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ARRT Kettering > Image Production Kettering Audio > Flashcards

Image Production Kettering Audio Flashcards

1
Q

Define Receptor Exposure:

A

The overall amount/quantity of x-ray radiation that reaches the IR

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2
Q

The main controlling factor of receptor exposure:

A

mAs

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3
Q

The relationship between mAs and Receptor Exposure:

A

Directly Proportional

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4
Q

If you increase the mAs, what happens to receptor exposure?

A

Increases

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5
Q

Double mAs: __________ Receptor Exposure

A

Double

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6
Q

Define Contrast:

A

The difference in adjacent areas

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7
Q

Kvp is the main controlling factor of:

A

Subject Contrast

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8
Q

The main controlling factor of image contrast:

A

Look Up Table (LUT)

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9
Q

The relationship between kvp and contrast:

A

Inversely Proportional

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10
Q

Increase kVp, contrast _______

A

Decreases

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11
Q

Increase mAs, _______ contrast

A

No effect

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12
Q

The relationship between SID and Receptor Exposure:

A

Inversely proportional

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13
Q

Increase SID, _________ receptor exposure

A

Decrease

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14
Q

Increase SID, _________ Contrast

A

No effect

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15
Q

The relationship between Receptor Exposure and kVp:

A

Directly Proportional

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16
Q

Increase in kVp: ________ receptor exposure

A

Increase

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17
Q

Increase kVp: ______ contrast

A

Decrease

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18
Q

The relationship between kVp and contrast:

A

Inversely Proportional

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19
Q

Increase Grid Ratio: ________ Receptor Exposure

A

Decrease

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20
Q

The relationship between Grids (Grid Ratio) and Receptor Exposure:

A

Inversely proportional

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21
Q

What do grids do?

A

Clean up scatter radiation and have the contrast more black and white by appearance (high contrast)

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22
Q

Increase Beam Filtration: what happens to receptor exposure and contrast

A

Decrease

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23
Q

Define Subject Density:

A

How tightly compacted at the atomic level

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24
Q

List in order from least to greatest attenuation:

Air Fat Bone Muscle

A

Air
Fat
Water
Muscle
Bone

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25
Q

List in order from greatest to least attenuation:

A

Bone
Muscle
Water
Fat
Air

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26
Q

If more radiation reaches the IR, receptor exposure ________

A

Increase

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27
Q

If more radiation gets absorbed in the patient, _____ contrast

A

Increase

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28
Q

What kind of kV do you use on a mammogram?

A

25-30 kV

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29
Q

What would you do with the kV for soft tissue examination of the neck?

A

Drop it

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30
Q

When things have the same attentuation:

A

Drop the kV, maximal differential absorption

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31
Q

Responsible for the blacks and whites on an image:

A

Photoelectric Effect

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32
Q

Why is air dark black on an image?

A

Shows a high rate of radiation reaching the IR (less attenuation)

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33
Q

Anything white or opaque on an image:

A

Shows high rates of absorption (high attenuation) low rates of radiation reaching the IR

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34
Q

Increase in subject density, ________ contrast, ________ receptor exposure

A

Increase, decrease

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35
Q

Additive pathology, ________ receptor exposure, ________ contrast

A

Decrease, Increase

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36
Q

Destructive pathology, ___________ receptor exposure, __________ contrast

A

Increase, decrease

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37
Q

Increase beam restriction= _________ field size, ________ receptor exposure, _______ contrast

A

Smaller, decrease, increase

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38
Q

Increasing collimation (beam restriction) results in:

A

Decreasing Field Size
Decreasing Receptor Exposure
Decreasing the amount of scatter reaching the IR

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39
Q

Increase Collimation=

A

Decrease in receptor exposure, decrease in contrast

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40
Q

Increase field size=

A

Increase in receptor exposure, decrease contrast

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41
Q

Distortion:

A

Misrepresentation

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42
Q

What affects size distortion?

A

SID
OID

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43
Q

Shape Distortion:

A

Foreshortening and Elongation

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44
Q

If you increase SID, what happens to magnification? Recorded Detail (spatial resolution)?

A

Decreases, Increases

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45
Q

Why do you do a PA Chest Erect at 72 inches?

A

To reduce heart magnification

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46
Q

Increase OID, magnification? Spatial Resolution?

A

Increase magnification, decrease spatial resolution

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47
Q

Which had the greatest effect on magnification? SID or OID?

A

OID

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48
Q

For every 1 inch for OID, increase SID by?

A

7 inches or 8 inches

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49
Q

Increase SID:

A

Decrease magnification

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50
Q

Increase OID

A

Increase Magnification

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51
Q

Two focal spot sizes:

A

Small and Large

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52
Q

If you increase focal spot size:

A

Decrease Spatial Resolution

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53
Q

If motion is present on an image:

A

Compromised spatial resolution

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54
Q

If motion is present on an image:

A

REPEAT IT

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55
Q

As a technologist you forget the AP Axial Projection of the sacrum, you forget to angle the tube and come in perpendicular, what will the resulting image look like?

A

Foreshortening (Shape Distortion)

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56
Q

Define Matrix:

A

Number of rows times the number of columns

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57
Q

More rows and more columns=

A

Greater pixel coverage

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58
Q

Increase matrix size=

A

Increase spatial resolution, better pixel coverage

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59
Q

Increase pixel size:

A

Decrease Spatial Resolution

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60
Q

As PSP plate size increases:

A

Spatial resolution decreases

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61
Q

The main controlling factor of spatial resolution is:

A

Sampling Frequency or (focal spot size)

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62
Q

As the field of view increases for a fixed matrix size:

A

Spatial resolution decreases (increase pixel size)

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63
Q

Increase in the flat panel DEL,

A

Decrease spatial resolution

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64
Q

Receptor Exposure Define:

A

Overall amount/quantity of radiation that reaches the IR

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65
Q

Definition of Radiographic Contrast:

A

Difference in adjacent areas

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66
Q

If an image has high contrast: more/less blacks and whites

A

MORE

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67
Q

Low contrast:

A

Lots of shades of grey, less blacks and whites

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68
Q

Seperate mA and time in a question. Multiply in the question and match in the answer.

A

Law of reciprocity

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69
Q

Define inverse square law:

A

Intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance

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70
Q

If distance gets ever gets doubled or cut in half the intensity will change by a factor of:

A

4

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71
Q

If you double the distance intensity is:

A

4 times less

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72
Q

If you cut the distance in half intensity is:

A

4x more

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73
Q

Direct Square Law Equation:

A

mAs1/mAs2 = (SID1/SID2)^2

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74
Q

What new mAs will be used to MAINTAIN:

A

Direct square law/receptor maintenance formula

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75
Q

The 15% kVp rule states:

A

If you increase or decrease the kVp by 15% you either double or cut the receptor exposure in half

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76
Q

Double the receptor exposure by applying the 15% kVp Rule, at 80 kVp and 30 mAs, what is the new technique?

A

92 kVp and 30 mAs!

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77
Q

Cut the receptor exposure in half by applying the 15% rule, 80 kVp and 30 mAs. What is the new technique?

A

68 kVp and 30 mAs

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78
Q

“The receptor exposure is sufficient, but the contrast needs to be increased”

A

Use the 15% kVp rule. Increase kVp. Cut the mAs in half on the backend. Decrease kVp, double the mAs

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79
Q

Grid Ratio=

A

H/D

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80
Q

In a diagram, height of the lead strips (use), thickness of lead strip (not use), distance between the interspace (use):

A

H/D

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81
Q

Non-Grid:

A

1

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82
Q

5:1 Grid:

A

2

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83
Q

6:1 Grid:

A

3

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84
Q

8:1 Grid:

A

4

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85
Q

10:1/12:1 Grid:

A

5

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86
Q

16:1 Grid Ratio:

A

6

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87
Q

A Radiographic examination is performed 80 kV, 10 mAs, 100 cm SID, with a 5:1 Grid Ratio. A new exposure is made with a 16:1 Grid Ratio to increase the contrast. What is the new technique?

A

Old mAs/new mAs= Old Grid/new Grid

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88
Q

A Radiographic examination is performed with 70 kV, 10 mAs, 100 cm SID, with a 200 speed image receptor, a new exposure is made with a 8:1 grid. What is the new technique?

A

Apply the non grid=1
Have to go with the closest number to the calculator. Old mAs/New mAs = old grid/new grid

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89
Q

The purpose of filtration:

A

Cleans up longer wavelength x-rays, soft x rays, reduces the ESE

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90
Q

As part thickness increases:

A

Increase in attenuation

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91
Q

Attenuation

A

Reduction in x-ray intensity that passed through matter

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92
Q

As atomic number increases:

A

Attenuation increases

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93
Q

Define pathology:

A
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94
Q

Define Atalacticis:

A

Collapsed lung

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95
Q

Define Ascities:

A

Accumulation of Fluid

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96
Q

Define pneumothorax:

A
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97
Q

Define spondolotithesus:

A

Displacement of one vertebra on top of another vertebra

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98
Q

Additive pathology: what happens to technique?

A

Increase technique

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99
Q

Destructive pathology; what happens to technique?

A

Decrease technique

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100
Q

A patient presents in the ED department fever shortness of breath, cough:

A

Pneumonia (pneumonic infiltrate)

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101
Q

The patient presents with diapheretic, cool clammy to the touch, fever:

A

Congestive heart failure

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102
Q

So T-spine, place the cathode over: and the anode:

A

Lower t-spine, upper t-spine

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103
Q

Always place the cathode over the:

A

Proximal joint

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104
Q

Always place the cathode:

A

On the thoracic and abdominal cavities

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105
Q

The cathode goes:

A

Lower t-spine, lower thorax, lower diaphragm

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106
Q

On a average adult, lateral T-Spine it requires: 3 views Ap Lateral the lateral cervical thoracic projection (Swimmers).

A

Put the cathode up

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107
Q

Short scale contrast:

A

Black and white appearance

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108
Q

I’m a myeologram we inject intrathecally:

A

Within the spinal canal

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109
Q

The three things that effect the production of scatter radiaiton

A

High kVp
large thick parts
large field sizes

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110
Q

All of the following effect the production of scatter radiation except:

A

The use of a Grid

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111
Q

Long scale:

A

More gray appearance

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112
Q

Increase kVp

A

Decrease contrast (forward scatter)

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113
Q

What controls image contrast on a chest x-ray?

A

LUT
Computers algorithm
Histogram analysis

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114
Q

With the use of filtration the beam becomes:

A

More homogenous

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115
Q

Umbra

A

Clear concise center

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116
Q

Penumbra

A

Blurring around the edges

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117
Q

The penumbra (geometric unsharpness) is always greater on the:

A

Cathode side of the beam

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118
Q

If you increase the OID:

A

Increase magnification, decrease spatial resolution

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119
Q

A heart on an IR measures 15.2 cm at its widest point but its true width in the chest cavity is 13.6 cm. How much magnification?

A

Image size/object size, always bigger on the image (big/small)

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120
Q

A Radiographic examination is performed with 180 cm SID, but the anatomical part has a 20cm OID. How much magnification?

A

SID/OID
SID-OID=SOD
180-20= 160
180/160= 1.125

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121
Q

When the day how much magnification: use what formula

A

SID/SOD

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122
Q

Increase SID:

A

Decrease magnification, increase Spatial resolution

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123
Q

What effects size distortion and spatial resolution:

A

OID and SID

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124
Q

What is the best way to control voluntary motion? Respiration, peristalsis, Parkinson’s disease

A

Clear concise instruction
Proper communication

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125
Q

What is the best way to control involuntary motion:

A

Shortest possible exposure time

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126
Q

Increase in focal spot size:

A

Decrease in spatial resolution

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127
Q

Sampling frequency controls:

A

Spatial Resolution

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128
Q

Define Actual Focal Spot:

A

Electrons actually strike the target

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129
Q

Define effective focal spot:

A

Gets projected down to the patients

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130
Q

Which is larger the actual or effective focal spot?

A

Actual

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131
Q

The incorporated design of the line focal principle creates:

A

Larger actual focal spot
smaller effective focal spot

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132
Q

Which of the following anode angles gives you the greatest spatial resolution:

A

Pick the smallest angle!

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133
Q

If you are doing a hand X-ray and doing it table top, is it the use of APR or AEC?

A

APR (anatomically programmed radiography)

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134
Q

Caliper:

A

Device used to measure part thickness.

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135
Q

Fixed kVp

A

kV stays fixed for the exam.

60 kv on every hand, 70 kv on every knee, 80 kV on every pelvis but it is appropriately fixed for that examination.

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136
Q

kVp is determined by using ______ to accurately measure the thickness of the body part being evaluated

A

Caliper

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137
Q

Variable kVp

A

Always use 10 mAs on every knee, 20 mAs on every hip, 30 mAs on every pelvis. The kVp changes.

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138
Q

A set of calipers an anatomical part (pelvis) to be 20cm, 21 cm, 22cm you would use how much kV?

A

80 kV, 82 kv, 84 kv

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139
Q

For every cm of part thickness increase, increase ____ kVp per.

A

2

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140
Q

A patient falls hurts their wrist, plaster cast on wrist, what new kVp?

A

8-10 kVp increase

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141
Q

2 months later the patient is going to see if they can take the cast off, it is perfectly drive how much kVp increase?

A

5-7 kVp increase

142
Q

Fiber glass cast is a how much kVp increase?

A

3-4 kVp increase

143
Q

Anytime an anatomical part exceeds how many cm you need to get a grid:

A

10 cm rule

144
Q

What cell would you select for a PA projection of chest?

A

The two outer cells

145
Q

What cell would you select for the axial skeleton? (Skull to coccyx)

A

Center Cell

146
Q

The ala of the pelvis (wings of the pelvis) what cell would you select?

A

Outer Cells

147
Q

Pelvis and concentrate on Sacrum or Coccyx what cell would you select?

A

Center cell

148
Q

Abdomen with a concentration of the spine what cell would you select?

A

Center Cell

149
Q

Abdomen with a concentration of the kidneys, what cell would you select?

A

Outer cells

150
Q

what is the main/single most disadvantage when using the AEC device?

A

Inaccurate or inadequate or improper positioning

151
Q

Spatial resolution definition:

A

The ability of the system to record small adjacent structures. The sharpness of the structural edges recorded in an image.

152
Q

What is spatial resolution measured in?

A

Line pairs per mm (lp/mm)

153
Q

Define pixel:

A

Picture element
Smallest area depicted in an image
Two-dimensional square that contains discrete gray shades

154
Q

Define Pixel size:

A

Measurement from one end to the other end

155
Q

As pixel size increase, ________ spatial resolution.

A

Decrease

156
Q

Pixel pitch define:

A

Measured from center to center.

157
Q

As pixel pitch increases, ________ spatial resolution

A

Decreases

158
Q

Pixel Density:

A

Number of pixels per millimeter
Determined by the pixel size and pixel pitch.

159
Q

As pixel size decreases, pixel density _______.

A

Increases

160
Q

Matrix:

A

Number of rows times the number of columns

161
Q

An increase in matrix size:

A

Greater spatial resolution

162
Q

Smaller matrix size, larger pixel:

A

Spatial resolution decreases

163
Q

Bigger matrix size, smaller pixel:

A

Increase spatial resolution

164
Q

Define sampling frequency:

A

The number of pixels sampled per millimeter as the laser scans each line of the imaging plate.

165
Q

The main controlling factor of sampling frequency is:

A

Spatial resolution

166
Q

A CR cassette, the PSP plate gets withdrawn, and it runs underneath, the laser scans the imaging plate the more pixels it reads:

A

The greater the spatial resolution

167
Q

Increasing sampling frequency=

A

Increase spatial resolution

168
Q

Nyquist Frequency definition:

A

The relationship between sampling frequency (number of pixels/mm scanned by the laser at a rate that is 2xs highest frequency present) and the spatial resolution (resulting image detail)

169
Q

As the DEL increases, _________ spatial resolution

A

Decreases

170
Q

When we do extremities such as carpals and tarsals we want what size DEL?

A

Small

171
Q

The relationship between DEL and spatial resolution:

A

Inversely Proportional

172
Q

Dynamic range:

A

Range of acceptability

173
Q

Quantum mottle definition:

A

An insufficient quantity of x-rays to reach the IR

174
Q

The main controlling factor of Quantum mottle:

A

mAs

175
Q

Signal to Noise Ratio Definition:

A

Ratio between signal or meaningful information and noise or background information

176
Q

Which of the following SNRs gives the greatest spatial resolution?

2:1
4:1
8:1
16:1

A

16:1
(16 signal/contrast to 1 noise)

177
Q

Who owns the image?

A

The institution maintains ownership

178
Q

All of the following are mandated on the image to make the document legal and binding in the court of law except:

A

DOB
POST EXPOSURE MARKER
PATIENT AGE

179
Q

Every complement of the x-ray tube is internal except:

A

Stators

180
Q

What charge is the cathode:

A

Negative charge

181
Q

Glass envelope function:

A

Helps protect the internal components of the x-ray tube
Maintains a vacuum environment within the radiographic tube

182
Q

What is the glass envelope material:

A

Pyrex glass

183
Q

What charge is the cathode?

A

Negative electrode

184
Q

What components make up the cathode?

A

Filament Wires
Focusing Cup

185
Q

What material is the focusing cup?

A

Molybdenum or Nickle

186
Q

What material is the filament wires?

A

Thoriated Tungsten

187
Q

The focusing cup functions to:

A

Maintain a predetermined number of electrons around the filament prior to exposure

188
Q

The focal spot (where the size of the focalpot direct toward the image receptor) is smaller/larger than the focal spot measured on the surface of the anode:

A

Smaller

189
Q

What does the focusing cup do?

A

Operates at a saturation current- maximum current level at a given tube current

190
Q

Which part of the x-ray tube is outside of the vacuum tube?

A

Stator

191
Q

Leakage radiation should not exceed:

A

100 mR/hra in air at 1 meter

192
Q

Why is the actual focal spot larger than the effective focal spot?

A

Line focus Principle (the anode is angled)

193
Q

The flow of electrons:

A

Always negative to positive
Cathode to anode
One way flow

194
Q

Anode material:

A

Tungsten Target with Rhenium

195
Q

Materials or choice of materials for the neck and the base of the anode:

A

Copper, molybdenum, graphite
Because they provide weight savings if the anode assembly

196
Q

The induction motor:

A

Two components make up the induction motor: Rotor and stator
The name of the motor that drives or powers the anode during exposure

197
Q

Isotropically:

A

Equal intensities in all directions

198
Q

A properly designed lead lines protective housing will reduce the leakage radiation to:

A

1 mGya per hour at 1 meter
100 Mr/hra at 1 meter

199
Q

Three chest x-rays, 8 year old, 80 year old female hypodermic and ammonia and a 40 year old hyperstenic:

A

Photo time all of them (AEC)

200
Q

What is the purpose of using a back up timer when using an AEC device?

A

Patient safety device in case of equipment malfunction

201
Q

Minimum Response Time (MRT) definition:

A

The time it takes for a system to respond and sends signal to terminate the exposure

202
Q

PBL:

A

Positive beam limitation device
Automatic collimation

203
Q

The use of beam restriction does the following:

A

Decrease Dose, Decrease Receptor Exposure, Increase Contrast

204
Q

Aperture Diagram:

A

Simplest type of beam restricting device, a lead plate with a hole cut in the middle that is slightly smaller than the image receptor size

205
Q

Variable Aperture Collimation:

A

Controlled by the radiographer
Permits the adjustment of the length and width of the radiation light field
Utilizes a light localization device to estimate the size and shape of the radiation field

206
Q

Cylinders or Cones:

A

Attaches to the bottom of the collimation housing
Creates a circular shaped collimation field
Maximum beam restriction occurs with increased length and decreased diameter of the cylinder or cone

207
Q

How does collimation affect patient dose, receptor exposure, contrast?

A

Patient dose decreases, receptor exposure decreases, contrast increases

208
Q

Use of any beam restriction device:

A

Patient dose decreases, contrast increases

209
Q

Ohm’s Law definition:

A

V= IR

210
Q

V measures=

A

Voltage or electric potential

211
Q

I measures=

A

Amperes

212
Q

R measures=

A

Resistance measured in Ohms

213
Q

If you have a 100 mA station, 25 m/s what is the mAs?

A

0.025 seconds

214
Q

A parallel circuit had 4 resistor elements of 5, 10, 20 ohms. What is the total resistance?

A

3.43 ohms approximately

215
Q

A series circuit has 4 resistant elements of 5, 10, 15, 20 ohms. What is the total resistance?

A

50 ohms

216
Q

Where can you find the auto transformer?

A

Primary/Low Voltage Side

217
Q

Where can you find the exposure timer?

A

Primary/Low Voltage Side

218
Q

Where can you find the x-ray tube?

A

High Voltage/Secondary

219
Q

Where can you find the mA selector?

A

Filament

220
Q

Where can you find the focal spot selector?

A

Filament

221
Q

Where can you find the step down transformer?

A

Filament transformer

222
Q

The electrical energy supplied to the x-ray unit is:

A

Alternating Current (AC)

223
Q

Any induction self/mutual requires what current?

A

AC current

224
Q

Source of EMF/electric potential:

A

Voltage

225
Q

The focusing cup is positioned around the:

A

Filament wires

226
Q

Electric potential is the unit of the:

A

Volt

227
Q

Auto transformer

A

Single coil of winding
Works on the principle of self induction
Determines the amount of line voltage that will be sent to the step up transformer

228
Q

All induction requires what current:

A

A/C

229
Q

Which of the following transformers is considered the most efficient?

A

Shell Core

230
Q

A transformer has 10,000 turns on its secondary side and 500 turns on its primary. What is the turns ratio for this transformer?

A

TS/TP

10,000/500

20:1

20 secondary to every 1 primary

231
Q

A transformer has 5000 turns on its primary side and 100 turns on its secondary side. What is the turns ratio for this transformer?

A

100/5000= 1:15 (1/50)

Secondary divided by primary only.

232
Q

A transformer has a turns ratio of 200:1. If 150 volts are supplied to the transformer, what is the output voltage?

A

Always supply the primary coil

Vs (x)/ 150

200/1

Vs/VP = TS/TP

200 (150); x= 30,000 volts or 30 kV

233
Q

Where is the auto transformer located?

A

The primary or low voltage circuit between the incoming line voltage and the primary side of the step-up transformer.

234
Q

What is the source for kVp?

A

Auto transformer.

235
Q

Where is the line voltage compensator located?

A

Located within the primary or low voltage circuit of the x-ray unit and connected to the primary side of the auto transformer

236
Q

What does the line voltage compensator do?

A

Maintains a constant voltage/turns ratio within the auto transformer

237
Q

What is the step up transformer also known as?

A

High voltage or high tension transformer

238
Q

What does the step up transformer operate on the priniciple of?

A

Electromagnetic mutual induction (two wires)

239
Q

Where or when does voltage become kilovoltage?

A

Step up transformer
Secondary side or output side of the step up transformer

240
Q

Filament transformer is also known as:

A

Low voltage or step down transformer

241
Q

Where is the filament transformer located?

A

Low voltage filament circuit

242
Q

The step up transformer gives the desired _______ the step down delivers the ________ _______.

A

Voltage, Thermionic Effect

243
Q

The filament transformer works off of the principle of:

A

Electromagnetic mutual induction (two wires)

244
Q

Current is ______ to the transformers turns ratio

A

Inversely proportional. This means that the current will be reduced by a step up transformer and increased by a step down transformer.

245
Q

An mA station is considered to be a:

A

Variable resistor

246
Q

The pre-reading kVp meter reads:

A

Voltage

247
Q

Where is the pre-reading kVp meter located?

A

Low voltage side

248
Q

All of the following are examples of exposure timers except:

A

mAs
Electronic
Synchronous
Recipricating

Answer: recipricating

249
Q

Which of the following timer devices is considered the most accurate?

A

Electronic Timing Devices

250
Q

What is the main controlling factor of spatial resolution?

A

Sampling frequency/Focal Spot Selector

251
Q

Two types of focal spot sizes:

A

Small and Large

252
Q

Use a small focal spot on:

A

Carpals and Tarsals (things that require a lot of detail)

253
Q

The main advantage of the small focal spot is:

A

Greater spatial resolution
Greater Recorded Detail

254
Q

The disadvantage of the small focal spot size is:

A

Can not withstand the heat

255
Q

The large focal spot advantage:

A

Can withstand high speed electrons bombarding it

256
Q

The disadvantage of the large focal spot size:

A

Does not give good spatial resolution or recorded detail

257
Q

Which is larger the actual focal spot size or effective focal spot size?

A

Actual

258
Q

In the United States, electrical energy is supplied in a __________ cycle alternating current

A

60 second

259
Q

1000:1

A

Goes back and forth 60 times in one direction
Cathode anode and exits down to the patient

260
Q

What does rectification do?

A

Converts AC to DC

261
Q

Single Half wave rectified voltage ripple and how many useful pulse per second?

A

100%
60/sec

262
Q

Single Full Wave Rectified voltage ripple and how many pulse/sec?

A

100%
120/sec

263
Q

3 phase Six Pluse voltage ripple and how many useful pulse/sec:

A

13%
360/sec

264
Q

3 phase 12 pulse voltage ripple and how many useful pulse/sec?

A

4%
720/sec

265
Q

High frequency voltage ripple:

A

Less than 1%

266
Q

Image Intensifier:

A

To increase overall brightness
To convert x-ray beam into a bright visible light

267
Q

X-rays with interact with the input phosphor and gets converted to:

A

Light

268
Q

What does the photocathode do?

A

Converts light photons from the input phosphor into free electrons

269
Q

Anode in Flouroscopy Unit:

A

Metal plate with a hole in the middle

270
Q

XLELM

A

X-rays to light, light to electrons, electrons back to light, and to the monitor

271
Q

What material makes up the input phosphor?

A

Cesium Iodide

272
Q

What does the photocathode do?

A

Converts light photons from the input phosphor into free electrons

273
Q

What does the electrostatic lens do?

A

Directs or focuses the path of electrons from the photocathode to the surface of the output phosphor screen

274
Q

What does the output phosphor do?

A

Converts electrons sent from the photocathode into light photons.

275
Q

What is the material of the output phosphor?

A

Zinc cadmium sulfide

276
Q

Define Brightness Gain:

A

Minification Gain times Flux Gain.
BG= minification x flux

277
Q

Define minification:

A

The diameter of the input squared Divided by the diameter of the output squared

278
Q

An image intensification tube with an input phosphor size of 17 cm and an output phosphor size of 2.5 cm with a flux gain of 100. What is the brightness gain?

A

Minification gain= 17^2/2.5^2, Minification gain = 46 x 100 = 4600 lumens brighter with an image intensifier vs without

279
Q

Which one controls the bright light vision (photopic)?

A

Cone of the eye

280
Q

Which controls Low light or night vision (scotopic)?

A

Rods of the eyes

281
Q

Define vignetting:

A

Loss of detail and fall off of brightness along the edge of the fluoroscopic image

282
Q

Loss of resolution around the periphery? (Fluoro)

A

Vignetting

283
Q

Loss of resolution around the periphery of the image?

A

Vignetting (looks like a pin cushion)

284
Q

Which of the following recording devices gives the highest patient dose?

A

Cine fluoroscopy
Recording
10xs the next competitor

285
Q

When you are in fluoroscopy and you move from a thicker part to a thinner part you do not have to move and adjust the technique:

A

The machine will adjust the increase/decrease kVp and mAs through the ABC or AERC device.

286
Q

When magnification takes place in flouroscopy, _________ patient dose.

A

Increase

287
Q

Anterior surface of the foot is called:

A

Dorsum (dorsal) Surface

288
Q

In the mag mode in flouroscopy _________ spatial resolution and _______ contrast resolution

A

Improve both

289
Q

The disadvantage of magnification mode is:

A

Increase patient dose

290
Q

Flouroscopy is the greatest source of:

A

Acute radiation exposure to the patient in the diagnostic radiology environment

291
Q

Cr is a cassette based system what are the types:

A
  1. (PSP) Photostimulable phospher plate
  2. Flat panel detector/thin film transistor (FPD/TFT)
  3. PSP plate with a charged couple device (CCD)
292
Q

What is the imaging plate used in a CR Cassete?

A

PSP (photostimuable phospher)

293
Q

What are the PSP materials made of?

A

Europium activated barium flourohalide

294
Q

Phospher or Active Layer Definition:

A

Contains the photostimuable phospher that traps electrons during the Radiographic exposure

295
Q

Latent

A

Invisible

296
Q

Manifest

A

Visible

297
Q

Manifest

A

Turning an latent image into a visible image

298
Q

A technologist is using a CR cassette operating off of a PSP system x rays blow through the anatomy of interest and you get a disruption of valance band electrons: what do you do?

A

Latent image exists
Place the cassette on the workstation
Imaging plate is removed by the cassette
Gets scanned by the laser
Electrons that got distrusted that are trapped
Voiolet light releases them

299
Q

The S system has a ______ relationship

A

Inverse

300
Q

If the range of acceptability is 200-400, as an operator your goal is to be:

A

Directly in the middle of the range

301
Q

If the exposure range is 200-400 and your S value is 125. What does this mean?

A

Over exposed the patient

302
Q

If the exposure range is 200-400 and your S value is 450. What does this mean?

A

Underexposed

303
Q

EI and the Lgm are ________ proportional

A

Directly

304
Q

DR is:

A

Casetteless

305
Q

The DR cassette less system consists of:

A

1) FPD/TFT
2) CCD
3) CMOS (complimentary metal oxide semiconductor)
4) PSP Plate with a CCD

306
Q

Indirect DR:

A

3 step process, scintillator based uses cesium iodide or gadolinium oxysulfide

307
Q

Direct DR:

A

Non-scintillator based systems does not use a material that converts x-rays to light

308
Q

What is the name of the device used to convert x-ray photons into light?

A

Schintillator

309
Q

Scintillator based systems use:

A

Cesium iodide (CSI) or gadolinium oxysulfide

310
Q

Direct DR material:

A

Amorphous selenium (a-Se)

311
Q

What are the materials used in indirect capture?

A

Cesium Iodide (Csi) or gadolinium
Amorphous silicon (a-Si)

312
Q

What are the materials used in direct capture?

A

Amorphous selenium (a-Se)

313
Q

ADC stands for:

A

Analog to digital converter

314
Q

What is the main controlling factor of contrast:

A

LUT (look up table)

315
Q

Equalization definition:

A

Method of image processing using the histogram of the image to adjust contrast. Allows for the demonstration of a wide range of anatomical structures without overall loss of image quality

316
Q

What does equalization improve?

A

Display range

317
Q

Interventional radiology DVT anuerysm, Evaluate flow in the vessels. Why do you want the bone in the way?

A

You don’t. You want to make it or through the process of subtraction you have masking

318
Q

Leg length, scoliosis series question:

A

Stitch!!

Stitch images together to combine multiple images for anatomy that is too large for a single exposure, resulting in a seamless image

319
Q

Shuttering definition:

A

Removes or replaces the background information

320
Q

Which of the following matrix sizes will give you the greatest spatial resolution

A

1020 x 780
1919 x 708

the biggest number is the answer

321
Q

Define Hounsfield Unit/CT number:

A

Each pixel is given a numerical value based on the receptor exposure in the pixel

322
Q

FOV definition:

A

The diameter of image reconstruction

323
Q

Voxel (volume element) definition:

A

Volume of tissue imaged is given a value

324
Q

Window level allows you to adjust the:

A

Brightness

325
Q

Window width allows you to adjust:

A

Image contrast

326
Q

A narrow width:

A

Short scale appearance
White and black

327
Q

A wide window width:

A

More shades of grays
Long scale of contrast

328
Q

DICOM stands for:

A

Digital imaging and communication in medicine

329
Q

Exchanging images is done by the process of:

A

DICOM

330
Q

PACS stands for:

A

Picture archiving and communication system

331
Q

PACS definition:

A

Consists of digital acquisition equipment, workstations for display, and manipulation of images and interconnected storage devices that communicate in the same language of DICOM

332
Q

Definition of teleradiology:

A

Process of remote transmission and viewing of images

333
Q

HIS:

A

Hospital Information System
Contains full patient information

334
Q

RIS

A

Radiology Information System
Contains radiology specific information about the patient including the radiologists report (modality work list)

335
Q

EMR:

A

Electronic medical record

336
Q

EHR:

A

Electronic health record

337
Q

What is the minimum change to show a perceptible difference?

A

Minimum of 30%

338
Q

PSP plate can only be cleaned with:

A

Anhydrous ethanol

339
Q

Outside of the CR cassette can be cleaned with:

A

ANY disinfectant

340
Q

Light field of radiation field alignment QC:

A

Plus or minus 2% of the source to image distance

341
Q

PBL must be within:

A

2% of the SID

342
Q

SID indicator must be within:

A

+/- 2%

343
Q

CR must be within:

A

1.25 cm (0.5 inches) of the indicator

344
Q

Linearity:

A

+/- 10%

345
Q

Filtered beam in mgy must be at least:

A

50% of the unfiltered beam

346
Q

Beam must be within ______ degree of perpendicular

A

1 degree

347
Q

Exposure timer QC:

A

+/- 5%

348
Q

kVp QC:

A

+/- 5%

349
Q

QCs should be performed:

A

Daily for technologist

350
Q

Imaging plates that have been unexposed for longer than ________ should be erased.

A

24 hours

351
Q

Which of the following will increase spatial resolution?

A

Increase SID
Decrease FOV
Decrease OID

352
Q

Which of the following is inversely proportional to IR exposure?

A

SID
Grid Ratio
Filtration

ARRT Kettering (15 decks)

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