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ARRT Kettering > Merryl and Meaghan Perritti Board Review > Flashcards

Merryl and Meaghan Perritti Board Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Scintillator made of?

A

Cesium Iodide

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2
Q

What is the purpose of the Scintillator?

A

Converts X-rays to Light

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3
Q

What is a photodiode made of?

A

Amorphous Silicon

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4
Q

What is a Scintillator made of?

A

Cesium Iodide

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5
Q

Number of Ionizations in Air

A

Exposure

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6
Q

Measures the energy of ionizations in air

A

Air KERMA

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7
Q

Air KERMA unit of measurement is:

A

Gya

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8
Q

1 Gy=

A

1 joule/kilogram (J/kg)

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9
Q

KERMA stands for:

A

Kinetic Energy Released in Matter

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10
Q

Energy absorbed in matter per unit mass

A

Absorbed Dose (D)

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11
Q

Includes photoelectric and absorption and Compton scatter

A

Absorbed Dose (D)

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12
Q

Absorbed Dose=

A

Photoelectric + Compton

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13
Q

If you increase mA how would it effect absorbed dose to patient?

A

increase

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14
Q

Increase SID how would that effect absorbed dose?

A

decrease

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15
Q

Expressed as Sieverts

A

Equivalent Dose

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16
Q

Equivalent Dose is expressed as

A

Sieverts

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17
Q

Factor reflecting the relative harmfulness of various types of radiation

A

WR

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18
Q

Wr for X-rays, Beta, Gamma Rays

A

1

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19
Q

Determined by multiplying the absorbed dose by radiation weighting factor

A

Equivalent Dose (EqD)

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20
Q

X-rays have a ______ LET and _________ RBE

A

low, low

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21
Q

The amount of energy deposited per unit length of track

A

LET

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22
Q

Gy x Wr = Sv

A

Equivalent Dose

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23
Q

Sv = Gy x Wt x Wr

A

Effective Dose

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24
Q

Can be used to calculate the risk of cancer

A

Effective Dose

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25
Q

A calculated dose that takes into account the type of radiation the patient was exposed to (equivalent dose) as well as what part of the body was irradiated

A

Effective dose

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26
Q

Where is the image intensifier?

A

-In stationary fluoroscopy room above the patient
-In mobile fluoroscopy + C-arm (it should be placed above the patient, but can be placed in a lateral position)

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27
Q

Input phosphor is made of:

A

Cesium Iodide

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28
Q

Focuses the beam in the image intensifier

A

Electrostatic Lens

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29
Q

The output phosphor is made of:

A

zinc Cadmium Sulfide

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30
Q

Image Intensifier Process:

A

XLELM
-X-rays are converted to light in the input phosphor, light to electrons in the photocathode, electrons to light, converts the light photons to electrical signal (CCD), see on the monitor screen

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31
Q

Mobile Fluoroscopy SSD:

A

30 cm

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32
Q

Stationary Fluoroscopy SSD:

A

38 cm

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33
Q

Spell HIPAA

A

HIPAA

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34
Q

If you increase the kVp, what will happen to the speed of x-rays?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remain the Same

A

Remain the Same

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35
Q

If you are collimated to a 14 x 17 to 10 x 12 what will happen to receptor exposure, contrast, % scatter?

A

Receptor Exposure: Decrease
Contrast: Increase
Scatter: Decrease

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36
Q

What Projection? What sinuses are seen?

A

AP Axial, NO sinuses seen

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37
Q

Leakage Radiation Occurs at:

A

1 mGy per hour at 1 meter

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38
Q

Radiation that comes out of the tube housing is called:

A

Leakage Radiation

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39
Q

What is a mR or mGy?

A

1/1000 Gy

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40
Q

What is a milli?

A

one thousandth

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41
Q

FOV/Matrix

A

Pixel Size

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42
Q

Pixel Size x Matrix

A

FOV

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43
Q

FOV/Pixel Size

A

Matrix

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44
Q

The distance between the center of one pixel to the center of another pixel

A

Pixel Pitch

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45
Q

Inherent Filtration has to be:

A

.5 mm of Aluminum

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46
Q

The glass envelope, the oil, the mirror from collimator has to be:

A

2 mm Aluminum Equivalent

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47
Q

How does filtration minimize patient exposure?

A
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48
Q

How does filtration effect receptor exposure? Contrast?

A

Decrease
Decrease

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49
Q

Low kVp is:

A

increase contrast

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50
Q

High hVp is:

A

Decreased contrast

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51
Q

When filtration is increased

A

contrast is decreased

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52
Q
A

Image Intensifier

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53
Q
A

label

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54
Q

.000375 ms to seconds

A

.000000375 seconds

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55
Q

25 cm is how many mm?

A

250 mm

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56
Q

300 ms to seconds

A

.3 seconds

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57
Q

1 inch=

A

2.54 cm
25.4 mm

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58
Q

Lead and Concrete Equivalent for Primary Protective Barrier

A

1.6 mm

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59
Q

The length of the portable exposure cord?

A

2 meters

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60
Q
A

Mortise View of the ankle
15 degrees

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61
Q
A

Medial Oblique of the ankle
45 degrees

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62
Q

Gall bladder location of a hypersthenic patient

A

High and Transverse
Level T10-T11

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63
Q

Stomach location for Hypersthenic patient

A

High and more transverse
Level T9-T12

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64
Q

Duodenal Bulb location for Hypersthenic patient

A

T11-T12

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65
Q

Stomach location for a Hyposthenic/Asthenic patient

A

T11-L5

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66
Q

Duodenal bulb location for Hyposthenic/Asthenic patient:

A

L3-L4

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67
Q

Gallbladder location for Hyposthenic/Asthenic patient:

A

L3-L4 (just above crest)

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68
Q

Name the Body Habitus.
A.
B.
C.
D.

A

A. Sthenic
B. Hyposthenic
C. Asthenic
D. Hypersthenic

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69
Q

Identify the body habitus.
A.
B.
C.

A

A. Hypersthenic
B. Sthenic
C. Asthenic/Hyposthenic

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70
Q

Why is the right hemidyaphragm positioned more superior than the left?

A

Liver

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71
Q

What condition might cause flattening of the diaphragm?

A

Emphysema/COPD

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72
Q

What study and what position?

A

Upper GI
PA (air in the fundus)

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73
Q
A

The patient is not oblique enough
Oblique the patient more
35-40 degrees

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74
Q
A

RAO drinking Esophagus
35-40 degrees

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75
Q

What is this? What is it used for?

A

Swallowing Dysfunction Study (CINE)
Aspiration
Stroke Patients

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76
Q

KNOW ANATOMY

A
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77
Q

KNOW ANATOMY

A
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78
Q

KNOW ANATOMY

A
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79
Q

KNOW ANATOMY

A
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80
Q

What lives in the C-loop of the duodenum?

A

Head of the pancreas

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81
Q

What position?
What Projection?

A

Prone (PA)

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82
Q

What position?
What projection?

A

Supine (AP)

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83
Q

What position?

A

RAO

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84
Q

What position?

A

LPO

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85
Q

What Projection?
What is it demonstrating?

A

Right Lateral Stomach
Retrogastric Space

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86
Q

What position?

A

Right Lateral Stomach

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87
Q

Know Anatomy

A
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88
Q

Know Anatomy

A
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89
Q

The order of the small Intestine:

A
  1. Duodenum
  2. Jejunum
  3. IlEum
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90
Q

Performed to best compress the bowel:

A

Prone Abdomen

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91
Q

Know anatomy

A
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92
Q

transverse colon sits:

A

anteriorly to the flextures

93
Q

Maximum enema bag height is above the table:

A

18-24 inches ( cm)

94
Q

BE tip insertion:

A

sims position

95
Q

What study?

A

Supine AP And Prone- Single Contrast Study

96
Q

If the patient is in an RPO which flexture is opened up?

A

The Upside
The Splenic

97
Q

If the patient is in an LPO which flexture is opened up?

A

The Upside
The Hepatic Flexture

98
Q

If the patient is in an RAO which flexture is opened up?

A

Hepatic Flexture
The downside

99
Q

If the patient is in an LAO which flexture is opened up?

A

Splenic Flecture
The downside

100
Q

What position?

A

LPO
RAO

101
Q

What position?

A

RPO
LAO

102
Q

RAO & LPO will both demonstrate:

A

Right Hepatic Flexture

103
Q

LAO & RPO will both demonstrate the:

A

Left Splenic Flexture

104
Q

What position? What is best demonstrated?

A

LPO
Right Hepatic Flexture Best Demonstrated

105
Q

What position? What is best demonstrated?

A

RAO
Right Hepatic Flexture is Best Demonstrated

106
Q

What position? What is best demonstrated?

A

RPO
Left Splenic Flexture best demonstrated

107
Q

What position? What is best demonstrated?

A

LAO
Left Splenic Flexture Best Demonstrated

108
Q

What study? What position?

A

Double Contrast Study
Supine

109
Q

What study? What position?

A

Double Contrast Study
Prone

110
Q

What Position?

A

Right Lateral Decubitus
(Right side is filled with barium, Right side is lower)

111
Q

What position?

A

Left Lateral Decubitus

112
Q
A

Left Lateral Decubitus

113
Q
A

Rectosigmoid Region
Single Contrast Enema
Lateral Rectum
Left lateral

114
Q
A

Double Contrast Enema (air) uses X-table lateral Rectum
Air Fluid Levels

115
Q

AP Axial Sigmoid Tube Angle:

A

30-40 cephalad

116
Q

PA Axial Sigmoid Tube angle:

A

30-40 Caudad

117
Q

What Method?

A

PA Axial Sigmoid
“Butterfly Method”

118
Q

What method?

A

AP Axial Sigmoid
“Butterfly Method”

119
Q

Abdomen taken prior to the start of any fluoroscopy study involving contrast:

A

Scout

120
Q

Abdomen (PA or AP) taken after a fluoroscopy study with contrast
(Patient should try to evacuate as much contrast as possible prior to taking exposure)

A

Post- Evacuation

121
Q

What study? Best Demonstrates?

A

Hysterosalpingogram
Patency of Fallopian Tubes
Lithotomy Position

122
Q

Contrast Media is administered vis spinal puncture into the subarachnoid space-intrathecal injection

A

Myelography

123
Q

Preferred site for spinal puncture for myelography:

A

L3-L4
Using Water Soluble Contrast

124
Q

Primary Pathology for Myeolography:

A

Herniated Nucleus Pulposus (HNP)

125
Q

When the nucleus pulposus protrudes into the annulus fibrosis

A

Herniated Disk

126
Q
A

Myelography
L3-L4

127
Q

Study of Synovial Joints and surrounding tissues with contrast media:

A

Arthography

128
Q
A

Arthrography

129
Q

Involves Informed and Written Consent, Patient History, Medications, blood thinners, allergies, sterile technique

A

Arthography

130
Q

Synarthroses Joints

A

Immovable, fixed or fibrous joints, no movement
Bones of the Skull

131
Q

Amphiathrosis Joints

A

slightly movable (cartilaginous joints)
limited movement
Vertebrae and Spine

132
Q

Diarthroses Joints

A

Freely Movable
Synovial Joints
Synovial Fluid
Knee and Shoulder

133
Q

Where is the saddle joint?

A

Thumb

134
Q

IVU is a:

A

functional test, Antegrade Contrast Method

135
Q

Know Anatomy

A
136
Q

What type of study is this?

A

IVU study
Intravenous Urography

137
Q

IVU AP scout, and series

A
138
Q

IVU Obliques RPO and LPO

A

30 degree posterior oblique

139
Q

Radiographic examination of the bladder

A

Cystography

140
Q

To see the posterior aspect of the bladder

A

Ureterovesical junction (UV)

141
Q
A

Voiding Cystourethrogram

142
Q

Males Voiding Cystourethrogram position:

A

30 degree RPO

143
Q

Female Cystourethrography Position:

A

AP Position

144
Q

What pathology?

A

Urinary Reflux

145
Q

What pathology?

A

Double Collecting System

146
Q

What pathology

A

Horseshoe Kidney

147
Q

Procedure to adress kidney stones:

A

Ureteroscopy

148
Q

Involves the passage of a ureteroscope through the urethra and bladder and up the ureter to the point where the stone is located

A

Ureteroscopy

149
Q

Done in the operating room with a urologist

A

Ureteroscopy

150
Q

What procedure

A

Ureteroscopy

151
Q
A

Ureteroscopy

152
Q

Know Anatomy

A
153
Q

Know Anatomy

A
154
Q

Duct that connects gallbladder

A

Cystic Duct

155
Q

Hepatic Duct

A

Duct that connects the liver

156
Q

Cystic and Hepatic Duct combine to form this duct

A

Common bile duct

157
Q

What procedure?

A

ERCP

158
Q

Common bile duct joins the pancreatic duct together they empty into the:

A

Hepatopancreatic Ampulla (Ampulla of Vater)

159
Q

Presence of stones in the gallbladder

A

Cholelithiasis

160
Q

Inflammation of the pancreas

A

Pancreatitis

161
Q

Juandice

A

Yellow collowing

162
Q

What procedure

A

Surgical Cholangiogram

163
Q

Surgical Removal of Gallbladder

A

Cholecystectomy

164
Q

Composed of higher-atomic number elements

A

Positive Contrast

165
Q

Appears radiopaque on an image

A

Positive Contrast

166
Q

Barium Sulfate

A

Atomic Number 56

167
Q

Water soluble iodinated

A

Atomic Number 53

168
Q

Composed of low atomic number elements

A

Negative Contrast
Appears radiolucent on image
Air
CO2

169
Q

Thoracic Cavity is lined with:

A

Visceral and Piratial Flora

170
Q

Abdomin is lined with:

A

Visceral and Piretial

171
Q

Three structures of the diaphagm:

A

Inferior Vena Cava
Aorta
Esophagus

172
Q

How many ribs are on this image?

A

10 posterior ribs

173
Q

What is this structure?

A

Sphenoid Sinus

174
Q

The back part of the sella turcica is called:

A

Dorsum Cella

175
Q
A

Cervical Vertebrae
Two top holes: Transverse Foramen
Bottom big hole: intervertebral Foramen

176
Q
A

Gaynor Hart method
Carpal Bones

177
Q

KNOW ANATOMY

A
178
Q
A
  1. AP
  2. Internal Rotation (Coronoid Process)
  3. External Rotation (Head of Radius)
179
Q
A
  1. 2.
180
Q

A.
B.

A

A. Greater Tubericle in profile
B. Lesser Tubericle in profile but superimposed
AP Shoulder

181
Q
A

Shoulder Internal Rotation
Epicondyles perpendicular to IR
Lesser Tuberosity in Profile

182
Q

Name this position

A

Grashey Method for Shoulder (45 degree oblique)
Glenoid Fossa in Profile

183
Q

Which cell would you choose if this was your patient?

A

Manual Technique
NO AEC

184
Q

Wilhelm Roentgen discovered x-rays in

A

1895

185
Q

NCRP stands for

A

national council for radiation protection and measurements

186
Q

NCRP 116 measures:

A

limitation of exposure to ionizing radiation of people

187
Q

NCRP 102:

A

Medical X-ray, Electron Beam, and Gamma Ray protection for up to 50 MeV, equipment

188
Q

Avoidance of serious x-ray induced skin injuries to patients during fluoroscopy guided procedures

A

FDA

189
Q

Exposure Factors (Fluoroscopy)

A

High kVp 100 or more, allows the mA to be between 1-5 mA or .1 - 5 mA
-limit the number of spot films
-limit the use of magnification feature
-tightly collimate

190
Q

For radiation protection purposes the fluoroscopic table top exposure rate must not exceed:

A

10 mR/min

191
Q

The table top intensity should not exceed: (fluoroscopy exposure rate)

A

*2.2 R/min for each mA of current at 80 kVp

192
Q

(Grids) The use of a 5:1 grid will increase the patient’s exposure by:

A

2 xs

193
Q

(Grids) The use of a 10:1,12:1 grid will increase the patient’s exposure by:

A

5 xs

194
Q

The relationship between Grids and minimizing patient exposure:

A

No relationship, they don’t

195
Q

(positioning) position the patient in fluoroscopy:

A

with the fluoroscopy off, do what you need to do and then turn the beam on

196
Q

Where is the radiation coming from in fluoroscopy? (positioning)

A

Below the patient

197
Q

Proper positioning of the patient is more important in fluoroscopy or radiography?

A

fluoroscopy because of the continuous beam

198
Q

Where do you put the shield in a fluoroscopy room?

A

Put the shield on the table and then the patient lays on top of it (positioning)

199
Q

(fluoroscopy time) a cumulative timer must be used after how long in fluoroscopy?

A

5 minutes
Audio Signal

200
Q

Where the radiologist periodically activates the x-ray beam instead of using a continuous beam (fluoroscopy time)

A

Intermittent Fluoroscopy

201
Q

If you are flouroing you can hold the image so that the doctor can insert the guidewire without the use of fluoroscopy

A

Last Image Hold, Dose Saving Technique

202
Q

The fluoroscopic equipment maintains image brightness by adjusting of part thickness by automatically varying the kVp, mA, or both

A

ABC (automatic brightness control)

203
Q

To keep the signal to noise ratio (SNR) constant by adjusting the exposure factors automatically:

A

AERC System

204
Q

21 CFR states that the source-skin distance (SSD) cannot be less than _________ on stationary fluoroscopes.

A

38 cm SSD (receptor positioning)

205
Q

21 CFR states that source to skin (SSD) distance cannot be less than _______ for mobile fluoroscopes.

A

30 cm SSD (receptor positioning)

206
Q

During mobile fluoroscopy, the C-arm should be positioned so the x-ray tube is ___________. The image intensifier is ___________.

A

-under the patient
-close to the patient as possible (receptor positioning)

207
Q

Magnification Mode:

A

-conventional, multi field image intensifiers a magnified image is less distorted and makes small details easier to see, but it comes at a cost of more radiation to the patient.
-digital, dynamic flat-panel detectors allow the operator to zoom without an increase in exposure

208
Q

KERMA stands for:

A

Kinetic Energy Released in Matter or Mass

209
Q

Allow for the operator to zoom without an increase in exposure

A

Magnification Mode

210
Q

What does this represent?

A

Cumulative dose AIR KERMA Display. That is documented in the patients chart.

211
Q

The last frame is displayed when the beam is turned off, allowing the operator to evaluate the image before continuing the procedure

A

Last Image Hold (LIH)

212
Q

means shall be provided to limit the source-to-skin distance to no less than ________ on stationary flouroscopes.

A

38 cm

213
Q

Source-to-skin distance is no less than _________ on mobile fluoroscopes (C-Arm).

A

30 cm

214
Q

Where is the DAP meter located?

A

on the collimator, in front of it.

215
Q

*The unit that measures DAP (dose area product):

A

*Gy-cm^2
OR
*cGy-cm^2

216
Q

DAP meters measure:

A

the radiation dose to air x the area of the x-ray field

217
Q

DAP stands for:

A

Dose Area Product

218
Q

*Protective Drapes have to be a minimum:

A

*0.25 mm Pb (LEAD)

219
Q

Shielding devices such as lead screen drapes and table sides:

A

SHALL be provided to minimize over-table scatter radiation from reaching the operator

220
Q

The Bucky slot cover has to be a minimum of:

A

0.25 mm Pb

221
Q

To attenuate all scatter or leakage radiation originating under the table

A

Bucky Slot Cover

222
Q

Activated by the fluoroscope exposure switch

A

Deadman Type Switch

223
Q

Produces an AUDIBLE signal or interrupts beam after 5 minutes of fluoro time:

A

Cumulative Timer

224
Q

What is this?

A

An installed remotely controlled digital fluoroscopic imaging system with a over-table x-ray tube and under table image receptor

225
Q

Set Standards for the use of Ionizing Radiation:

A

NCR, NCRP, CFR-21

226
Q

Conducts Inspections of Institutions to determine if the radiographic Equipment Meets Standards

A

The Food and Drug Administration

227
Q

Doing a regular chest x-ray the wall where the Bucky is:

A

Primary Protective Barrier

228
Q

Any barrier that intercepts the primary useful beam.

A

Primary Protective Barrier

229
Q
A

ARRT Kettering (15 decks)

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