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Micro Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Helminths

A

parasitic worms

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2
Q

Examples of parasitic worms include:

A

roundworms (Ascaris), tapeworms, pinworms, and hookworms

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3
Q

Protoza are transmitted through

A

ingestion, the fecal-oral route, insect bites, or direct contact with the genitourinary tract.

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4
Q

Protoza cause diseases such as

A

amebic dysentery, trichomoniasis vaginalis, and malaria

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5
Q

Mycotic infection is caused by

A

fungi

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6
Q

Yeast are cable of causing infections such as

A

thrush (Candida albicans), vaginitis, and histoplasmosis (respiratory fungal infection)

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7
Q

Molds cause diseases such as

A

ringworm and athlete’s foot (tinea pedis)

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8
Q

Rickettsiae are transmitted by what and cause what diseases

A

vectors and cause Rocky Mountain Spotted fever, typhus fever, Lyme disease. Most common vector is ticks

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9
Q

Viruses can be broken down into four broad categories. Name them.

A

Pneumotropic: respiratory system
neurotropic: Nervous system
Dermatropic: integumentary system
Viscerotropic: Affect multiple or all body systems

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10
Q

Bacteriophages

A

Viruses that attach to and invade a bacterium

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11
Q

During viral infections, host cells produce what three things to prevent the replication of viruses to other cells?

A

inflammatory response, antibodies, and interferons

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12
Q

What is the most common type of viral hepatitis?

A

Hepatitis A

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13
Q

Hepatitis A is spread how?

A

by ingestion of contaminated food and water and by fecal contamination

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14
Q

Hepatitis B is spread how?

A

blood, saliva, semen, and other body fluids

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15
Q

Hepatitis C is spread how?

A

blood

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16
Q

HIV attacks what two types of cells?

A

white blood cells and T cells

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17
Q

Herpes zoster causes

A

shingles

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18
Q

HPV causes

A

veneral warts (condylomas)

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19
Q

Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies are a group of diseases caused by what?

A

Prions

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20
Q

Cytomegalovirus causes what?

A

enlargement of affected organs

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21
Q

What is the choice of drug for streptococci infections?

A

vancomycin

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22
Q

What is the most common cause of surgical site infections?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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23
Q

Treponema pallidum causes

A

syphilis

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24
Q

Clostridium tetani causes

A

tetanus

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25
Q

Clostridium perfringens causes

A

gas gangrene

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26
Q

Endospores are found in about 150 types of what bacteria?

A

gram positive bacilli

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27
Q

Endotoxins are secreted by

A

gram-negative rods

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28
Q

Exotoxins are secreted by

A

gram-positive spore forming rods

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29
Q

Hyaluronidase

A

proteolytic enzyme which hydrolyzes the body’s hyaluronic acid (intracellular adhesive) which allows the organism to spread Ex. Streptococci and clostridium perfringens

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30
Q

Fibrinolysin

A

enzyme produced by some virulent organisms (hemolytic streptococci) that breaks down fibrin and is a major factor in wound infection

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31
Q

Coagulase

A

enzyme produced by some bacteria that speeds up the blood clotting mechanism and induce thrombus formation

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32
Q

Leukocidin

A

enzyme produced by some bacteria that destroys WBCs

33
Q

At what pH do most pathogens thrive?

A

7 or 7.35-7.45 (similar to the body)

34
Q

At what temperature do most pathogens thrive?

A

37C or 98.6F

35
Q

Mutualism

A

beneficial to both organisms

36
Q

Commensalism

A

one organism benefits while the other doesn’t benefit or isn’t harmed

37
Q

parasitism

A

one organism thrives at the expense of the host

38
Q

What is the first line of defense against bacterial infections?

A

The skin, mucous membranes, body fluid, cilia, and normal flora

39
Q

List the four factors that determine whether one exposed to a disease will contract it

A
  1. Resistance of the host
  2. Virulence of the mircoorgamism
  3. number of organism present
  4. duration of exposure
40
Q

list the 9 factors that lowers host resistance

A

presence of another disease process, hormone imbalance, destruction of lymphatics by antineoplastic (cancer) drugs or radiation therapy, poor circulation, poor nutritional stat, sue of anti-inflammatory drugs, extremes of age, destruction of normal flora, and emotional depression

41
Q

leukocytosis means

A

elevated WBC

42
Q

suppuration means

A

pus

43
Q

What percentage of transmissible spongiform encephalopathies have no known source of transmission? What percentage of them have been traced to medically related exposure?

A

90%, 1%

44
Q

Streptococci appear in what type of arrangement?

A

Chains

45
Q

Are most streptococci gram negative or positive?

A

Positive

46
Q

Facultative means

A

Can live with or without oxygen

47
Q

Streptococci are commonly found in what areas of the body?

A

Upper respiratory tract, GI and GU tract.

48
Q

Hemolytic streptococcus are capable of what?

A

Hemolyzing blood

49
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

gonorrhea

50
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

Pneumonia

51
Q

Puerperal means

A

After child birth

52
Q

Saprophytic means

A

Living on dead or decaying matter

53
Q

Stephylococcus aureus gains access through the body how?

A

Respiratory tract, breaks in skin, and mucous membranes.

54
Q

Treponema pallium

A

Syphilis

55
Q

Septicemia means

A

Infection in the blood

56
Q

What is MRSA? How is it transmitted?

A

Methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus. contact

57
Q

What is VRE? How is it transmitted?

A

Vancomycin. Resistant enterococcus, contact

58
Q

Vancomycin-intermediate resistant staphylococcus aureus was first seen in the US in what year?

A

1997

59
Q

Microbes are composed of what percentage of water? What does this make them vulnerable to?

A

75-80% desiccation drying out as a means of inhibition of growth.

60
Q

Most pathogenic bacteria thrive in what type of light? What type of light destroys them?

A

Darkness, UV light

61
Q

Where do autotrophic bacteria obtain their energy from? Heterotrophic? Parasite?

A

Carbon dioxide in inorganic matter. Dead organic material (saprophytes). Living matter.

62
Q

What is the body’s second line of defense against infection?

A

Inflammatory response and phagocytosis

63
Q

What are the five signs of inflammation?

A
  1. Redness
  2. Heat
  3. Swelling
  4. Pain
  5. Disturbance of function
64
Q

What is the body’s third line of defense?

A

Antigen-antibody reaction

65
Q

Define antigen.

A

Foreign substance or microbe entering the body

66
Q

Define antibody

A

Protein substance, produced by the body in response to a specific antigen, which serves to provide immunity

67
Q

Define Immunoglobulins.

A

Family of plasma proteins that contain antibodies tested to determine immunity.

68
Q

What are the five classes of antibiotics?

A
  1. Antitoxins: neutralize toxins
  2. Agglutinins: cause clumping of bacteria
  3. Lying: cause bacteria to dissolve
  4. Opponents: increase vulnerability of pathogens to phagocytosis
  5. precipitous: cause bacteria to settle out of blood for filtration by lymph nodes.
69
Q

Define Interferon.

A

Chemical produced by a cell that has been attacked by a virus to prevent replication in similar cells.

70
Q

Define active immunity. What are the 2 types.

A

Antibodies are formed following exposure to antigens, long lasting.

  1. Naturally acquired: resulting from having a disease and recovering.
  2. Artificially acquired: produced by receiving a vaccine.
71
Q

Define passive immunity. What are the two types.

A

Antibodies from an outside source are supplied the immunity is borrowed, short lived.

  1. naturally acquired: antibodies are passed from mother to fetus through placenta or breast milk
  2. Artificially acquired: antibodies from another source (immune serum) are injected, usually after exposure to disease (antigen)
72
Q

An unusual susceptibility to an antigen that is ordinarily harmless to others is

A

An allergy

73
Q

What are symptoms of anaphylaxis?

A

Irritability, dyspnea, swelling, urticaria, hypotension, and headache

74
Q

Urticaria

A

Rash, irching, redness

75
Q

Treatment of anaphylaxis includes what

A

Vasopressor drugs (epinephrine) anti-histamines, oxygen, and corticosteroids.

76
Q

Metabolism increases approximately what % for every degree Fahrenheit rise in temperature?

A

7

77
Q

A minimum of how many air exchanges per hour should occur?

A

15-20

78
Q

What are the four stages of an acute infection?

A

Incubation, prodromal (vague symptoms), acute, covalescence (recovery)

Microbiology (12 decks)

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