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MS2 Unit 2 > Kaplan Pharm > Flashcards

Kaplan Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

choline uptake is inhibited by (hemicholinium/botulinum toxin)

A

hemicholinium

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2
Q

(hemicholinium/botulinum toxin) interacts with synaptobrevin to prevent ACh release

A

botulinum toxin

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3
Q

(hemicholinium/botulinum toxin) is used in blepharospasm, strabismus/hyperhydrosis, dystonia

A

botulinum toxin

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4
Q

M receptor activation (increases/decreases) CV function

A

decreases

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5
Q

M receptor activation (increases/decreases) secretions and (increases/decreases) smooth muscle contractions

A

increases both

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6
Q

all M receptor activators and blockers are (specific/nonspecific)

A

nonspecific

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7
Q

blood vessels are solely innervated by (symp/parasymp), so stimulation of autonomic ganglia results in vasoconstriction

A

sympathetic nervous system

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8
Q

the GI tract is dominated by (symp/parasymp) so ganglionic stimulation causes increased GI motility and secretions

A

parasymp

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9
Q

(ACh/bethanechol/methacholine/pilocarpine): treats glaucoma and xerostomia

A

pilocarpine

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10
Q

(ACh/bethanechol/methacholine/pilocarpine): treats bronchial hyperreactivity

A

methacholine

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11
Q

(ACh/bethanechol/methacholine/pilocarpine): treats ileus (postop/neurogenic), urinary retention

A

bethanechol

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12
Q

(ACh/bethanechol/methacholine/pilocarpine): short half life, no clinical use

A

ACh

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13
Q

ACh, bethanechol, methacholine, pilocarpine are muscarinic (agonists/antagonists)

A

agonists

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14
Q

(edrophonium/physostigmine/neostigmine and pryidostigmine/donepezil/organophosphates): treats glaucoma, lipid soluble, irreversible inhibitor

A

organophosphates

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15
Q

(edrophonium/physostigmine/neostigmine and pryidostigmine/donepezil/organophosphates): treats glaucoma, antidote in atropine overdose, enters CNS

A

physostigmine

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16
Q

(edrophonium/physostigmine/neostigmine and pryidostigmine/donepezil/organophosphates): treats ileus, urinary retention, myasthenia, reversal of nondepolarizing NM blockers

A

neostigmine and pyridostigmine

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17
Q

(edrophonium/physostigmine/neostigmine and pryidostigmine/donepezil/organophosphates): treats myasthenia; used to differentiate myasthenia from cholinergic crisis

A

edrophonium

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18
Q

(edrophonium/physostigmine/neostigmine and pryidostigmine/donepezil/organophosphates): treats Alzheimer disease

A

donepezil

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19
Q

ACh inhibitor poisoning mnemonic

A

Dumbbeelss

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20
Q

Dumbbeelss (ACh inhibitor mnemonic) stands for:

A

diarrhea, urination, miosis, bradycardia, bronchoconstriction, emesis, excitation (CNS/muscle), lacrimation, salivation, sweating

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21
Q

edrophonium, physostigmine, neostigmine, pyridostigmine, donepezil, organophosphates are: _____ (drug class)

A

AChE inhibitors (indirect acting cholinomimetics)

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22
Q

atropine, tropicamide, ipratropium, tiotropium, scopolamine, benztropine, trihexyphenidyl are: Muscarinic receptor (agonists/antagonists)

A

antagonists

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23
Q

(atropine/tropicamide/ipratropium and tiotropium/scopolamine/benztropine and trihexyphenidyl): lipid soluble (CNS entry), Parkinsons, acute extrapyramidal symptoms induced by antipsychotics

A

benztropine, trihexyphenidyl

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24
Q

(atropine/tropicamide/ipratropium and tiotropium/scopolamine/benztropine and trihexyphenidyl): used in motion sickness, causes sedation and short-term memory block

A

scopolamine

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25
Q

(atropine/tropicamide/ipratropium and tiotropium/scopolamine/benztropine and trihexyphenidyl):asthma and COPD, no CNS entry, no change in mucus viscosity

A

ipratropium, tiotropium

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26
Q

(atropine/tropicamide/ipratropium and tiotropium/scopolamine/benztropine and trihexyphenidyl): opathalmology

A

tropicamide

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27
Q

(atropine/tropicamide/ipratropium and tiotropium/scopolamine/benztropine and trihexyphenidyl): antispasmodic, antisecretory, management of AChE inhibitor overdose, antidiarrheal, opthalmology

A

atropine

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28
Q

Fenoldopam is a D1 (agonist/antagonist) used for severe HTN

A

agonist

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29
Q

(beta/alpha) receptors are usually more sensitive to activators than (alpha/beta) receptors

A

beta more sensitive than alpha

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30
Q

phenylephrine for nasal congestion and opthalmologic use: an alpha1 (agonist/antagonist)

A

agonist

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31
Q

clonidine and methyldopa for HTN: alpha (1/2) (agonist/antagonist)

A

alpha2 agonist

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32
Q

isoproterenol is a beta (agonist/antagonist)

A

agonist. effect on B1=B2

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33
Q

dobutamine is a beta (agonist/antagonist)

A

agonist. effect on B1 > effect on B2

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34
Q

isoproterenol is a beta agonist used for treatment of: (three conditions)

A

bronchospasm, heart block, bradyarrhthmias

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35
Q

dobutamine is a beta agonist used for treatment of: (one condition)

A

CHF

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36
Q

selective beta (1/2) agonists: salmeterol, albuterol, terbutaline (for asthma)

A

beta 2 agonists

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37
Q

(salmeterol/albuterol/terbutaline): beta 2 agonist used in premature labor

A

terbutaline

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38
Q

tyramine, amphetamines, ephedrine, cocaine, and tricyclic antidepressants are (direct/indirect) acting adrenergic receptor agonists

A

indirect

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39
Q

(releasers/reuptake inhibitors): tyramine, amphetamines, ephedrine

A

releasers

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40
Q

(releasers/reuptake inhibitors): cocaine, tricyclic antidepressants

A

reuptake inhibitors

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41
Q

nonselective alpha (agonist/blocker): phentolamine, phenoxybenzamine

A

blocker

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42
Q

(phentolamine/phenoxybenzamine): competitive inhibitor of alpha receptors

A

phentolamine

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43
Q

(phentolamine/phenoxybenzamine): noncompetitive inhibitor of alpha receptors

A

phenoxybenzamine

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44
Q

alpha receptor (agonists/blockers): used for HTN, pheochromocytoma, benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

blockers

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45
Q

prazosin, doxazosin, terazosin, tamsulosin: alpha (1/2) (agonist/blocker)

A

alpha 1 blocker

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46
Q

mirtazapine (antidepressant): alpha (1/2) (agonist/blocker)

A

alpha 2 blocker

47
Q

(alpha/beta) (1/2) blockade: ↓HR, ↓SV, ↓CO, ↓renin release

A

beta 1 blockade

48
Q

(alpha/beta) (1/2) blockade: bronchospasm, ↓aqueous humor production, blocks glycogenolysis, blocks gluconeogenesis

A

beta 2 blockade

49
Q

three beta 1 selective blockers: (acebutolol/timolol/atenolol/pindolol/propranolol/metoprolol)

A

acebutolol, atenolol, metoprolol

50
Q

three beta non selective blockers: (acebutolol/timolol/atenolol/pindolol/propranolol/metoprolol)

A

pindolol, propranolol, timolol

51
Q

atenolol, beta blocker, (can/cannot) enter the CNS

A

cannot

52
Q

propranolol, acebutolol, esmolol are beta blockers used for:

A

arrhythmias

53
Q

(timolol/atenolol/propranolol) is a beta blocker used for glaucoma

A

timolol

54
Q

(timolol/atenolol/propranolol) is a beta blocker used for migraine, thyrotoxicosis, performance anxiety, essential tremor

A

propranolol

55
Q

labetalol and carvedilol have beta blocking and (alpha 1 blocking/K channel blocking) activity

A

alpha 1 blocking

56
Q

(labetalol/carvedilol): used in CHF

A

carvedilol

57
Q

(labetalol/carvedilol): used in hypertensive emergencies

A

labetalol

58
Q

sotalol is a beta blocker with (alpha 1 blocking/K channel blocking) activity

A

K channel blocking

59
Q

mixed agonist (epi/norepi): alpha 1, alpha 2, beta 1

A

norepi

60
Q

mixed agonist (epi/norepi): alpha 1, alpha 2, beta 1, beta 2

A

epi

61
Q

(M1/M2/M3) activation: miosis (sphincter contraction), ciliary muscle contraction for near vision accommodation

A

M3

62
Q

(M1/M2/M3) activation: decrease in HR (SA node) and conduction velocity (AV node)

A

M2

63
Q

(M1/M2/M3) activation: bronchospasm (bronchiole contraction), lung gland secretion

A

M3

64
Q

(M1/M2/M3) activation: increase stomach motility (cramps), intestine contraction (diarrhea, involuntary, defecation)

A

M3

65
Q

(M1/M2/M3) activation: increase GI gland secretion

A

M1

66
Q

(M1/M2/M3) activation: bladder contraction (detrusor), relaxation (trigone/sphincter), voiding, urinary incontinence

A

M3

67
Q

(M1/M2/M3) activation: sphincter relaxation except lower esophageal, which contracts

A

M3

68
Q

(M1/M2/M3) activation: gland secretion (sweat, salivation, lacrimation)

A

M3

69
Q

(M1/M2/M3) activation: dilation of blood vessels via NO/endothelium-derived relaxing factor

A

M3

70
Q

(pilocarpine and echothiophate/timolol): activation of M receptors causes contraction of ciliary muscle, which increases flow through the canal of Schlemm

A

pilocarpine and echothiophate

71
Q

(pilocarpine/echothiophate): AChE inhibitor to increase outflow in treatment of glaucoma

A

echothiophate (organophosphate)

72
Q

(pilocarpine and echothiophate/timolol): blocks action of NE at ciliary epithelium, decreases aqueous humor formation

A

timolol

73
Q

methyl p-tyrosine blocks which enzyme in the catecholamine synthesis pathway

A

tyrosine hydroxylase (tyrosine to dopa)

74
Q

alpha 2 Gi coupled receptor (increases/decreases) cAMP

A

decreases

75
Q

beta 1, beta 2, D1 Gs coupled receptor (increases/decreases) cAMP

A

increases

76
Q

____: autacoid released from mast cells and basophils by type I HSR, drugs, venoms, and trauma

A

histamine

77
Q

H1 activation: (increases/decreases) capillary dilation

A

increases, via NO

78
Q

H1 activation: (increases/decreases) blood pressure

A

decreases, via capillary dilation

79
Q

H1 activation: (increases/decreases) capillary permeability

A

increases

80
Q

H1 activation: (increases/decreases) edema

A

increases, via increased capillary permeability

81
Q

H1 activation: (increases/decreases) bronchiolar smooth muscle contraction

A

increases

82
Q

H1 activation: (increases/decreases) activation of peripheral nociceptive receptors

A

increases (increases pain and pruritus)

83
Q

H1 activation: (increases/decreases) AV nodal conduction

A

decreases

84
Q

(H1/H2) activation: increases gastric acid secretion, increasing GI ulcers

A

H2

85
Q

(H1/H2) activation: increased SA nodal rate, positive inotropism

A

H2

86
Q

H1 antagonists act as (competitive/noncompetitive) antagonists of histamine

A

competitive

87
Q

since H1 antagonists act competitively, they are (equally effective/ineffective) at high levels of histamine

A

ineffective

88
Q

H1 antagonist adverse effect: (N/M) block and sedation

A

M block

89
Q

H1 antagonists require metabolism in the _____ and (do/do not) cross the placental barrier

A

liver, do cross the placental barrier

90
Q

most widely used H1 antagonist: (meclizine/chlorpheniramine/promethazine/cetirizine/loratadine/diphenhydramine/fexofenadine)

A

diphenhydramine

91
Q

H1 antagonist with strong M blocking, sedation, antimotion, and some alpha block, local anesthetic action: (meclizine/chlorpheniramine/promethazine/cetirizine/loratadine/diphenhydramine/fexofenadine)

A

promethazine

92
Q

(meclizine/chlorpheniramine/promethazine/cetirizine/loratadine/diphenhydramine/fexofenadine): H1 antagonist with possible CNS stimulation

A

chlorpheniramine

93
Q

(meclizine/chlorpheniramine/promethazine/cetirizine/loratadine/diphenhydramine/fexofenadine): strongest antimotion properties

A

meclizine

94
Q

(meclizine/chlorpheniramine/promethazine/cetirizine/loratadine/diphenhydramine/fexofenadine): three H1 antagonists that don’t cross the BBB, only used for allergic rxns

A

cetirizine (zyrtec), loratadine, fexofenadine

95
Q

_____: autacoid synthesized and stored in GI cells, neurons, and platelets. MAO type A degrades it

A

serotonin 5HT

96
Q

5HT3 receptor is a (GPCR/ion channel)

A

ion channel

97
Q

six out of the seven 5HT receptor types are (GPCRs/ion channels)

A

GPCRs

98
Q

5HT (1/2/3): found in CNS (usually inhibitory), smooth muscle (excitatory or inhibitory)

A

1

99
Q

5HT (1/2/3): found in CNS (excitatory)

A

2

100
Q

5HT (1/2/3): found in area postrema, peripheral sensory and enteric nerves

A

3

101
Q

5HT (1/2/3): drugs are buspirone and sumatripan and other -tripans

A

1

102
Q

5HT (1/2/3): drugs are olanzapine and cyproheptadine

A

2

103
Q

5HT (1/2/3): drugs are ondansetron and -setrons

A

3

104
Q

(buspirone/sumatripan): anxiolytic for generalized anxiety disorder

A

buspirone

105
Q

(buspirone/sumatripan): decrease migraine pain

A

sumatripan

106
Q

(buspirone/sumatripan): side effects could include asthenia, chest or throat pressure or pain

A

sumatripan

107
Q

(olanzapine/cyproheptadine): atypical antipsychotic

A

olanzapine

108
Q

(olanzapine/cyproheptadine): used in carcinoid, GI tumors, postgastrectomy, anorexia nervosa

A

cyproheptadine

109
Q

ondansteron decreases emesis via which receptor

A

5HT3

110
Q

ergotamine acts as partial agonists at both (alpha/beta) and (H1/5HT1/5HT2) receptors in the vasculature and possibly CNS

A

alpha and 5HT2

111
Q

ergotamine: vaso (constriction/dilation) to cerebral vessels

A

vaso constriction: decrease pulsation

112
Q

use ergotamine for (chronic/acute) migraines

A

acute attack

113
Q

ergotamine is contraindicated in pregnancy because…

A

highly vasoconstrictive, will cause abortion near term

MS2 Unit 2 (9 decks)

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