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REPRO > MICRO > Flashcards

MICRO Flashcards

1
Q

which bugs cause genital ulcers? (4)

A

HSV-2
Primary syphilis: Treponema pallidum
LGV: Chlamydia trachomatis (L1-L3)
Chancroid Haemophilis ducreyi

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2
Q

which subtypes of chlamydia cause genital ulcers?

A

L1-L3

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3
Q

which subtypes of chlamydia cause drips?

A

D-K

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4
Q

which bugs cause drips? (6)

A

Chlamydia Trachomatis (D-K)
GC
Ureaplasma urelyticum

Trichomonas
Candidiasis
Bacterial vaginosis

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5
Q

what causes the chancroid?

A

Haemophilis ducreyi (G- rod) in poor people

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6
Q

what is the main bug that causes bacterial vaginosis?

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

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7
Q

which 3 bugs commonly cause warts?

A

HPV (6,11 for genital warts)
secondary syphilis
Molluscum contagiosum (pox)

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8
Q

how do we diagnose HSV today?

A

BLOOD PCR

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9
Q

which bug is gram neg and oxidase +?

A

GC

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10
Q

which bug requires growth on Thayer martin medium?

A

GC

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11
Q

which bug looks like 2 kissing kidney beans?

A

GC

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12
Q

which bug is AKA the clap?

A

GC

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13
Q

what is the gold standard diagnosis for GC?

A

gram stain

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14
Q

what is the gold standard diagnosis for chlamydia trachomatis?

A

NAAT (PCR)

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15
Q

how do you treat GC if you see it on gram stain?

A

ceftriaxone plus azithromycin (treat for both GC & CT)

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16
Q

which microbe looks like cottage cheese?

A

candidiasis

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17
Q

which bug has clue cells?

A

bacterial vaginosis (classically Gardnerella)

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18
Q

what kind of genome does HPV have?

A

nonenveloped, circular dsDNA virus

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19
Q

what kind of genome does HSV have?

A

large dsDNA w/ lipid envelope

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20
Q

where is the genome of HPV in benign cells?

A

extrachromosomal

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21
Q

where is the genome of HPV in malignant cells?

A

within the host genome

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22
Q

what might happen to the fetus if mom has syphilis?

A

still birth or spontaneous infection

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23
Q

which pathology causes these symptoms:

-frontal bossing, saddle nose, notches in incisors

A

congenital syphilis

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24
Q

what 2 bugs can cause opthalmia neonatorum?

A

GC & Chlamydia

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25
Q

how do we diagnose HSV1 or 2 today?

A

PCR

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26
Q

is Neisseria gonorrhoeae oxidase positive or negative?

A

oxidase positive

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27
Q

which STD microbe has characteristic antigenic variation?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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28
Q

name the microbe: 2 kidney been shaped bacteria touching each other in a neutrophil?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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29
Q

is HPV enveloped or non-enveloped?

A

non-enveloped

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30
Q

how are laryngeal papillomas transmitted?

A

at birth in up to 50% of cases

31
Q

what are the EBs in chlamydial infections?

A

they are infectious and metabolically inert

32
Q

what are the RBs in chlamydial infections?

A

reticulate bodies, that grow within a membrane bound vacuole (inclusion body) in the CYTOPLASM of mucosal epithelial cells

33
Q

does Neisseria Gonorrhoeae have a capsule?

A

no capsule

34
Q

what are the 2 mechanisms which are responsible for antigenic variation in GC infection?

A 
pilus variation (various silent peptide encoding loci with no promoter into an expression locus with a promoter)
outer membrane surface protein variation
35
Q

name the STD microbial bug that is restricted to mucosal epithelial cells and can’t disseminate to the blood or lymph

A

chlamydia trachomatis

36
Q

name the STD microbe that causes genital tract infections and totally lacks cell walls?

A

ureaplasma

37
Q

which bug which often causes urethritis is most likely to disseminate causing sepsis with rash, sometimes aseptic arthritis, rarely endocarditis, and very rarely meningitis?

A

GC

38
Q

what are some of the signs/symptoms of pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

dull to severe lower abdominal pain, signs/symptoms of cervicitis, adnexal tenderness, cervical motion tenderness, fever

39
Q

what are some of the complications of PID?

A

sterility, ectopic pregnancy, chronic pelvic pain

40
Q

which STD microbe can cause infant pneumonia?

A

chlamydia trachomatis

41
Q

name the microbe: causes repetitive staccato cough with tachypnea in 1-4 months baby

A

chlamydia trachomatis

42
Q

is the gram stain STD exudates more accurate in males or females?

A

more accurate in males

43
Q

name the type of chocolate blood agar growth medium used to grow GC

A

Thayer-Martin

44
Q

what is the MC way to diagnose GC or chlamydia?

A

NAAT on urine or cervical/urethral exudates

45
Q

what is the purpose of the immediate early HSV protein expression?

A

has transcriptional regulators that redirect the host to preferentially transcribe viral genes over host genes

46
Q

what are the important components of the early genes made by HSV?

A

thymidine kinase is made as a part of the early proteins, components of virally-encoded DNA polymerase

47
Q

what are the HSV late proteins responsible for?

A

late genes make capsomeres, envelope glycoproteins, and other structural proteins (syncytia form as a result of cell to cell fusion)

48
Q

what is the name of the only viral product that is expressed during the maintenance phase of HSV infection?

A

Latency associated transcript (LAT)

-RNA that silences genes to prevent apoptosis of the infected neuron

49
Q

where does virus assembly happen in HSV infected cells?

A

nucleus (explains why there are intranuclear inclusion bodies)

50
Q

what is the name of the old school test that allows you to see HSV syncitia formations?

A

Tzanck Smear

51
Q

about how long after initial HSV infection will the multiple blisters show up?

A

2 weeks

52
Q

which type of HSV genital infection is has more frequent recurrence HSV1 or HSV2?

A

HSV2

53
Q

What are some of the prodromal symptoms of HSV genital infections?

A

muscle aches of the legs and BUTT

54
Q

what are some of the ocular infections that are caused by HSV?

A

primary: blepharitis & conjunctivitis (children)
recurrent: keratitis (corneal scarring)

55
Q

what are some of the CNS infections that are caused by HSV?

A

Encephalitis: recurrent HSV1 in adults, primary HSV2 in neonates
meningitis: 10% of HSV2 cases

56
Q

if mom presents with herpetic lesions at the time of delivery, what do you do?

A

C/S

57
Q

a normal EEG rules out encephalitis caused by what microbe?

A

HSV

58
Q

what are some of the agents of bacterial vaginosis?

A

Anaerobes: Gardnerella vaginalis, Mobiluncus

59
Q

what fungi can cause candidiasis?

A

candida albicans, C.glabrata

60
Q

what are the 2 different kind of microbes that can cause the pH of the vagina to become greater than 4.5?

A 
trichomoniasis
Bacterial vaginosis (gardnerella vaginalis)
61
Q

which two types of microbes can cause a positive whiff test (fishy odor with 10% KOH)

A

trichomonas

gardnerella

62
Q

how could you distinguish trichomonas vaginitis from gardnerella vaginosis?

A

trichomoniasis has yellow//green/frothy discharge

bacterial vaginosis has white or gray discharge (with clue cells)

63
Q

how would you definitively diagnose trichomoniasis?

A

wet mount showing trichomonads

64
Q

describe the inner membrane and outer membrane of syphilis?

A

inner membrane–>a periplasm w/ peptidoglycan

outer membernae/sheath

65
Q

name the structure in the periplasm of spirochetes which make them motile?

A

axial filaments

66
Q

about how many weeks after initial infection will primary syphilis show up?

A

2-3 wk incubation with symptoms resolving in 3-6 wks

67
Q

when does secondary syphilis typically show up after the initial infection?

A

a month or two

68
Q

name for syphilitic infection where the mucous membrane patches in mouth and genitals and sometimes on togue

A

snail track lesions

69
Q

where would you find condylomata lata anatomically?

A

moist skin folds in perineum and anal regions

70
Q

how can a baby get congenital syphilis?

A

transmitted transplacentally after first trimester via blood

71
Q

what are some of the late congenital syphilis signs/symptoms?

A

saber shins, frontal bossing
vision defects (gun barrel sight)
Hutchison’s triad: screwdriver teeth, keratitis, deafness

72
Q

what is hutchison’s triad?

A

screwdriver teeth
keratitis
deafness

73
Q

what is the antigen in the RPR/VDRL test?

A

beef heart mitochondria cardiolipin

74
Q

what is the name of the test which is specific for treponemes?

A

Fluorescent treponemal antigen-absorbed Test (FTA-ABS)

REPRO (13 decks)

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