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MS2 Unit 2 > Micro Bio > Flashcards

Micro Bio Flashcards

1
Q

Presence of microoorganisms in a normally sterile site is called ________

A

Infection

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2
Q

Cultivatable bacteria in the bloodstream is called ______

A

Bacteremia

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3
Q

Temp >38, H.R. >90, R.R. >20 WBC> 12,000, PaCO2

A

SIRS

Systemic inflammatory response syndrome

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4
Q

The whole-body inflammatory response to an infection is called _______

A

sepsis

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5
Q

Sepsis associated with organ dysfunction distant from the site of infection is called _____

A

severe sepsis

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6
Q

Sepsis with hypotension that despite adequate fluid, requires vasopressor therapy is called _____

A

septic shock

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7
Q

The presence of microorganisms on an epithelial surface is called ______

A

colonization

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8
Q

The TLR4 recognizes _____ on gram _______ bacteria

A

LPS on gram - bacteria

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9
Q

A massive release of the endotoxin LPS can result in _____ _____ _____

A

gram negative shock

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10
Q

A primary BSI is (intravasular/extravascular) while a secondary BSI is (intravasular/extravascular)

A

Primary is intraascular

Secondary is Extravascular

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11
Q

TLR2 recognizes Gram _______ bacteria

A

positive

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12
Q

The most common sites of entry for secondary bacteremia are (3)

A
  1. Lungs
  2. Abdomen
  3. UTI
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13
Q

a condition in which blood clots form throughout the body’s small blood vessels is called ____

A

DIC

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14
Q

This blood substance inhibits thrombin production as well as by binding and inhibiting thrombin directly

A

Antithrombin

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15
Q

This blood protien blocks the coag cascade at multiple steps helping to prevent DIC

A

Activated protein C

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16
Q

You are confident your patient is septic, but when you draw cultures you don’t see anything. What might be the infection?

A

intermitant bacteremia or gram (-) sepsis

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17
Q

What is the most common source of bacterial endocarditis?

A

mouth flora, dental work

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18
Q

The 3 most common organisms for catheter-related infections are:

A
  1. coag (-) staphylococci
  2. Stapylocaccus Aureus
  3. Candida species
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19
Q

a marker of inflammatory response, stimulated by bacterial products (endotoxins/LPS) and cytokines (IL-1,IL-2, IL-6, TNFα)

A

Procalcitonin

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20
Q

the predominant organism that causes malaria is __ _______

A

Plasmodia falciparum

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21
Q

The 5 parasites that cause malaria in humans are:

A
  1. P. vivax
  2. P. ovale
  3. P. malariae
  4. P. falciparum
  5. P. knowlesi
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22
Q

malaria transmission is exclusively through the _______ mosquito

A

Anopheles (about 20 species)

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23
Q

a major reason why malaria is endemic to Africa is due to this anopheles characteristic ______ ______

A

longer lifespan

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24
Q

which plasmodia are most common (2)

A

P. falciparum

P. vivax

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25
Q

which plasmodia is the most deadly

A

P. falciparum

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26
Q

With P. vivax, P. ovale and P. falciparum Paroxysm occurs periodically every ___ hours

A

48 hours

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27
Q

With P. malariae Paroxysm occurs periodically every ___ hours

A

72 hours

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28
Q

The three stages of the malaria paroxysm are:

A
  1. cold stage: RBC lysis
  2. Hot stage: immune response
  3. Sweating stage: immune turns off, exhaustion
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29
Q

Malaria relapse occurs with which two species?

A

P. vivax

P. ovale

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30
Q

When Malaria parasitemia falls below detectable levels and later increases to a detectible parasitemia is called _________

A

recrudescence

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31
Q

Chagas disease is caused by ________ ________

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

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32
Q

Swelling of the eyelid due to Chagas infection is called ______ sign

A

Romana’s sign

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33
Q

Trypanosoms can be carried by the insects, ________ in S. America or the ______ in Africa

A

Triatomine, a Reduviidae bug in S. Amer

Tsetse fly in Africa

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34
Q

Which malaria plasmodia species predominates sub-saharan Africa and south America?

A

P. falciparum

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35
Q

Which malaria plasmodia species predominates western Africa, west pacific and south Asia?

A

P. ovale

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36
Q

Which malaria plasmodia species occur everywhere EXCEPT sub-saharan Africa?

A

P. Vivax

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37
Q

Erythrocytes lacking the ____ ____ are resistant to P. vivax merozoite invasion

A

Duffy Antigen

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38
Q

incubation of malaria so that it may relapse happens in the _____ (organ)

A

the liver

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39
Q

When Malaria sporozoites invade hepatocytes, and are not observed in the circulation may be asymptomatic is called ______

A

relapse

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40
Q

P. falciparum modifies the RBC to allow further infection using the _______ receptor

A

PfEMP-1

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41
Q

The two quinols for malaria treatment are:

A

chloroquine

paraquinine

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42
Q

Which is intracellular and which is not? (Malaria/Chagas)

A

Malaria: intracellula

Chagas, T. cruzi: NOT

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43
Q

Chagas, T cruzi causes damage and dilation to which 3 organs?

A

Megaesophagus
Cardiomyopathy
Megacolon

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44
Q

Leishmaniasis is transmitted by the _____ _____

A

sand fly

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45
Q

Toxoplasmosis come primarily from ______ and ______

A

undercooked food and cat poop

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46
Q

toxoplasmosis (can/cannot) be passed congenitally

A

can, congenital infection can be severe

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47
Q

the most common cause of posterior uveitis is infection with _______

A

toxoplasmosis

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48
Q

white fluffy cotton lesions in the back of the eye could indicate ______

A

toxoplasmosis infection

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49
Q

Lyme disease is caused by the spirochete ________ _______

A

Borrelia Burgdorfi

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50
Q

The 3 spirochetes are

A
  1. Treponema (syphilis)
  2. Borellia (lyme and relapsing fever)
  3. Leptospira
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51
Q

Which can you see with regular microscopy (Treponema / Borellia)

A

Borellia

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52
Q

The biology name for the deer tick is __ _______

A

I. scapularis, on the east coast

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53
Q

Mild Lyme can be treated with ________ or ________

A

Doxycycline or Amoxicillin if pregnant 20-30 days

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54
Q

Severe Lyme can be treated with ________

A

Ceftriaxone

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55
Q

Patient had lyme and was treated with doxy for the past 30 days. They ask for more doxy, what to do?

A

DON’T give more than 30 days of Doxycycline

this is enough to kill the Borellia

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56
Q

What are the Labs for Borrelia Burgdorfi?

A

ELISA or IF, neither is very useful

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57
Q

Borellia recurrentis is carried by the _____ ______ and reservoir is _______

A

Borellia Recurrentis, pediculus coRpoRis, Reservoir humans

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58
Q

Borellia hermsii is carried by _____ _____ and reservoir is _______

A

Borellia Hermsii, soft ticks, small Huggable mammals

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59
Q

As the spirochete present different surface antigens, fevers will spike, fall, spike, fall known as ______ ______

A

relapsing fever

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60
Q

What two spirochetes cause relapsing fever?

A
  1. Borellia Recurrentis

2. Borellia Hermsii

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61
Q

Which 2 diseases gets transmitted by “scratch and crush” w/ poop

A
  1. Relapsing fever w/ Borellia Recurrentis

2. Endemic Typhus w/ R. prowazkii

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62
Q

Dx: Relapsing fever w/ Borellia Recurrentis or Borellia Hermsii
Rx:?

A

tetracyclines

  1. doxycycline
  2. erythromycin
  3. penicillin G
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63
Q

Rocky mountain spotted fever is caused by _______ ______

A

Rickettsia ricketsii

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64
Q

Rocky mountain spotted fever is vectored by _________

A

Ticks!
Dermacentor variabilis, dog tick, on east coast
Dermacentor andersoni on west coast

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65
Q

What is the host for Rocky mtn spotted fever, Rickettsia ricketsii?

A

mice AND ticks, humans are accidental

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66
Q

How do Rickettsia, especially RMSF, cause their characteristic spotted petechia?

A

invades + breaks out of vascular endothelium

–>Vasculitis!

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67
Q

What is the Biology name for a dog tick?

A

Dermacentor variabilis

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68
Q

Dx: spotted fever
Rx: ________

A

Doxycycline

69
Q

The infectious agent of endemic typhus is __ ________

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

70
Q

Rickettsia prowazekii of endemic typhus is vectored by ______

A

the louse, head or pubic

71
Q

Recrudescent Typhus is called _____ _____ diesease

A

Brill-Zinsser disease

72
Q

Treatment for all 3 types of Typhus is _______ or ________

A

Doxycycline or chloramphenicol

73
Q

Human monocytic ehrlichiosis (HME) is caused by ______ ______

A

Erlichia chaffeensis

74
Q

Human granulocytic ehrlichiosis (HGE) is caused by _______ ______

A

Anaplasma phagocytophilum

75
Q

Rickettsia, Ehrlichia and Anaplasma are all (obligate intracellular / facultative intracellular)

A

obligate intracellular!

76
Q

Anaplasma and Ehrlichia live in _____ cells and form ______ in phagocytic vacuoles

A

white cells,

black berries = morulae

77
Q

In relapsing fever Borellia, there is a strong IL__ response

A

IL10

78
Q

What is the shape for Rickettsia, Ehrlichia and Anaplasma?

A

small cocci to short rods

79
Q

How do you visualize Rickettsia, Ehrlichia and Anaplasma?

A

microimmunofluorescents

80
Q

Dx: Rickettsia
Hx: currently pregnant
Rx: _________

A

chloremphenicol

81
Q

Dx: Rickettsia, Ehrlichia OR Anaplasma

Rx _______

A

tetracycline:

doxycycline

82
Q

Dx: Erlichia or Anaplasma
Hx: currently pregnant
Rx: _________

A

fluoroquinolones

83
Q

group of viruses that are transmitted by arthropod vectors are called ________

A

Arboviruses

84
Q

All the arboviruses we discussed are (RNA/DNA)

A

RNA

85
Q

All Arboviruses are transmitted by either _____ or _______

A

ticks or mosquitoes

86
Q

when the arbovirus lives in an animal it is called the _______ phase

A

zoonotic

87
Q

EEE is of the ________ virus family

A

togaviridae

88
Q

Hx: walking in cicero swap
CBC: elevated white count
Swelling in midbrain on T2 MRI
Dx: _____

A

EEE

89
Q

Which viral family can cause:

  1. Systemic febrile illness
  2. Fever w/ arthritis
  3. Encephalitis
  4. Hemorrhagic fever
A

Arboviruses

90
Q

For EEE humans are (resident hosts/ dead end hosts)

A

dead end hosts

91
Q

Hx: Hiking in Thailand
CBC: elevated white count
Swelling in midbrain on T2 MRI
Dx: _____

A

Japanese Encephalitis

92
Q

Japanese encephalitis and dengue are of the _______ virus family

A

Flaviviridea

93
Q

Yellow fever is spread by the insect _______

A

mosquitoes

94
Q

Yellow fever and dengue fever both cause (Fever with arthritis/ Encephalitis/ Hemorrhagic fever)

A

hemorrhagic fever

95
Q

Which is thermally dimorphic? (Sporotrichosis/ Chromomycosis)

A

Sporotrchosis

96
Q

Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by (IgE/ IgG/ T- cells)

A

IgE

97
Q

Type II and III hypersensitivity is mediated by (IgE/ IgG/ T- cells)

A

IgG

98
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity is mediated by (IgE/ IgG/ T- cells)

A

T-cells (Th1, Th2 or CTL cells)

99
Q

Mast cells are activated only in Type (I/ II/ III/ IV) hypersensitivity

A

Type I

100
Q

IgG bind FcR on phagocytes in type (I/ II/ III/ IV) hypersensitivity

A

Type II

101
Q

penicillin drug allergic reaction is typically a type (I/ II/ III/ IV) hypersensitivity

A

Type II

102
Q

serum sickness and arthus rxn are type (I/ II/ III/ IV) hypersensitivity

A

Type III

103
Q

Contact dermatitis is usually a type (I/ II/ III/ IV) hypersensitivity

A

Type IV

104
Q

Mismatched blood transfusions can lead to hemolytic anemia, at type (I/ II/ III/ IV) hypersensitivity

A

Type II

105
Q

all herpes viruses are (enveloped/naked)

A

enveloped

106
Q

During the acute phase of chagas, ______ can be seen in the blood with microscopy

A

trypomastigotes

107
Q

The triad of congenital toxoplasmosis is:

A
  1. chorioretinitis
  2. hydrocephalus
  3. intracranial calcifications
108
Q

In healthy people, Toxoplasmosis is the most common cause of what eye condition?

A

posterior uveitis

109
Q

In immunocompromised people, esp. HIV, toxoplasmosis can lead to (Gastrotoxoplasmosis/ Neurotoxoplasmosis/ Reprotoxoplasmosis)

A

neurotoxoplasmosis

the others are made up

110
Q

The detection of toxoplasmosis is primarily through ________

A

antibodies, directed against toxo

111
Q

Serology for Borellia burgdorfi will not become positive until (24 hours/ 2 days/ 2 weeks/ 2 months) post initial infection

A

2 weeks

112
Q

Erythema chronicum migrans, macular rash, bull’s eye pattern, flu like symptoms is Lyme stage (I/ II/ III)

A

Stage I

113
Q

Cardiac involvement, heart block, aseptic meningitis, Bell’s palsy possibly bilateral is Lyme state (I/ II/ III)

A

Stage II

114
Q

Lingering fatigue post treatment, joint pain, mental status change is Lyme stage (I/ II/ III)

A

Stage III

115
Q

Rheumatic fever is a post-_______ condition

A

post streptococcal

116
Q

The treatment for streptococcal pharyngitis is:

A
  1. Penicillin G or others:
  2. amoxicillin
  3. erythromycin
117
Q

Rheumatic fever is an (alloimmune/ autoimmune) disease

A

autoimmune

118
Q

The diagnosis of Rheumatic fever is based on the clinical features of fever, polyarthritis, mitral heart murmur and the antibody ________

A

IgM against streptolysin O

119
Q

In Rheumatic fever there (is/ is not) bacteremia

A

IS NOT, it is an autoimmune condition

120
Q

Rheumatic fever increases the risk of which heart condition?

A

endocardidits, due to damaged mitral valve

121
Q

Dental caries are caused by Streptococcus ________

A

viridians

122
Q

A child with a questionable vaccine history presents to the ED with systemic muscle paralysis. In the child’s mouth you see a pharyngeal mucus membrane. Lab culture shows gram (+) rods with clubbed ends
Dx:?

A

Diphtheria infection with diphtheria toxin

123
Q

How do you prevent diphtheria disease?

A

DTaP: diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus vaccine

124
Q

Patient presents to your PCP office. Hx of rheumatic fever. Splinter hemorrhages in fingernails and conjunctival hemorrhages are seen on exam. Your EKG shows widened PR intervals.
Dx:?

A

Bacterial Endocarditis

125
Q

What organism causes endocarditis post rheumatic fever? post-IV drug use?

A

post rheumatic: Strep viridans

post IV drugs: Staph aureus

126
Q

What two bug genus cause impetigo?

A

Streptococci and staphylococci

127
Q

A child present to your PCP office. She has a yellow crusted lesion around her mouth. culture shows gram (+) cocci, coagulase (+), beta-hemolytic, salt resistant.
The infective organism is ______

A

S. aureus, impetigo infection

128
Q

A child present to your PCP office. She has a yellow crusted lesion around her mouth. culture shows gram (+) cocci, coagulase (-), beta-hemolytic and bacitracin sensitive
The infective organism is ______

A

S. pyogenes

129
Q

Treatment for impetigo is ________

A

mupirocin ointment

130
Q

Infected piercing.

Infective organism is _________

A

staphylococcus epidermidis

131
Q

linear lesions especially on wrists or genitals. microscopy shows 8 legged mite.
Infectious organism _____ ______

A

Sarcoptes scabei

132
Q

treatment for Sarcoptes scabei is _______

A

permethrin

133
Q

facial acne is caused by the organism _____________ ______

A

propionobacterium acnes

134
Q

Skin abscess, Scalded Skin Syndrome and Toxic Shock syndrome are most commonly caused by ____ _____

A

staph aureus

135
Q

Which is more superficial (Erysipelas/ Cellulitis)

A

Erysipelas

136
Q

Necrotizing faciiitis is useually caused by __ ______

A

C. perfringens

137
Q

Ringworm type Tinea is caused by (Cladosorium weneckii/ Malassezia furfur/ dermatophytes)

A

dermatophytes

138
Q

Tinea Versicolor is caused by (Cladosorium weneckii/ Malassezia furfur/ dermatophytes)

A

Malassezia furfur

139
Q

Tinea Nigra is caused by (Cladosorium weneckii/ Malassezia furfur/ dermatophytes)

A

Cladosporium werneckii

140
Q

Which Tinea causes hypopigmented spots? (dermatophyte tinea/ tinea versicolor, furfur / tinea nigra, werneckii)

A

tinea versicolor= Malassezia furfur

141
Q

Which tinea only infects superficial keratinized structures (dermatophyte tinea/ tinea versicolor, furfur / tinea nigra, werneckii)

A

dermatophyte tinea

142
Q

Which type of tinea has the 3 major genera of 1. epidermophyton, 2. trichphyton, 3. microsporum? (dermatophyte tinea/ tinea versicolor, furfur / tinea nigra, werneckii)

A

dermatophyte tinea

143
Q

Which type of tinea can be viewed on microscopy with 10% KOH?
(dermatophyte tinea/ tinea versicolor, furfur / tinea nigra, werneckii)

A

Diagnostic for all of them!

dermatophyte tinea/ tinea versicolor, furfur / tinea nigra, werneckii

144
Q

Which type of tinea can be treated with oral griseofulvin? (dermatophyte tinea/ tinea versicolor, furfur / tinea nigra, werneckii)

A

dermatophyte tinea

145
Q

Which type of tinea can be treated with topical miconazole? (dermatophyte tinea/ tinea versicolor, furfur / tinea nigra, werneckii)

A

tinea versicolor = Malassezia furfur

146
Q

Which type of tinea should be treated with salacyclic acid and topical azole? (dermatophyte tinea/ tinea versicolor, furfur / tinea nigra, werneckii)

A

tinea nigra = cladosporium werneckii

147
Q

Which type of tinea generates brown pigments and appears as brown spots? (dermatophyte tinea/ tinea versicolor, furfur / tinea nigra, werneckii)

A

tinia nigra

148
Q

dermatophyte tinea, tinea versicolor and tinea nigra are all (cutaneous mycosis/ subcutaneous mycosis)

A

cutaneous, superficial

149
Q

Which is thermally dimorphic (Sporotrichosis/ Chromomycosis/ Mycetoma)

A

Sporotrichosis

150
Q

Sporotrichosis, Chromomycosis and Mycetoma are all (superficial cutaneous/ subcutaneous)

A

subcutaneous

151
Q

Which associated with roses and thorn puncture wounds (Sporotrichosis/ Chromomycosis/ Mycetoma)

A

Sporotrichosis

152
Q

On biopsy, this fungus has cigar shaped yeast, cultured at room temp it ha hyphea with oval conidia clusters (Sporotrichosis/ Chromomycosis/ Mycetoma)

A

Sporotrichosis

153
Q

Which causes dark, wart-like lesions, especially on the legs and feet? (Sporotrichosis/ Chromomycosis/ Mycetoma)

A

Chromomycosis

154
Q

Which might you get walking barefoot in a tropical location? (Sporotrichosis/ Chromomycosis/ Mycetoma)

A

Chromomycosis

155
Q

Which do you treat with itraconazole? (Sporotrichosis/ Chromomycosis/ Mycetoma)

A

Sporotrichosis

156
Q

Which do you treat with flucytosine of thiabendazole? (Sporotrichosis/ Chromomycosis/ Mycetoma)

A

Chromomycosis

157
Q

Which forms abscesses with pus containing colored granules and may require surgical excision? (Sporotrichosis/ Chromomycosis/ Mycetoma)

A

Mycetoma

158
Q

Which are you most likely to see on a patient in the US? (Dermatophytosis/ Chromomycosis/ Mycetoma)

A

Dermatophytosis

159
Q

Which of the following are Candidiasis virulence factors? (adhesion/ acid proteases/ phenotype switching/ intracellular evasion)

A

adhesion, acid proteases and phenotype switching

Candidiasis is not intracellular

160
Q

Which cell type is primarily responsible for killing tumors in the body? (NK cell/ CD4+ T cells/ CD8+ cytotoxic T cells)

A

CD8+ cytotoxic T cells

161
Q

List the 3 types of Typhus and their vectors

A
  1. Epidemic typhus - louse
  2. Murine Typhus - fleas
  3. Scrub Typhus - chiggers
162
Q

Which is more likely with a cat bite (Pasturella multocida/ Capnocytophaga species)

A

Pasturella multocida

163
Q

Which is more likely with a dog bite (Pasturella multocida/ Capnocytophaga canimorsus)

A

Capnocytophaga canimorsus

164
Q

Which can you pick up from lawn mowing and running over a rabbit? (Anthrax/tuleremia/brucellosis/plague/cat scratch fever/ leptospirosis)

A

Tularemia: Francisella tularensis

165
Q

which can be carried by cattle? (Anthrax/tuleremia/brucellosis/plague/cat scratch fever/ leptospirosis)

A

Anthrax: bacillus anthracis and
Brucellosis: Brucella species

166
Q

Which can cause a cyclic fever in the acute form of the disease (Anthrax/tuleremia/brucellosis/plague/cat scratch fever/ leptospirosis)

A

Brucellosis: Brucella species

167
Q

Which has gram (-) rods? (Anthrax/tuleremia/brucellosis/plague/cat scratch fever/ leptospirosis)

A
  1. Plague: Yersinia Pestis
  2. Tularemia
  3. Brucella
  4. Cat scratch disease: Bartonella henselae
168
Q

Which makes gram (+) endospores?(Anthrax/tuleremia/brucellosis/plague/cat scratch fever/ leptospirosis)

A

Antrax: Bacillus anthracis

169
Q

Which can lead to icterus with Weil disease? (Anthrax/tuleremia/brucellosis/plague/cat scratch fever/ leptospirosis)

A

leptospirosis

MS2 Unit 2 (9 decks)

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