Micro Exam 2 Flashcards
What is Glycolysis?
the process of breaking down sugars
what is the site of glycolysis?
the cytoplasm
what is the starting material of glycolysis?
glucose
How many reactions are used in glycolysis?
10
what is the main product of glycolysis?
pyruvate
What are the two byproducts of pyruvate
ATP
NADH
During glycolysis ATP is produced via ______ phosphorylation
substrate-level
What happens to the NADH produced during glycolysis
it goes on to be processes via the electron transport chain.
1 NADH = ___ ATP
3
ATP produced via the electron transport chain are produced at _______ phosphorylation
oxidative level
Does glycolysis require oxygen?
no
What is the fate of pyruvate after glycolysis?
If oxygen is present than pyruvate goes on to be further processed by the krebs cycle and then the ETC to produce ATP
if there is no oxygen present than it goes to fermentation
Where is the site of the krebs cycle in eukaryotes?
the mitochondria
where is the site of the krebs cycle in prokaryites?
the cytoplasm of the cell
In order for pyruvate to be processed via the krebs cycle what has to happen?
it needs to be converted into Acetyl CoA via a preparatory convertion
The krebs cycle is also know as what other two names?
the ticarboxylic acid cycle
citric acid cycle
What are the byproducts of pyruvate becoming Acetyl CoA?
CO2 and NADH
Once Acetyl CoA enters the krebs cycle, what does it produce to contine the cycle over again?
Oxaloacetate
What are the products of krebs? qualitative
ATP, NADH, FADH2, CO2
What is the goal of the electron transport chain?
to produce ATP from NADH and FADH2
What is the site of the Electron transport chain?
euk- inner membrane of the mitochondria
pro- cell membrane
In aerobic respiration, oxygen is used as what?
the final electron acceptor
if oxygen is limited or absent can the electron transport chain still run? if so how?
yes. some bacteria are faculative anaerobes and can use other substances as final electron accepters. such as nitrates
does anaerobic respiration yield the same as aerobic?
no
summarize the process of the electron transport chain
NADH and FADH2 act as electron carriers
the electrons are passed from NADH and FADH2 also releasing hydrogen protons
the hydrogen protons are pumped from the membrane and create a concentration gradient
the charged Hydrogen diffuses back through the membrane creating energy
this energy is used to combind ADP and Pi into ADP
What is the process of electron chain transport called?
the CHEMIOSMOTIC theory of ATP production where oxygen is used as the final electron acceptor
What is the pentose phosphate pathway? PPP
an alternative pathway for the breakdown of glucose and pentose
what is pentose?
5 carbon sugar
does PPP create ATP? what does it produce?
no it produces NADH
What is the NADH from PPP used for?
anabolic reactions that require electron donors
What is the goal of the PPP
to produce metaboites for the synthesis of nucleotides and nucleic acids
What is fermentation?
Fermentation is a metabolic process that consumes sugar in the absence of oxygen
Fermentation occurs when ____ is absent
oxygen
Almost all fermentation processes are done by what?
microrganisms
what are the three main uses of fermentation?
food/alcohol productuon
Identification
diagnosing of disease
2 ____ are always a product of fermentation
2 ADP
What is the only type of fermentation that humans can use?
the fermentation of pyruvate to lactic acid
what is the only fermentation process that doesn’t peoduce CO2
lactic acid fermentation
What is lactic acid fermentation used for?
the production of yogurt, cheese, and vinegar
What bacteria is used in lactic acid fermentation?
Streptococcus Lactobacillus
What is the fermentation pathway for alcohol?
Pyruvate V Acetaldhyde V Ethyl alcohol
What microbes produce alcohol?
Bacteria and yeasts
What is alcohol fermentation used to produce?
bread, beer, wine
What is propionic acid fermentation used to produce?
swiss cheese
What bacteria is used in propionic acid fermentation?
propionobacterium
What is butanediol fermentation used for?
it is used to diagnose pneumonia and to identify unknown bacteria
this is called the vogues-proskauer test and is used to detect acetoin
What is the fermentation pathway for butanediol fermentation?
Pyruvate
v> acetoin
butanediol
What bacterium is used in butanediol fermentation?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
What is burtic acid fermentation used for?
Diagnosis of tetanus and botulism
What bacteria are used in burtic acid fermentation?
colstridium tetani and clostridium butilicum
What is mixed acid fermentation used for?
identification of bacteria in the enterobacteriaceae family
What is the net ATP gain from glycolysis?
2 ATP
How many NADH does glycolysis produce?
2 NADH
How many ATP come from one NADH?
3 STP
When one pyruvate is processed into acetyl-CoA, how many NADH are produced?
1 NADH this happend twice per glycolysis process
How many kreb cycles per glycolysis process?
2
how many NADH are produced per Krebs cycle?
3 NADH 2 cycles per glucose molecule
How many FADH2 produced per one krebs cycle?
1 fADH2 2 cycles per glucose molecule
How many substrate level ATP are produced per krebs cycle?
1 ATP * 2 cycles per glucose molecule*
What is the max amount of ATP per glucose molecule?
38 ATP max
What is a nucleotide
a compound consisting of a nucleoside linked to a phosphate group
what is a nucleic acid?
a long chain of nucleotide’s held together by hydrogen bonds
What are the two different types of nucleic acids?
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) Ribonucleic acid (RNA)
What are the the 3 main components of DNA and RNA?
a 5-c sugar
a phosphate group
nucleotide base
What is the 5-c sugar in DNA?
Deoxyribose
What is the 5-c sugar in RNA?
Ribose
What is the difference between ribose and deoxyribose?
Deoxy has one less oxygen atom
Where does the phosphate group attach in nucleic acids?
the 5th carbon
Where do nucleotide based attach in nucleic acids
the first carbon
What are the 4 bases of DNA
ATCG Adenine Thymine Cytosine Guanine
What bases of DNA pair with one another?
A-T
C-G
the shape of DNA is described as a ____ double helix
antiparallel
What is the orientation of a strand of dna?
5’->3’
or
3’->5’
5’—->3’
What are the 4 bases of RNA?
AUCG
What is the U base in RNA?
uracil
How many strands does RNA have?
one
RNA is considered DNA’s molecular _____
Slave
Describe the central dogma.
DNA can replicate itself
DNA can Transcribe to RNA
Transcribed RNA can Translate into proteins
What is reverse transcription?
When a petovirus converts its RNA into DNA and insert it into the host chromosome.
What is the site of DNA replication in Eukaryotes and the site in prokaryotes
Euk- Nucleus
Pro-Cytoplasm near the cell membrane
What is the direction of synthesis in DNA replication
from 5’ to 3’
What is the difference between the leading strand and the lagging strand in DNA replication?
the leading strand is continuously replicated where as the lagging strand is replicated in fragments
What is the function of helicase in DNA replication?
helicase dissolves the H bonds between nucleotide bases
What is the function of toposomerase in DNA replication?
Toposomerase acts as a detangler, it removes super coils
Together, helicase and toposomerase perform what function that is the initial step of replication?
they open the double helix and create the replication fork
What is the function of DNA polymerase?
DNA polymerase assembles new dna stands by producing matching nucleotide bases to the ones present on the leading strand
Why is DNA polymerase considered a smart enzyme?
because it proof reads its work and removes errors
What is the function of ligase in DNA replication?
it glues okazaki fragments together forming a continuous strand.
what are okazaki fragments?
the fragments of nuecleotides that form the lagging strand during replication piece by piece
What is semi-conservative replication?
when the two end product strands of DNA both have one daughter strand and one new strand
What is the rate of replication in Eukaryotes?
50 bases a second
what is the replication rate in prokaryotes?
500 bases a second
What is the general error rate in replication?
1:1billion
What is DNA transcription?
The passage of instruction from DNA to RNA
What are helicase and troposomerase’s jobs in DNA transcription?
the open the helix and form a transcription bubble
How is RNA formed from the DNA strand?
It is read and assembled by RNA polymerase
What is the RNA strand created by RNA polymerase called?
MRNA -Messenger RNA
What does MRNA do after it is created?
it detaches from the parent strand and exits the nucleus if eukaryotic then heads for the ribosome to be translated
What is the function of MRNA
it carries the copied recipe for a specific protein
it contains the codon information
What is a codon?
a three base pair sequence that corresponds to an amino acid
What is TRNA?
Translation RNA
it reads the MRNA and assembles the amino acid sequence. it contains the anti codons to match with the codons
what is the rRNA?
the rinosomal RNA. this is the site of translation
What type of bond forms between amino acids in protein systhesis?
peptide bonds
What codon is always the start codon?
Methionine
AUG
Why is it beneficial to have redundant codons?
what are redundant codons?
Redundant codons are condons of different sequences that produce the same amino acid. this is good because it prevents mutations
How many stop codons are there?
three
UAA
UAG
UGA
what is a mutation?
any change in DNAs nucleotide sequence that can be passed onto the next generation.
in bacteria, most mutations lead to ____
evolutionary progress
A type of mutation where nothing is added or deleted but is instead deleted.
point mutation
What are the three types of point mutations?
Missense mutation
Silent mutation
non-sense mutation
What is a missense mutation?
example?
When altered base codes for a different amino acid.
normal sequence UUU - phenylalnine
Mutated seqence. UUA - leucine
sickle cell anemia
What is a silent mutation?
when the changed codon produces the same amino acid as the original
What is a non-sense mutation
when the changed codon codes for a terminator codon aka a stop codon. this leads to a pre mature end of protein synthesis
What is a frameshift mutation?
when when a base is deleted or inserted into the sequence
what are the 3 consequences of frame-shift mutations
- abnormal proteins are produced
- its almost impossible for FS mutations to result in slient mutations
- Very high risk of nonsense mutations
What are the two major causes of mutations?
Spontaneous mutations via error in replication
induced mutations caused by mutagenic agents
what are the three types of mutagenic agents?
Radiation
Chemicals
Viruses
What are the two types of radiation that cause mutations?
ultraviolet
ionizing radiation
How does ultraviolet radiation cause mutation?
It creates T-T dimers
in the presence of UV radiation. adjacent thymines bond together creating a dimer. this dimer produces a gap during replication creating a frame shift
How do ionizing raditations cause harm to dna
it breaks down the sugar phosphate backbone causing the DNA to comme apart.
How is ionizing radiation used to our benefit
it is used to preserve foods, kill bugs, and increase shelf life of foods.
What are the two common types of ionizing radiations?
gamma and x-ray
What is a base analogue and how does it cause mutations
example?
Base analogues have similar structures to n-bases and can be taken up and used as substitutes for the normal bases causing mutations during replication
caffeine (A&G)
What is an alkylating agent and how does it cause mutations
example?
they can add methyl or alkyl groups to based of dna and produce errors in base pairing.
BAP linked to breast cancer. biproduct of incomplete combustion of fuel
What is a acridine derivative and how does it cause mutations
they can insert into the dna and cause frameshift
quinacrine
What is a Deaminating agent and how does it cause mutations
they can remove n-groups of nucleotide bases
leads to base substitution
What are utilized to repair DNA damage?
Enzymes
What is the main repair enzyme for DNA
*Smart Enzyme *
DNA polymerase
How does the DNA Glycosylase enzyme repair DNA damage ?
Cleaves and removes altered bases
Specifically oxidized Guanine
What enzyme is used to repair ultraviolet radiation damage?
UVR endonucleases
How do UVR endonucleases repair damage
They cleave t dimers which allows polymerase to replace the gap with correct bases.
What is a Excision repair? What environment does it happen in?
The type of repair used by UVR endonucleases
Happens in th dark
What are the two enzymes used to repair uv damage
Which one is used by prokaryotes?
UVR endonucleases
And Photolyase
Photolyase is used the most by prokaryotes
How does Photolyase repair damage?
It breaks the double binds of the t dimers which allows polymerase to fix the gap.
This repair is light dependent
What is the Ames test used for?
To determine if a substance is mutagenic/carcinogenic
How does the Ames test work
Briefly describe
It uses a bacteria dependent on an amino acid found in a medium. If the bacteria survives in a medium of the material in question that is absent from the amino acid it shows that mutation occurred to allow the bacteria to once again produce the amino acid.
What does the Ames test assume?
That substances that can cause mutations are also carcinogenic
What bacteria is used for the Ames test and why?
Salmonella his- is used because it can not produce histidine .
What type of medium is used for the Ames test?
A chemically defined medium
Glucose salts medium
Explain the Ames test process.
Salmonella his- is inoculated into the medium. A well is cut in the medium and the substance being tested is added to the well. This is them incubated.
If there is growth than the substance is potentially mutagenic and if there is no growth the substance is most likely not mutagenic
What is genetic engineering?
Deliberate manipulation of the genetic material of a cell to alter the characteristics of the organism in some way
How is the haemophilus bacteria used in genetic engineering?
It recognizes CCGG in the genetic code and cuts it in the middle
Explain the process used to make the slow ripening tomato.
*gene fusion *
The gene for ripening is removed from the code using restriction enzymes. Then it is reversed and placed back into the chromosome. The tomato no longer has the ripening gene but does produce a new protein instead
Why is it important to place the DNA fragment back into the chromosome during gene fusion?
Because you can only remove so much DNA before the chromosome begins to decay. So you need to place the genes back into the chromosome to maintain stability
What is interstitial deletion?
When a portion of the genetic code is removed completely
How is protoplasmic fusion different than gene fusion?
It doesn’t use restriction enzymes
Explain protoplasmic fusion
Enzymes are used to breakdown cell walls of two bacteria that you want to combine and you hope that the DNA fragments combine into a super strand
What is recombant DNA tech. *type of genetic eng.
It is the physical joining of dna segments from two diff. species.
Bacteria-plant
plant-animal
human-bacteria
Explain the process of recumbent DNA engineering
A bacteria species with a plasmid is isolated.
the plasmid is removed and the desired gene is cut using restriction enzymes and then ligated into the plasmid
the plasmid is integrated back into the bacteria via transformation
What bacteria species is used to produce human insulin?
e.coli
Why is the ability to produce factor VIII from bacteria important?
because is eliminates the need to blood transfusions and the potental spread of BBPs.
What is PCR ?
Polymerace chain reaction
it is used to amplify gene segments of DNA
It is a copy machine for genetic information. It uses nucleotides, enzymes, and other nutrients to replicate dna fragments to detectable levels.
How is PCR used?
Early detection of disease
Amplification of DNA in forensic samples
Explain the process of PCR
The genetic information is amplified, isolated and then tested via Electrophoresis against a control.
What is DNA hybridization test?
Uses a known segment as a contol.
the know segment is tagged with a radioactive label.
the know segment is combined with the unknow segment.
the combination is then tested via xray. the radioactive segments will show up dark on the xray.
If the two segments combined then the xray will be completely dark. if they didn’t combined then the xray will be spotted
Explain restriction fragment length polymorphism
DNA fingerprinting
used to identify unknown microbe, forensics, and paternity tests.
Tests the number of segments after restriction enzymes are used to cut the DNA segments
What does DNA fingerprinting assume?
That each individual has a unique sequence of nucleotide’s in dna
what are the steps in restriction fragment length polymorphism
DNA is isolated
Denatured
Cut
and electro gelled
Define a disease
an abnormal physiological process brought by a continuous irritation of a primary
How are diseased expressed.
via symptoms
What are symptoms?
outward manifestation of disease
what are “signs”
evidence of the presence of a pathogen
What is a syndrome?
combonation of signs and symptoms
what is a pathogen?
any microbe that can cause disease
what is contamination?
the mere presence of microbes on tissues ot objects
What is infection?
growth and multiplication of microbes or pathogens on the body with or without disease production
What is a non-innfectious dissease?
A disease caused by abiotic factors. aka. pollution, genetics, hormones, dificiencies
what is an infectious disease.
a disease caused by pathogensnic microbes
can either be communicable or non comminocable
What are the steps in pathenogenesis?
Penetration (adherence)
Colonization
Invasion
productions of toxins
What part of the microbes are involved in adhernce
it adheres via finmriae and pili
What are the four main portals of entry for pathogenic
Intact skin
wound
mucous membranes
Natural openings
what is colonization?
the growth of microbes on epi tissue
what is invasion?
When microbes establish residence in the host
severity of disease depends on a degree of what?
invasion
How do bacteria cause disease?
4 ways
Direct action
Production of toxins
production of enzymes
Production of acids
What is direct action in bacteria disease
they can leach nutrients from host cells and block off circulation
What are the two types of toxins that bacteria can produce.
endotoxins
and
exotoxins
What organisms produce endo toxins
all gram negative via the lipid A endotoxins
What organisms produce exotoxins
mostly gam + and a few gram -
where is exotoxin produced?
extracellular, secreted outside of cells
Where is endotoxin produced?
within cells. its bound inside the cell walls and are released during lysis
What are the main types of enzymes produced by bacteria.
HLHCK
Hemolysins leukocidins Hyaluronidease Coagulases Kinases
What are the two types of hemolysins?
Alpha- partial hemolysis
and
Beta- Complete hemolysis
What are leukocindins.
damage to white blood cells called neutrophils
What are hyalurondase’s
they digest hyaluronic acid which is responsible for holding cells together
what are coagulases?
they cause accelerated blood clotting and can create walls of clotted blood to protct themselves
What are kinases?
the opposite of coagulases.
they digest fibrin and disolve clots
What is endotoxic shock?
An allergic reaction caued by the lycing of gram - bacteria . when the gram negative bacteria die, they release their endotoxin.
What is the chemical composition of exotoxins?
polypeptides/proteins
What is the chemical composition of endotoxin?
lipopolysaccharides
What are the two ways fingoi can harm you?
Direct tissue damage
production of toxins
production of enzymes
How can fungi cause direct tissue damage?
growth and multiplication on host tissues and leaching nutreants from the host
What is dermatomycoses?
fungal skin diseases
What are some of the affects of fungi toxins?
loss of muscle coordination, tremors, weight loss, hallucinations
Why are disorders caused by fungi toxins not considered a fungal disease? what are they caalled instead?
Because they are similar to a drug overdose and need to be ingested to cause the negative effects
what are three types of fungal toxins?
Aflatoxin-liver toxin
ergot-ergotism
and mushroom toxi-inhibit rna polymerase
How do fungal enzymes affect host tissue?
they degrade digest host tissues
What are the three ways protozoa and helminths cause disease?
Direct feeding on tissues
production of toxic metabolic wastes
migration to vital organs
What are the 6 steps in the course of infection?
IPIADC
Incubation Prodromal Invasive Acme Decline Convalescence
What are the two main transmission phases in the 6 steps of infection?
incubation
convalescence
What is the incubation period?
The time between infection and the apperance of disease
What is the length of the incubation phase?
depends on the path. 2 years to decades
What is the prodromal phase?
Short period of non-specific symptoms
not present in all diseases
What is the invasive phase?
the period when specific signs and symptoms occur
what is the acme phase?
the critical stage, the time when symptoms are most severe
what is the decline phase?
When host defenses overcome the pathogen and symptomms begin to subside
WHat is the convalescence phase?
the period of recovery
tissue repair begins
symptoms subside but patient is still contagious
What are the three main reservoirs of infections?
Human reservoir
animals reservoir
non-living reservoirs
WHat is a disease with a human reservoir?
AIDS STD’s
How many pathogens can be transmitted from animal reservoirs?
at least 150
What is a ZOONOSES?
a term for a disease transmitted to humans via animal reservoir
What are the three main non-living reservoirs?
What is found in each?
Soil-Tetanus, anthrax, botulism
Water-contaminated with coliforms
food-parasites, coliforms
What are the three mechanisms of disease transmission?
by Contact
by vehicles
by vectors
What are the two types of direct contact transmission?
Horizontal
Vertical
What is horizontal contact transmission?
transmission via contact with a neighoring individual or animal hand shake, kissing, SEXUAL ACTIVITIES, animal bites
What is vertical contact transmission?
diseases passed from parent to offspring
What are fomites?
non living objects contaminated with pathogens
What is indirect contact transmission?
transmission via fomites
clothing, dishes, bar soad, money
What is droplet transmission?
transmission via aerosols
ONLY AT A DISTANCES OF 1meter or less from source
sneezing
What are the four forms of vehicle transmission?
Water-borne
Air-borne
Food-borne
other
what is water borne transmission?
transmission via drinking contaminated water
What is air-borne transmission?
Occurs at a distance of 1+ meters
Occurs when bacteria/pathogens combind with dust particles and float on the air
streptococcus and staphylococcus
What is food-borne transmission??
contaminated food via processing and improper storage
What are some other vehicles of transmission?
blood, body fluids
What are the two types of vectors?
Mechanical
biological
WHat are vectors?
small living things that carry pathogens and transmit diseases
What are mechanical vectors
vectors that passivly transmit pathogens via feet and bodies
What are biological vectors?
vectors that transmit diseases via bites
paths usually complete parts of their lifecycle inside vectors
example-malaria
