes, both error prone and high fidelity

A

SOS regulatory system

75
Q

what test measures mutagenesis

76
Q

uptake of naked DNA directly from the environment, could be from lysed cells

A

transformation

77
Q

phage mediated transfer of DNA

A

transduction

78
Q

transfer via cell-to-cell contact, pilus mediated, cell sex

A

conjugation

79
Q

if a heat killed S strand of strep pneumoniae and a live R strain are both put in a mouse, will the mouse die

A

yes, live S and R will be found

80
Q

will a mouse be killed from the heat killed S strand of strep pneumoniae alone

81
Q

will a mouse be killed from the live R strain of strep pneumoniae alone

82
Q

will a mouse be killed from the live S strain of strep pneumoniae alone

83
Q

what is the difference between generalized transduction and specialized transduction

A

specialized includes viral integration in the bacterial chromosome

84
Q

– plasmid allows gene transfer

85
Q

what is an Hfr strain

A

when the F plasmid is incorporated into the chromosome

86
Q

do F- cells become F+ after attaching to a Hfr cell

87
Q

which type of horizontal transfer of genetic information between bacteria may involve the use of the lytic phage as a vector

A

general transduction

88
Q

which type of horizontal transfer of genetic information between bacteria may involve the use of a temperate phage as a vector

A

specialized transduction

89
Q

regions of dyad symmetry, DNA sequences in which regions are repeated and inverted to each other

A

molecular/genetic palindromes

90
Q

two of the same subunit bound through a region of the folded peptide that allows interaction.

A

homodimers

91
Q

stimulus-response coupling mechanisms to allow organisms to sense and respond to changes in many different environmental conditions

A

two component regulatory mechanism

92
Q

regulation in response to fluctuations in cell population density

A

quorum sensing

93
Q

specific sequence of DNA where a particular repressor protein can bind

94
Q

a – can bind to a sterically hindered repressor to make it the correct shape

A

corepressor

95
Q

the – operon is an example of an operon when a repressor needs to bind to a corepressor to prevent amino acid synthesis

96
Q

beta-galactosidase breaks down —

97
Q

the lac operon is in the default – position

98
Q

a – can bind to an operator bound repressor to prevent it from binding

99
Q

the – operon is an example of a operon where a repressor is bound to an inducer and allows for a gene to be expressed

100
Q

a – can bind to an activator binding site so an unattracted RNA pol can bind to an operon

A

activator protein

101
Q

activator proteins must bind to a – to bind to an activator binding site

102
Q

– and – are proteins that bind to DNA sites

A

activators and repressors

103
Q

– and – are small molecules that interact with repressors or activators to change their activity

A

corepressors, inducers

104
Q

the upstream end of the transcription unit is called the

105
Q

the downstream end of the transcription unit is called the

A

terminator

106
Q

RNA nucleotides are added to the – end of the growing RNA strand made by RNA pol

107
Q

when the – is transcribed, it will cause an instability in the transcription complex that makes RNA pol fall off

A

terminator

108
Q

can multiple prokaryotic genes be controlled by 1 promoter

109
Q

can multiple eukaryotic genes be controlled by 1 promoter

110
Q

all genes controlled by the same promoter are part of the same –

111
Q

in Rho – transcription, the terminators encoded in the DNA make a stem loop structure in RNA followed by a UUU residue

A

independent

112
Q

the – protein acts at specific sites only, binds to a single stranded RNA, migrates to the paused transcription complex using ATP, and terminates transcription

113
Q

– have multiple forms of RNA pol

A

eukaryotes

114
Q

– have one form of RNA pol

A

prokaryotes

115
Q

– means one promoter for multiple genes

A

polycistronic

116
Q

where does transcription happen in prokaryotes

117
Q

assemblages of bacterial cells attached to a surface via an adhesive polysaccharide matrix

118
Q

dental plaque is a –

119
Q

rhizobium does what

A

nitrogen fixation

120
Q

nitrogenase is oxygen sensitive so rhizobia have to

A

keep O2 levels low

121
Q

these organisms are consistently found in association with humans and may have various symbiotic relationships with their host

A

normal flora

122
Q

these organisms are almost always associated with disease in infected humans, some are obligate parasites

A

obligate pathogens

123
Q

these organisms, though normally not pathogens, may cause disease in a compromised host

A

opportunistic pathogens

124
Q

is infection always disease

125
Q

– is established microbial growth in the host (vs. host damage)

126
Q

– is host damage or dysfunction (vs. established growth)

127
Q

do microbes typically grow in host blood, lymph, organs, or nervous system

128
Q

what is the typical normal flora type (gram, etc)

A

Gram positive, coagulase negative

129
Q

S. epi is all over the outside of the body. is it coagulase + or -

130
Q

the – is a dry and acidic environment on the human body

131
Q

in newborn mouths, – predominate

A

aerotolerant anaerobes

132
Q

in adult mouths, – predominate in gingival crevices

133
Q

ears mostly have coagulase — staph like s. epi

134
Q

eyes have mostly coagulase – staph

135
Q

– helps the eyes keep populations down

136
Q

environment in the GI tract with possible high O2 and low pH

137
Q

environment in the GI tract with no O2 and high pH

A

large intestine/colon

138
Q

does diet have an effect on gut flora

139
Q

resident flora in the URT are kept in check by —

A

competition and host defenses

140
Q

the LRT has — bacteria

141
Q

– helps to keep organisms out of the bladder

142
Q

does estrogen affect microorgansims in the vagina

143
Q

what microoranisms predominate in the vagina during estrogen producing years

A

lactobacilli

144
Q

pathogenesis that obstructs host function, even if there is not damage to host cells

A

colonization

145
Q

pathogenesis where the host is effected regardless of the presence of a viable bacterial cell

146
Q

pathogenesis where colonizing cells grow next to host cells that are then damaged when the immune system activates

A

immune-mediated damage

147
Q

the preference of an organism toward a particular type of tissue

A

tissue tropism

148
Q

the likelihood of a bacteria to cause a disease

149
Q

loss of virulence, cell is still alive

A

attenuation

150
Q

toxins that are excreted proteins

151
Q

toxins that are lipopolysaccharides

A

endotoxins

152
Q

enterotoxins cause

A

diarrhea (cholera)

153
Q

diptheria toxin inhibits

A

protein synthesis

154
Q

botulinum toxin inhibits

A

muscle contraction (acetocholine)

155
Q

tetanus toxin inhibits

A

muscle relaxation

156
Q

— overstimulate the immune system

A

superantigens

157
Q

are endotoxins or exotoxins more potent

158
Q

only – cells have endotoxins

A

gram negative

159
Q

diptheria toxin, cholera toxin, tetanus toxin, botulinum toxin, anthrax toxin, and pertussis toxin are all –

A

A-B toxins

160
Q

cholera toxin causes an excess of –, which leads to water loss

161
Q

botulinum toxin blocks the release of

A

acetylcholine

162
Q

“infant” botulism is a –

A

bacterial infection

163
Q

tetanus toxin blocks the release of

164
Q

general, non-specific mechanisms common to healthy individuals

A

constitutive defenses

165
Q

these mechanisms are induced (activated) by exposure to a pathogen, and involve immune system mediated defenses

166
Q

food stability is due to several factors, but a major one is –

A

water availability

167
Q

yeast produce – and – when they ferment sugar

A

ethanol and CO2

168
Q

why are mushrooms considered microorganisms

A

the mycelium that are growing underground produce it as a fruit

169
Q

illness from the consumption of food containing microbial toxins, viable organisms might not be present

A

food poisoning

170
Q

all food poisoning microorganisms are gram —

171
Q

an illness from consumption of foods containing pathogenic microorganisms

A

foodborne infection