mental health and individual difference Flashcards

1
Q

what is Biological psychology?

A

Biological psychology is the study of the brain and how it reacts to emotion and thought as well as vice versa

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2
Q

what is Clinical psychology?

A

Clinical psychology is the treatment and study of mental disorders as well as the understanding of abnormal behaviour in people

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3
Q

what is cognitive psychology?

A

Cognitive psychology is strudy of how we think and make decisions as well as process information.

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4
Q

what is Cultural psychology?

A

Cultural psychology is the study how cultures interact with each other and allow us to understand the experiences of refugees, migrants etc

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5
Q

what is Developmental psych?

A

Developmental psych is about how are behaviour changes and develops over our lifetime

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6
Q

what is educational psych

A

Educational psych: is about understanding how teachers teach and how to better educate people as well as aid challenged students.

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7
Q

what is Organization psych?

A

Organization psych: is about how to make business more efficient and satisfying.

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8
Q

what is Social psych.

A

Social psych: is about how people interact with one another and how that impacts our behaviour and mental process.

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9
Q

what is Community psych?

A

Community psych: is about working with Communities to prevent psychological issues

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10
Q

what is Environmental psych?

A

Environmental psych: is about how our Environments affect our behaviour and thought

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11
Q

what is Forensic psych?

A

Forensic psych: is about the problems involving psych and law.

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12
Q

what is Health psych?

A

Health psych: is about how illness affects mental health and vice versa

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13
Q

what is Personalty psych?

A

Personalty psych: is about how our personalities differ or are similar to one another and why

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14
Q

what is Psychopathology?

A

Psychopathology is the study of mental disorders

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15
Q

what is the criteria for whether something is considered a mental disorder?

A

Deviance, distress and dysfunction (the three ds)

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16
Q

what are culture-bound syndromes

A

Mental disorders that are Culturally specific. Mental disorders that are only found in certain cultures.

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17
Q

what is the Biopsychosocial approach?

A

The belief that mental disorders are caused by a mix of psychological processes, biological factors and sociocultural factors.

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18
Q

what is the Diathesis-stress model?

A

the belief that MD are a mix of biologically inherited traits learnt behaviours and early learning experiences that are only triggered when exposed to a major stressor ie being disposed to depression but it only manifesting after a parent dies.

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19
Q

what are Culture-specific forms of disorders?

A

when a disorder is globally recorded but symptoms are reported differently.

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20
Q

what is the DSM?

A

Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders

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21
Q

In prehistoric times what was mental illness considered to be because of?

A

evil spirts

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22
Q

what is Trephination?

A

using a trephine (a sharp tool) to remove part of the skull to let the spirits out.

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23
Q

Hippocrates believed that mental disroder where caused by?

A

things like head trauma or brain disease, he also believed it to be caused by the four humours being out of balance (blood, black bile, yellow bile and phlegm).

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24
Q

what did Plato think mental disorders were caused by.

A

he thought the mentally ill were not at fault for their actions. He believed that mental disorders were caused by environment and upbringing.

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25
Q

Freud’s beliefs were not found in a university but instead in —–

A

Psychiatry

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26
Q

what did Fraud think the 3 levels of consciousness

A

Consciousness = the awareness, Conscious mind
Preconsciousness =memories, sensations, emotions.
The unconscious = is unavailable to are Conscious minds

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27
Q

what is Metal health?

A

a person’s mental and emotional wellbeing.

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28
Q

what are Mental health problems?

A

a range of emotional, cognitive or Behavioural problems that can affect a person.

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29
Q

what is a Psychological disorder?

A

a Recognised set of symptoms that can be may cause distress to the individual or Inhibit their ability to function.

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30
Q

what is Diathesis?

A

the Capacity for/ the level of underlying risk for mental illness

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31
Q

What is abnormal?

A

not normal by statistical standards (excluding positive traits)

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32
Q

what are the advantages of diagnosis?

A

helps professionals communicate quickly, helps people to understand their experience better, helps to inform treatment, normalises symptoms.

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33
Q

what are the disadvantages of diagnosis?

A

not everyone fits into a category, distressing, stigma.

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34
Q

what is the Definition of anxiety?

A

“A negative mood state characterised by Bodily symptoms of physical tension And by apprehension the future”

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35
Q

how does Anxiety differs to fear?

A

Anxiety differs from fear due to it being about things in the future rather than current situations ie can be anxious about seeing a snack, but a snake does not need to be in the room.

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36
Q

what are the 4 Fs?

A

Fight, flight, freeze, fornicate ;). it is a response to a stimile, aka Arousal response

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37
Q

what defines a Panic attack?

A

Comes on within 10 minutes
Must experience four of the major symptoms of a panic attack to be considered one.

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38
Q

symtoms of a panic attack.

A
  1. Palpitations, pounding heart or accelerated heart rate.
  2. Sweating.
  3. Trembling or shaking.
  4. Sensations of shortness of breath or smothering.
  5. Feelings of choking.
  6. Chest pain or discomfort.
  7. Nausea or abdominal distress.
  8. Feeling dizzy, unsteady, light-headed, or faint.
  9. Chills or heat sensations.
  10. Paresthesias (numbness or tingling sensations).
  11. Derealization (feelings of unreality) or depersonalization (being detached from one­self).
  12. Fear of losing control or “going crazy.”
  13. Fear of dying.
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39
Q

what is Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD)?

A

An anxiety disorder characterised by near constant exessive anxiety.

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40
Q

Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) diagnostic criteria

A

The anxiety must last at least 6 months and be Present more days than not as well as exhibiting at least 3 of the major symptoms

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41
Q

symptoms of Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD)

A

anxiety, restlessness, easily tired, difficulty Concentrating/mind blank, Irritability, Muscle tension, Sleep disturbances.

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42
Q

Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) is more common in females, true or false?

A

true. Gad is more common in females (3.5%) than males (2%).

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43
Q

What are Phobias?

A

Phobias are intense fear in response to something. they can be of anything. They usually exhibit similar symptoms. Exposure causes intense And immediate anxiety (this can be a Panic Attack). Individuals tend to realise that their fear is excessive.

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44
Q

What is Agoraphobia?

A

Agoraphobia: a fear of being unable to escape a place or situation due to Circumstance/Embarrassment. Is also Commonly accompanied by panic attacks (aka, I can’t leave here if I have a panic attack) and is usually about Specific places or Situations

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45
Q

What is Social phobia

A

Social phobia: a fear of social situations/ performances in which an individual is exposed to a stranger or is to be scrutinised by others. Exposure to these situations may cause panic attacks

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46
Q

What are the four Categories of Specific phobia?

A

Animal: spiders, snakes, bears
situational: flying, bridges, Elevators
Natural environment: hights, storms
Blood injection injury: blood, Injections.

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47
Q

How are Blood injection injury phobias, unlike the other phobias?

A

Individuals with blood injection injury phobias react to fight or flight with a drop in blood pressure (This in certain situations can lead to fainting) rather than an increase.

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48
Q

What are the Diagnostic criteria for a phobia?

A

The fear must inhibit the person’s ability to function in their usual routine.

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49
Q

What are the Cognitive process risks for developing an anxiety disorder?

A

interprets psychological arousal/processes as threatening, aka the adrenaline from a rollercoaster. Certain personality types and coping strategies. (Seems important in most anxiety disorders.

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50
Q

What are the Environmental risk factors for developing an anxiety disorder?

A

trauma or stressful life events (is important in the development of PTSD and panic disorders).

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51
Q

What are the Genetic risk factors for developing an anxiety disorder

A

Certain gene types can influence the physiology and or biological of the brain aka increased brain reactivity to stress (appears important in GAD, OCD and some phobias)

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52
Q

what is Classic conditioning?

A

a process where a previously neutral Stimulus Elicits a response after being paired with With something that elicits a response (aka pulling the right lever gives you cake pulling the bad one shocks you).

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53
Q

what is an Unconditioned stimulus (UCS)?

A

An unconditioned stimulus occurs naturally in response to natural things (food makes your mouth water) this causes an Unconditioned response.

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54
Q

If you were to pair a conditioned Stimulus with an Unconditioned stimulus what would happen?

A

it will trigger the same Unconditioned response, if done long enough you can take away the Unconditioned stimulus and gain the same response

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55
Q

what is Operant conditioning?

A

the process of reinforcing a behaviour with an event or Consequence aka giving your dog a treat so it will sit.

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56
Q

what is positive Reinforcement?

A

adding a behaviour with pleasant stimuli (treats, affection).

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57
Q

what is Negative Reinforcement?

A

adding a behaviour by taking away a negative stimulus (alarm clock, isolation)

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58
Q

what is positive punishment?

A

Negating a Behaviour with negative stimuli (shock, a smack)

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59
Q

what is Negative punishment?

A

negating a behaviour by removing a positive stimulus (taking away food, isolation)

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60
Q

what is Modelling?

A

observing someone else and mimicking their behaviour (in the case of mental disorders, seeing someone else being Afraid of something and developing a fear because of that).

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61
Q

what anxiety disorder can be explained best by classic condition.

A

phobias (a dog bites you, you dislike the aggressive behaver and begin to associate all dogs with aggression).

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62
Q

what type of Operant conditioning best explains Avoidance?

A

negative reinforcement.

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63
Q

what is Cognition?

A

our thoughts, how we remember things, how we learn and general thought processes.

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64
Q

define somatic

A

Physical Sensations and feelings.

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65
Q

what are Depressive disorders characterised by?

A

sad, empty, or Irritable mood, Accompanied by somatic and cognitive changes that Significantly Affect the patient’s ability to function.

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66
Q

what are Bipolar disorders characterised by

A

Swings between Depressive symptoms and manic or hypomanic symptoms.

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67
Q

define Depression.

A

an extreme sadness and or lowered mood state.

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68
Q

define Mania

A

extreme, unwanted happiness that is unaligned with the person’s Experiences.

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69
Q

what are the symptoms of Depression?

A

. sad, low, or depressed mood most days and for most of the day.
. loss of pleasure and interest in hobbies and experiences.
. sleep problems (insomnia, commonly Terminal insomnia) or (hypersomnia)
. changes in activity levels (Psychomotor retardation or Psychomotor agitation), psychomotor
. loss of appetite, weight loss or increased appetite and weight gain.
. decreased energy, and Highly increased fatigue.
. Negative self-image, Guilt, Feelings of worthlessness, and Self-blame. in serious cases, Suicidal.
. Difficulty concentrating.
. suicidal thoughts and or thoughts of death.

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70
Q

what is the Diagnostic criteria for Major depressive disorder (MDD)?

A

must Present with 5 symptoms of depression for at least 2 weeks (almost always needing to possess the first few aka low mood, loss of Pleasure)

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71
Q

what is the most common depressive disorder?

A

Major depressive disorder (MDD)

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71
Q

Major depressive disorder (MDD) is more common in men true or false?

A

False. MDD is twice as reported in women than men though this Figure could be off due to the stigma of men showing weakness, there is an increasing number of men admitting their depression.

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72
Q

what is the chance of recurring episodes in Major depressive disorder?

A

There is an 80% chance that patients who Experience one Episode will experience at least one more within the year (15% of patients with MDD develop a chronic form with multiple recurring episodes).

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73
Q

what are the chances for men and women to develop MDD

A

There is a 10-25% chance for women and a 5-12% chance for men to develop major depression in their life.

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74
Q

how many people with Major depressive disorder are there in the AU population?

A

6.8% of female adults in Australia have MDD, while 5.1% of men have MDD.

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75
Q

define dysthymia/ Dysthymic disorder Persistent depressive disorder (PDD)

A

A less severe but more chronic form of depression.

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76
Q

what are the Diagnostic criteria for Persistent depressive disorder?

A

must have at least two of the symptoms from the depression symptom list (including the first symptom) but not meet the criteria for MDD and persist for 2 years or more (most days for most of the day, almost every day)

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77
Q

is it more or less common then MDD?

A

it Is less common than MDD (6-8% of women 5% for men)

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78
Q

what is the % of the population has PDD?

A

at any given time, 3% of the population have Dysthymia

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79
Q

PDD is rarely diagnosed until adulthood true or false?

A

True. PDD Usually starts in Adolescence but is rarely diagnosed until adulthood (most are wary of diagnosing Dysthymia at such a young age).

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80
Q

is it more or less common than MDD?

A

it Is less common than MDD (6-8% of women 5% for men)

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81
Q

what is the duration of PDD?

A

The common duration is 9 years but can last as long as 20 years

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82
Q

what are the symptoms of mania?

A

1 Inflated ego/sense of self. Grandiosity.
2 decreased need of sleep.
3 increased talking/ pressure to keep talking
4 flight of ideas. Constantly jumping from one thought to the next. Racing thoughts.
5 easly distracted
6 incrsesed goal-driven activity (socially, at work, sexualy) or Psychomotor agitation
7 increased risk-taking behaviour and or environment in Activities that could cause harm (sexual Indiscretions, buying sprees, foolish business investments)

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83
Q

Manic episodes criteria.

A

must possess at 3 symptoms from the Mania symptom list that last for a week, most of the day, nearly every day.

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84
Q

Hypomanic Episodes criteria

A

must possess 3 symptoms from the Mania symptom list that last for 4 consecutive days and present most of the day nearly every day.

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85
Q

define Bipolar disorder

A

A mood disorder that causes singing between manic episodes and depressive episodes.

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86
Q

Bipolar disorder Diagnostic criteria

A

must present with manic and depressive episodes (5+ symptoms from the depression symptoms list and 3 from the mania list) in the same 2-week period.

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87
Q

what is the difference between Bipolar 1 disorder and Bipolar 2 disorder?

A

Bipolar 2 disorder has hypomanic episodes

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88
Q

what is the Lifetime Prevalence of Bipolar disorder?

A

about 1.5%

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89
Q

what % of people with Bipolar disorder have a recurring Episode?

A

90% of people who have one episode will have another one, most resume normal functioning between episodes.

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90
Q

what is the prevalence of Bipolar disorder between men and women?

A

Is equally prevalent in men and women

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91
Q

which approach to intelligence developed Fluid and crystallized intelligence

A

psychometric.

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92
Q

define Cyclothymia

A

A lower level chronic mood disorder.

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93
Q

Diagnostic criteria for Cyclothymia

A

Presents with manic and depressive symptoms but not enough to meet the category of MDD or bipolar 1 or 2 disorder for at least 2 years and must be present at least half the time and symptoms must not be absent for more than 2 mouths (this would suggest something else)

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94
Q

what is Lewinsohn’s Operant conditioning Theory?

A

The belief that depression is caused by a lack of positive reinforcement in social situations causing one to withdraw decreasing the chance of positive reinforcement even more making the Individual more depressed

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95
Q

did Lewsinsohn believe that the empathy and concern from others enforced depression?

A

Lewinsohn believed that withdrawing may receive positive reinforcement in the form of empathy and concern from others.

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96
Q

what part of Lewinsohn’s theory is still used today?

A

re-entering social situations can help improve depression (thought this may take great effort) this part of the model is still used today.

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97
Q

what is Seligman’s theory of Learned helplessness?

A

depression is caused by an Unescapable traumatic event that causes helplessness in the individual, leading to a vicious cycle of depression and helplessness.

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98
Q

what is an example of Seligman’s theory of learned helplessness?

A

a man loses his job and blames it on the economy, he feels helpless to change things and becomes depressed, he doesn’t apply for any new jobs because he believes that it will turn out the same this only engrains the depression.

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99
Q

according to Seligman’s theory of learned helplessness, what is the way to avoid depression?

A

if the individual didn’t blame the economy for losing their job but instead on a factor they can control, they wouldn’t become depressed.

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100
Q

what is the most used theory for depression?

A

Cognitive model: beck’s theory of depression.

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101
Q

define Beck’s theory for depression.

A

This theory says that depression is caused by biases developed due to negative life events in three core areas.

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102
Q

what is the triad of beliefs

A

beliefs about the future, beliefs about our self and beliefs about the world.

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103
Q

how does the triad of beliefs relate to depression?

A

When something bad happens relating to one of those areas it is possible for us to develop a bies. Example: I failed this exam, so I will fail all exams.

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104
Q

how can the bais spread?

A

The individual may begin to surround themself with things to confirm their belief, they will only may attention to the bad things and ignorer all positive things that could dispute their belief.

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105
Q

what are the Biological causes of depression?

A

There is some evidence that depression has genetic factor especially in the case of recurring or more severe MDD or PDD.
Neurotransmitter function
Reduced and or imbalances in serotonin, dopamine and noradrenaline (neurotransmitters, the brains chemcal messengers)

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106
Q

what are the psychosocial factors for depression?

A

Environmental/life events.

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107
Q

Stressors in what areas can increase the risk of Depression risk factors?

A

1 negative, hostile, abusive or disruptive home Environment
2 death of a loved one (Especially as a child)
3 parent divorce
4 loss of employment (for self or close family member)
5 high levels and or Excessive levels of emotional expression in the famly
6 lack of intimate relationships (partner, family, friends).

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108
Q

what are Suicide ideation/suicidal ideation?

A

thoughts or fantasies of suicide

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109
Q

define Suicide attempt

A

attempting to take one own life.

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110
Q

define Death by suicide/sucide

A

taking one’s own life

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111
Q

what is Suicide ideation/suicidal ideation?

A

thoughts or fantasies of suicide

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112
Q

is commits the correct term when referring to suicide?

A

no. Avoid using commits as it Implies criminality

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113
Q

are “ Successful, unsuccessful, completed and failed” correct terms when referring to suicide?

A

Avoid using Successful, unsuccessful, completed, or failed when relating to suicide as it implies that suicide is an Achievement.

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114
Q

what MDs are most strongly connected to suicide?

A

bipolar and depressive disorders.

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115
Q

how much more likely are people with MDD to suicide?

A

Those with MDD are x7 more likely to suicide

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116
Q

how much more likely are people with PDD to suicide?

A

PDD is x 4

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117
Q

how much more likely are people with Bipoler

A

Bipolar is x 6

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118
Q

how many deaths are caused by suicide?

A

Suicide accounts for 1.4% of deaths in Australia

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119
Q

rates of Suicide between genders.

A

More males die from suicide than females but more females attempt suicide

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120
Q

what are the Psychological factors of suicide?

A

Depression
Hopelessness
Other disorders such as Schizophrenia, PTSD, and some personality disorder.

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121
Q

what are the Socio-cultural factors of suicide?

A

gender (males are more likely to Suicide)
First nation/cultural minority
rural/regional areas
Substance abuse
Chronic, painful or disfiguring illness or disability
Loss of a loved one (not just through death but other means such as divorce).

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122
Q

What is schizophrenia?

A

Schizophrenia is an umbrella term for many disorders that involve a disconnect from reality, usually involving delusions and hallucinations

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123
Q

psychosis =?

A

a loss of contact with reality (you don’t need schizophrenia to have psychosis, but you almost always need psychosis to have schizophrenia)

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124
Q

Hallucinations=?

A

experiences in the absence of actual stimuli.

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125
Q

Delusion=?

A

holding a belief that doesn’t aline with reality.

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125
Q

Delusion=?

A

holding a belief that doesn’t aline with reality.

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126
Q

Persecutory Delusions=?

A

believing someone or something is out to get you, ie, the government, a hitman.

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127
Q

Grandiose delusions=?

A

believing you are better than other people.

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128
Q

Religious delusions=?

A

believing you have some form of religious power, ie Jesus Christ returned to earth, being a saint.

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129
Q

Somatic delusions=?

A

believing something has happened to your body ie a chip has been inserted into your brain.

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130
Q

Delusions of reference=?

A

believing that something has a special meaning to you, ie the news broadcaster is giving signals that the world is ending.

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131
Q

Delusions of being controlled=?

A

believing that you’re being controlled by other people (can link with somatic delusions)

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132
Q

Delusions of mind reading=?

A

believing you can read minds (can link up with auditory Hallucination)

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133
Q

Thought broadcasting=?

A

believing other people can hear what you are thinking

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134
Q

Thought insertion=?

A

believing someone else is putting thoughts into your head

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135
Q

Thought Withdrawal=?

A

believing that people are taking your thoughts away.

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136
Q

which of the delusions can link up with the Deteriorating of thought?

A

all of the thoughts could have a link with the Deteriorating thought process of the patient, ie why can’t I think through things as i used to it must be because —

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137
Q

Thought disorder symptoms=?

A

The tendency of thought to move less logically than before and instead move along associated Lines.

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138
Q

Derailment=?

A

thoughts slid off track to something vaguely related.

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139
Q

Circumstantiality=?

A

speech remains on track but takes a long time to reach its destination (bringing in unnecessary information, vague and unclear)

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140
Q

Distractible speech=?

A

speech changes mid-sentence due to stimuli

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141
Q

Emotional blunting=?

A

unchanging expression even when speaking of something distressing.

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142
Q

Alogia=?

A

the difficulty of speech, slow to respond/only using keywords

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143
Q

Avolition=?

A

reduces motivation, reduced chance to partake in normal behaviour. Poor hygiene, poor social life.

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144
Q

schiz Typically develops when?

A

in early adulthood, Developing earlier in males (females 25 years old, males 18)

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145
Q

A progression=?

A

starts Acutely and remains Episodic before tapering off in Mid to late adulthood (becoming mild or completely absent. (25% of cases)

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146
Q

C progression=?

A

Starts Acutely, Remains severe, And slowly tapers off, leaving Residual symptoms. (8% of cases)

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147
Q

D progression=?

A

starts Gradually then becomes Episodic before dropping off to mild or Completely absent symptoms. (10% of cases)

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148
Q

E progression=?

A

Starts Gradually, and remains Continuous before slightly lessening but remains moderate or severe. (24% of cases)

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149
Q

F progression=?

A

Other patterns (23% of cases)

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150
Q

what are the Genetics factors for schizophrenia?

A

there are several genes that increase your likelihood of developing it.

Dizygotic twins are far less likely to get schizophrenia when one twin has it (17%)compared to Monozygotic twins (48%). This implies that there is a strong genetic link, but due to it not being 100%, it says that there are also factors.

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151
Q

The dopamine hypothesis=?

A

This theory suggests that an excess of dopamine is the cause of schizophrenia. This suggests that the problem could be that some areas of the brain collect dopamine, causing an excess in those areas and leaving far less for the others. Why neurons are collecting dopamine is still under research.

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152
Q

diathesis-stress model for schizophrenia=?

A

This theory suggests that A mix of genetic disposition and stress can cause schizophrenia.
If you have a high Genetic Vulnerability, you may Develop the disorder on your own.
If you have a moderate to minor genetic vulnerability, you may need an Environmental stressor to cause it, ie Childhood neglect.

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153
Q

can drugs trigger schizophrenia?

A

Certain drugs can also trigger it. (Psychotic/Dissociative drugs) as well as Marijuana.

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154
Q

is it possible that all these theories could Coexist and Explain one another?

A

yes

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155
Q

Dissociative disorder=?

A

they are disruptions/in the way we process reality to the degree that one becomes detached from it, they involve distortions in Consciousness, Memory, Identity And perception.

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156
Q

what are the Symptoms of Derealisation?

A

the feeling that one’s surroundings are not real or are dream-like or, in other cases, familiar places seem new/unfamiliar.

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157
Q

Depersonalisation symtoms=?

A

the feeling that you are not real or living in a dream or movie, can also feel like you are watching yourself from the outside.

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158
Q

are these symptoms relatively common among the population?

A

yes (50% of people Experience these from time to time). These symptoms usually pass relatively quickly

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159
Q

Depersonalisation disorder=?

A

Recurrent experiences of Derealisation and/or depersonalisation commonly associated with panic attacks.

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160
Q

Symptoms of Depersonalisation disorder=?

A

. May feel detached from one’s emotions, self, thoughts, or specific body parts.
. They May feel robotic or as if they lack control
. may be an impairment of sensation or sense of time

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161
Q

Diagnostic criteria for Depersonalisation disorder=?

A

must be expressing Clinically significant stress and or impairment to daily function

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162
Q

Dissociative amnesia=?

A

The forgetting of personal information and in junction with a traumatic event

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163
Q

Criticism of the diagnosis of Dissociative amnesia=?

A

trauma can trigger intentional repression of memories. This is not amnesia. People normally have gaps in Memory; there is lacking evidence to support this disorder, as well as the fact it, could be better explained by other things.

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164
Q

Dissociative fugue=?

A

A combination of forgetting one’s identity and personal information and the removal of one’s self from their setting (to a new town/city) can last from hours to years.

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165
Q

causes for Dissocitative fuge?

A

Dissociative fugues are usually associated with a form of trauma . (once again, this brings up the question of if this was an attempt to escape ones trauma or actual amnesia)

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166
Q

Dissociative identity disorder (DID)=?

A

Characterised by an individual having at least 2 distinct identity/personalities which alternate in control of the behaver

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167
Q

host=? (DID)

A

Typically there is a Primary/“host” personality, and one or more alters that differ from the host in many Facets.

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168
Q

can there be Physical differences between alters (brain activity, speech patterns, handedness)?

A

yes.

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169
Q

Post-traumatic model=? (DID)

A

his theory suggests that DID is developed in response to an early childhood trauma were the individual creates another identity to manage the stress, ie “this isn’t happening to me. This is happening to someone else.”

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170
Q

Sociocognitive model=? (DID)

A

this theory questions the validity of DID and suggests that it is a false belief created by how the Therapist Communicates with different aspects of the patient’s personality leading both to believe that they are separate identities Entirely.

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171
Q

how do you determine what is disordered personality?

A

. Culturally determined normality eg Extremely introverted or extroverted.
. Context to the behaviour, is it happening consistently
. The longevity of the behaviour is the Behaviour been a long-standing issue?.

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172
Q

self-report Bias=?

A

. Self-report bias, Individuals tend to avoid topics that are socially looked down upon Or will describe them in less than vivid detail, as well as a lack of insight into their behaviour Being wrong and a tendency to believe that everyone else is in the wrong.

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173
Q

what are the Diagnosis Guidelines for personality disorders?

A

. Personality traits should first appear by Adolescence (though Diagnosis at this age is not advised)
. Traits are inflexible and stable and are expressed in a wide vairy of situations, thought stress tends to Exacerbate the personality traits.
. traits lead to distress and or impeachment for the individual and or others; the patient may not recognise their action to be causing them stress but rather Circumstance.

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174
Q

Personality disorders are rarely diagnosed before 18 true or false?

A

true

175
Q

Personality disorders are known to have high comorbidity with which other mental disorders?

A

depression, anxiety, and others. Such as other personality disorders. (the reverse of this concept is not the case)

176
Q

what are the three Types of Personality Disorder?

A

A, the odd, Eccentric cluster: most common is Paranoid personality disorder.
B, the Dramatic, Emotionally, erratic cluster: most common disorder is Borderline personality disorder.
C, the Anxious, fearful cluster: Most common disorder is Dependant personality disorder.

177
Q

what are the 2 Current issues about personality disorders?

A

High level of Comorbidity: There is a debate About the Distinction of some personality disorders due to the high comorbidity of them

Frequency of unspecified diagnosis: an Individual may meet The criteria for Several personality disorders or meet the criteria for none but almost for several. This raises the question of whether the Categorised approach to diagnosing personality disorders Is effective.

178
Q

paranoid personality disorder Definition?

A

Perverse And extreme distrust And suspicion of others

179
Q

paranoid personality disorder Symptoms:

A

1: Unfounded suspicion of others, Believes that others plan to do harm, deceive, or exploit them in some fashion
2: Constant preoccupation with Doubts of the loyalty of family and friends.
3: Possesses unwillingness to confide in others
4: Interprets positive or neutral marks as offensive or threatening
5: Constantly holds grudges, especially for long periods of time.
6:Perceives personal attacks where others do not. Usually responding in a curt, defensive and/or aggressive manner.
7: A constant unjustified belief that their partner is being unfaithful.

180
Q

Diagnostic criteria for paranoid personality disorder

A

must have at least four of the symptoms of paranoid personality disorder

181
Q

what type of personality disorder is paranoid personality disorder?

A

A

182
Q

Borderline personality disorder Definition

A

a long-term instability of relationships, self-view, and mood.

183
Q

Symptoms of BPD

A

1: frantic efforts to avoid real or imaginary abandonment.
2: Intense and unstable relationships that swing between idolising and despising/Devaluing the other individual.
3: Unstable sense of self/Identity.
4: Impulsivity and at least two areas (sex, Spending, Substance use, Binge eating)
5: Reoccurring self-harm or suicidal behaviour
8: Emotionally volatile, Especially with negative emotions.
7:Chronic feelings of emptiness.
8:Anger issues, Inappropriate anger, Inability or great difficulty to control anger.
9: Short-term Paranoid thoughts And/or severe dissociative symptoms.
Possess a pattern of Stable Instability (an instability that is long held and unchanging)

184
Q

Diagnostic criteria for BPD

A

: Must possess at least 5 of the symptoms fo BPD

185
Q

how much of the population has BPD?

A

2% of the population has BPD

186
Q

% of males vs Females? bpd

A

Mostly diagnosed In females, though, this is questionable due to an increasing number of males being diagnosed.

187
Q

BPD High Comorbidity with ?

A

High Comorbidity with personality disorders, Substance disorders and less commonly eating disorders.

188
Q

probable cause for BPD?

A

Some evidence shows that BPD is associated with childhood trauma/abuse.

189
Q

when does BPD improve?

A

Tends to improve Midlife as they grow older.

190
Q

dependent personality disorder definition

A

Constant and extreme need to be taken care of, accompanied by severe separation anxiety, leads to submissive and clingy behaviour.

191
Q

Symptoms of Dependent personality disorder

A

1:Difficulty making everyday decisions without reassurance or Reassurance
2:wants others to take responsibility for their major life decisions
3:A fear of disagreeing with others even when The chance of the other person becoming angry is extremely low.
4:A lack and confidence to initiate activities
5:Takes extreme steps To gain approval/support from others, ie Volunteering for unpleasant tasks
6: Feels discomfort when alone Because they fear they will have to look after themselves.
7:Frantically seeks new relationship when one ends.
8:A preoccupation with fears of being left to look after themselves

192
Q

Diagnostic criteria of dependent personality disorder.

A

Must possess 5 or more of the symptoms

193
Q

% of pop dependent personality disorder.

A

. Is an uncommon disorder (0.4%-0.6%) of the population

194
Q

% of males vs females dependent personality disorder.

A

. Is more common in females, though is also present in males, which could possibly suggest a social bias of diagnosis.

195
Q

why is Developmental appropriateness needed in the diagnosis of dependent personality disorder?

A

children, the disabled are cared for commonly and so this disorder may not fit them.

196
Q

Neurodevelopmental disorder=?

A

a disorder that manifests during childhood or prenatal development.

197
Q

examples of Neurodevelopmental disorders

A

. Intellectual Disability (sometimes).
. Communication disorders (stuttering).
. Autism spectrum disorder.
. Learning disorders (Dyslexia).
. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).

198
Q

Autism spectrum disorder Diagnostic criteria

A

symptom Severity differ. Symptoms must be present in early life and cause Significant impairment in social and or Occupational functioning as well as the presence of the following.

199
Q

what are the 2 categories of ASD

A

Persistent Deficit In Communication and social interaction and Restricted, repetitive behaviours, Interests or activities Demonstrated

200
Q

Persistent Deficit In Communication and social interaction, include what? (ASD)

A

. Inability to Engage in Social-emotional reciprocity (the act of understanding one or more people’s emotions and acting accordingly, aka sharing)
. Difficulty in understanding and exhibiting Nonverbal Behaviour, ie sarcasm, smiling.
. Difficulty understanding in forming relationships.

201
Q

Restricted, repetitive behaviours, Interests or activities includes what? (ASD)

A

. Stereotypes/repetitive Motor movements use of objects or speech (Possibly to reduce stress).
.Instances of Sameness, inflexibility and ritualized behaviour (only eating white foods, wearing the same kind of clothes).
. Narrow fixated interests that are excessively intense (watching the same show over and over again)
. Extreme sensitivity or limited sensitivity to Environmental stimuli (Indifference to pain, Excessive touching of objects or avoidance of objects)

202
Q

how many symptoms of the Restricted, repetitive behaviours, Interests or activities are needed for a diagnosis of ASD

A

at least two

203
Q

how many of the symptoms from the Persistent Deficit In Communication and social interaction category are needed for a diagnosis of ASD

A

all of them.

204
Q

Prevalence (ASD)

A

6%-2% of children

205
Q

% of males vs females asd

A

4x more common in men though there is an increase in women being diagnosed.

206
Q

does ASD present differently in women?

A

There is some debate that ASD presents differently in women.

207
Q

are there genetic components for ASD

A

Has a strong genetic component

208
Q

the identical twin Concordance rate (ASD)

A

ranges from 37% - 90%

209
Q

Pruning hypthoisis=? ASD

A

he belief that ASD is caused by a lack of Pruning (Connections in the brain are Severed to increase Efficiency) during development periods.

210
Q

Neurocognitive=?

A

a class of disorder in which the Dominant symptoms are Cognitive impairment (decline in thinking, problem-solving, Memory etc)

211
Q

Common causes of Neurocognitive disorders

A

1: advanced age (Alzheimer’s disease)
2: illness (HIV related dementia)
3: injury (Traumatic brain injury)
4: Genetics (Huntington’s disease)

212
Q

Can Neurocognitive disorders be seen on MRI in later stages?

A

Neurocognitive disorders can be seen on MRI in later stages.

213
Q

Dementia=?

A

is an umbrella term that covers a range of disorders in which there is a steady Irreversible pattern of cognitive decline. Can affect memory, Language thought and behaviour

214
Q

Are there treatable forms of Dementia

A

Some forms are treatable (eg due to infection) but the majority are not

215
Q

the onset of dementia is typical —–

A

insidious (hard to detect due to natural memory decline in aging)

216
Q

the most common type of dementia=?

A

Alzheimer’s disease

217
Q

Alzheimer’s disease=?

A

It is a degenerative brain disorder characterised by cognitive decline and Culminates in widespread cognitive failure and death.

218
Q

Alzheimer’s disease Diagnostic criteria

A

Technically, it can only be confirmed Postmortem.

219
Q

Probable Alzheimer’s disease=?

A

this Alzheimer’s disease diagnosis is made when there is a Family history and a Significant cognitive decline (a full diagnosis can only be made after death)

220
Q

Possible Alzheimer’s disease=?

A

This Alzheimer’s disease is made when there is no family history but the same pattern of cognitive decline that other medical conditions cannot explain. (a full diagnosis can only be made after death)

221
Q

Probable Alzheimer’s disease and Possible Alzheimer’s disease are wildly used terms, true of false?

A

False, These terms are rarely used unless you writing medical papers.

222
Q

Prevalence of Alzheimer’s disease at age 65-

A

13%

223
Q

prevalence of Alzheimer’s disease at age 85+

A

42%

224
Q

Average lifespan with Alzheimer’s disease=?

A

10 years (this can also be because of other medical conditions the individual; may develop in that time)

225
Q

% of men vs women with Alzheimer’s disease

A

Tends to be more common among women (Even after taking into account their longer lifespan of them)

226
Q

AD is Physically Characterised by=?

A

by the presence of Neurofibrillary tangles, senile (aka Amyloid) Plaques and Neurone loss, Typically concentrated in specific regions of the brain.

227
Q

Neurofibrillary tangles (NFTs) are=?

A

Threads of protein that Occur within Neurons (the brain cell that sends messages to other brain cells, they allow us to move to think to control our brains, and they are the most important brain cell). Proteins develop in different ways than when you are younger, causing tangled that inhibit the way the neurons are Supposed to work.

228
Q

Amyloid plaques (senile Plaques)=?

A

Occur around the cells; they are bits of debris the brain is Unable to get rid of. They are caused by Degenerating neurones And a buildup of protein.

229
Q

The parts of the brain Damaged by Alzheimer’s disease are very specific, they spread in a predictable pattern. It tends to start in the=?

A

Temporal lobes (the part of the brain that is important to Memory)

230
Q

(AD) Over time the pattern of Atrophy can be seen in=?

A

x-rays

231
Q

how does the brain change in AD?

A

The parts of the brain that are damaged are smaller than a normal brain.

232
Q

Alzheimer’s disease progression-cognitive starts with=?

A

starts with confusion and irritability, sometimes speech deficits (trouble finding the right word)

233
Q

Alzheimer’s disease progression-cognitive. what happens when the condition progresses?

A

As the condition progresses, the memory Impairment becomes Increasingly notable

234
Q

Is there a pattern of memory loss in Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Memory loss follows the pattern of Structural brain Deterioration.

235
Q

Episodic memory=?

A

memory of events that have taken place (you went to Sydney)

236
Q

Somatic memory=?

A

general knowledge (Sydney is the largest city in NSW)

237
Q

Procedural memory=?

A

memories of actions (how to make a cup of tea, how to drive)

238
Q

Memory deterioration precedes in what order? AD

A

Memory deterioration precedes chronologically backwards (Individual forgets their grandchildren’s names first, then their children, then their pattern, then siblings)

239
Q

First symptoms in Alzheimer’s disease other than memory loss=?

A

depression (could be due to the stress of forgetting things)

240
Q

second symptoms in Alzheimer’s disease.

A

Can be argumentative or even combative (perhaps lashing out at a partner who is treating them)

241
Q

third symptoms in Alzheimer’s disease

A

Language Impairment, Struggling to remember words (sees a dog and can’t remember the word for it). Speech production may be inhibited (knowing the word but having trouble producing it)

242
Q

forth symptoms in Alzheimer’s disease

A

Motor agitation, Restlessness, having trouble staying still, sundowning (increased motor agitation as the sun goes down)

243
Q

5th symptoms in Alzheimer’s disease

A

Motor Impairment, having trouble walking etc

244
Q

6th symptoms in Alzheimer’s disease

A

Psychosis: Hallucinations, seeing things that aren’t there.

245
Q

7th symptoms in Alzheimer’s disease

A

lose of social Inhibition: may swear when before they did not, may behave invasively.

246
Q

Genetic factors for Alzheimer’s disease

A

there is strong evidence that several genes influence the likelihood of developing AD (Especially in younger cases) though there are other aspects that seem be more important.

247
Q

Medical history for Alzheimer’s disease.

A

Previously experiencing a Traumatic brain injury Increases the risk of Alzheimer’s disease. Certain conditions (eg down syndrome) are Associated With greater risk of AD.

248
Q

Obsessive-Compulsive disorder=?

A

a mental disorder characterised by a need to repeat specific actions and or behaviours usually accompanied by anxious thoughts

248
Q

Body-dysmorphic disorder=?

A

a disorder Characterised by the delusion about the shape or size of a specific part of one’s body)

249
Q

Hoarding disorder=?

A

a disorder the obsessive hoarding of objects, animals etc. to the point of being dangerous to one’s self or others

250
Q

Trichotillomania=?

A

a disorder Characterised by hair pulling

251
Q

Obsessions (ocd)=?

A

Persistent, intrusive Thoughts, images or Impulsive That are unwanted or inappropriate and cause distress.

252
Q

Compulsions (ocd)=?

A

A behaviour or a mental act that the person feels compelled to complete in response to an Obsession. It can attach to the obsession, ie (if I don’t check the door 15 times, someone is going to rob me) or it can be a mental routine they must follow.

253
Q

Common compulsions=?

A

washing hands, changing clothes, staying clean.

254
Q

Common obsessions=?

A

forbidden thoughts (thoughts they know are wrong, ie raping someone). Symmetry.

255
Q

Prevalence of OCD

A

2-3% of the population

256
Q

% of men vs women

A

Believed to be equal in men and women.

257
Q

trauma=?

A

an event (or events) that cause extreme distress or disturbance

258
Q

stressor=?

A

An environmental circumstance (eg Social or physical) that causes fear, frustration or Sadness

259
Q

Reactive attachment disorder (Paediatric)=?

A

is a disorder in childhood triggered by a period of maltreatment, ie neglect

260
Q

Disinhibited social engagement (Paediatric)=?

A

is a disorder in childhood triggered by a period of maltreatment, ie neglect

261
Q

Acute stress disorder=?

A

a response that is Experienced very closly after a traumatic event

262
Q

Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)=?

A

A disorder Characterised by repeated stress in response to a traumatic event?

263
Q

Diagnostic criteria of PTSD=?

A

1: The person was exposed to death, Threatened death, Actual or serious injury or Sexual.
2: the individual must for at least one month following the trauma Experience the symptoms of PTSD.
For the diagnosis of PTSD to be made the symptoms must appear at least 1 month after the trauma.

264
Q

What are the 4 types of exposure in PTSD?

A

. Direct exposer (they almost died)

. Witnessed in person (someone they were close to died, either Emotionally or Physically)

. Indirectly (they hear of the death of a loved one)

. Repeat or extreme repeat exposure (they experience death every day as a paramedic, this can also count as indirectly if they are viewing many images of traumatic things)

265
Q

symptoms of PTSD=?

A

. Persistent re-experiencing of the traumatic event (Nightmares, flashbacks etc)
. Persistent avoidance of associative stimuli And numbing of general response.
. Negative alterations to cognition or mood (eg Excessive guilt or blame of Self or other, Feelings of alienation Inability to enjoy activities previously enjoyed)
. Persistent symptoms of Heightened arousal(eg Hypervigilance Irritable behaviour Exaggerated startle)

266
Q

after the trauma when do the symptoms of PTSD tend to show up?

A

Symptoms usually begin within 3 months but not always (in some cases, delays of mouths or years have been reported).

267
Q

Prevalence among high-risk (Veterans, Victims of bushfires victims of Criminal Assault) groups=?

A

3-58%

268
Q

Prevalence of ptsd in Australia=?

A

2%-3%

269
Q

Global prevalence of ptsd=?

A

7.8%

270
Q

what % of the population will experience a traumatic event in their lifetime?

A

60%-70%

271
Q

Good attending behaviour=?

A

. Varied and appropriate eye contact (making sure to look at them enough, so they know you are listing but not too much that you are staring).
. Relaxed neutral posture and gesture (make sure to look Comfortable but not Disinterested, don’t cross your legs or arms, try not to lean back)
. Stay with the topic (don’t lose focus or wander off)

272
Q

listening blocks=?

A

1:Mind reading (the act of disregarding what is being said and looking for a hidden meaning)
2:rehearsing (the act of thinking about and or rehearsing what you will sat next)
3: flittering (the act of only listing to some things but not others, such as more Emphasised or loud points)
4: judging (Judging a person based on the content of the conversation)
5: advising (the act of advising prematurely without all the information)
6: Placating (the act of being too quick to agree Especially to comfort someone)

273
Q

Minimal encouragement=?

A

Small Indicators that say you are following what the person is saying
Nonverbal: leaning forward, nodding.
Verbal: “mm-hmm”, “then?”, “tell me more” (make sure they are not distracting or overpower the person’s train of thought)

274
Q

Paraphrasing=?

A

The act of repeating what the client has said to you back to them as a way of showing you’ve understood. This is also a great way of allowing your client to correct you if you have misunderstood.
Usually used for Reiterating events.

275
Q

Reflecting feelings=?

A

Like paraphrasing but for emotions. Showing you understand how the Patient feels.
It Can be useful to both you and the Patient to name the Emotions. (don’t assume that everyone has the same grasp of their emotions as you)

276
Q

Summarising=?

A

Condensing what has been said previously back to the patient (summing up)

277
Q

When is summarising used?

A

Can be used to start a meeting.
Can be used throughout a session, especially in A pause after a lengthy conversation (it can be sued as a way of making sure you are both on the same page)

278
Q

Concreteness=?

A

Keep the client on specifics
. Avoid premature decisions on what the problem is
. Prevent client from avoiding issues
. Ask questions to probe for the full story

279
Q

Role explanation=?

A

Make clear the extent and limitations of your role as a Counsellor.

280
Q

Psychotherapy=?

A

a term covering a wide range of Techniques used to enhance a person’s emotional and psychological well-being

281
Q

Who dose psychotherapy?

A

Psychologist
Social workers
Counsellors
General practitioners
psychiatrists
nurses
Others

282
Q

Where is psychotherapy used?

A

Psychologists offices
Practitioner/rooms surgeries
Workplaces
Support services (Relationships Australia)
group/family settings (Alcoholics Anonymous)
Hospitals
Schools
Online or over the phone

283
Q

Certain treatments in psychotherapy require you to be qualified to do them these include=?

A

1 Psychological scale/tests. Psychologist (due to needing a higher level of understanding to not only give the test but also Interpret the results)
2 Prescribed medication. Psychiatrists and general practitioners (due to requiring knowledge of drug interactions and other medical details not found in the Educational curriculum of psychologists)

284
Q

What makes a good therapist?

A

warmth/empathy
Ability to develop a good Therapeutic Alliance (working relationship with the Patient)
Can focus on Focus on key issues
Can aline the best treatment with the patient
A williness to get feedback on preformace
Keeps up to date on research
Behaves in an ethical manner

285
Q

The science-practitioner model=?

A

an approach to psychology that states that scientists should inform the Practitioners of there newest findings and in return Practitioners should inform the Scientists of the success of the findings.

286
Q

Strengths of the science-practitioner model=?

A

helps strengthen well-known theories and refine them

287
Q

Limitations of The science-practitioner model=?

A

can stunt growth of field and limit new ideas.

288
Q

Psychodynamic therapy=?

A

The theory that Mental problems are due to strong unconscious thoughts and desires in thye subconscious, freud believed that if the patient was to become awere of these things they would be returned to healthy functioning

289
Q

Who made Psychodynamic therapy?

A

freude

290
Q

Requirements of Psychodynamic therapy=?

A

Insight: the client must be able to understand one’s own psychological process
Therapist-client Alliance: good relationship is crucial in the change of Disordered psychological processes

291
Q

5 core beliefs of psychodynamic therapy=?

A

1 Most behaviour is driven by unconscious wishes, impulses, drives and conflicts,
2 There is a meaningful reason for the behaviour that can be discovered by the therapy
3 Current issues are based on childhood experience
4 To overcome a problem one must relive the past emotional experience
5 once the client understands and has emotional insight onto the Unconscious The symptoms are understood and thus often resolve themselves

292
Q

Psychodynamic therapies: stages of psychoanalysis=?

A

Psychodynamic therapies: stages of psychoanalysis
1: Free association. The client is given free range to express thoughts and feelings and to verbalise whatever comes to mind with the itent to uncover uncocions material.
2: Interpretation. Interpretation comes into play When supposedly unconscious materialism The therapist points out to the patient defences and the meaning behind there behavours and thoughts, desires and dreams.
3: dream Analysis. The therapists interpsts the dreams, looking into them as a window into the subconscious.
4: Resistance. Resistance or blockage to the flow of free thought are believed to be due to an uncocios control over sensitive arrears, these are the ares that the therapists should target
5 Transference: The process of transferring emotions, thoughts, feelings, fears, wishes and simler conflicts from one relationship to another Similar relationship. Clients may begin to transfer past relshionships onto the therapists this can also happen in the reverse.
6: working through. The therapists aids in the proccesing of uncoisos matrial and isight gained during the session.

293
Q

Criticism of psychodynamic approach=?

A

Sample bias- Freud based his studies on the rich Intelligent and successful this could lead to bies.
Confirmation bias- fraud and others like him tended to Cherry pick the information that backed their claims and ignoried information that suggested otherwise
Long term- long term thapries are expinesive and there are shorter alternatives now
Do we realy need insight to resolve?
Lack of scientific rigour in some situations- Pretended to use lot of Circular arguments (arguments that are based on flawed logical to appear difficult to disprove) spider theory.

294
Q

Humanistic therapy=?

A

Humanistic therapy believe that all humans on currently good and that they are always Capable of reaching their full potential

295
Q

What are the similarities between humanistic therapy and the psychodynamic approach?

A

Like psychodynamic therapy, humanistic therapy requires the client to have an insight into there problems.

296
Q

Humanistic therapy focuses on—?

A

This therapy focuses on phenomenology (the way each person Consciously Experiences the world, self and relationships.

297
Q

the aim of Humanistic therapy=?

A

to help people get in touch with there feelings, with there ture slefs and find meaning in life.

298
Q

What are the three main therapies?

A

Humanistic therapies, others being Behaviourism And psychoanalysis

299
Q

Humanistic therapy was largely created by–?

A

Abraham Maslow

300
Q

Person-centred Therapy (Client-centred) was made by —?

A

Carl Rogers.

301
Q

Rogers rejected the desi model and instead said that —?

A

People come to be helped with their problems not to be cured.

302
Q

Core traits of a good therapist

A

1 Therapists must be genuine And authentic (aka Congruence)
2 Therapists must Express unconditional positive regard (aka Acceptance)
3 Therapists must relate with empathetic understanding

303
Q

Rodgerian Assumptions=?

A

1: People can only be understood from the vantage point of their own emotions and Perceptions
2: Healthy people are aware of their own behaviour
3: People are innately good and effective they become ineffective and disturbed only when a faulty learning intervenes
4: Behaviour is purposive and goal-directed (meaning even if the person believes it’s not the bet way they believe it is the only way for them to achieve a goal)
5: Therapist should not try to manipulate Events for the individual But rather create conditions to allow the individual to make the own choice.

304
Q

Criticisms to Person-centred Therapy

A

Lack of scientific rigour: Certain concepts are hard to measure, ie Self-awareness
Positive regard and empathy may not be required to treat effectively
Efficacy is variable: Some evidence suggests that Person centred therapy is no more Effective at dealing with problems than talking through problems with any other individual
Cultural bias?: Certain cultures do not hold the same Important in self as the western society does some focus far more on Community.

305
Q

what are the similarities between psychodynamic and humanistic therapy?

A

They both require the indaviudal to have insight into their minds

306
Q

what are the differences between psychodynamic and humanistic therapy?

A

Psychodynamic therapy says that people are unaware of their unconscience Material while Humanistic therapy says that healthy people are aware.

307
Q

Behavioural and cognitive therapy Evolved becuse of the development of behavioural and cognitive psychology in what year?

A

1940s onwards.

308
Q

Basic principles of behavioural and Cognitive Therapies=?

A

1: short term. (Avoids periods of long term therapy, aims to be quick and efficient)
2: Focuses on the current behaviour/Cognition rather than the cause for it (ie childhood)
3: therapy starts with a Behavioural analysis. (in In cognitive therapy this extends to cognitions) It is important to fully understand the problem for the patient befor treating
4: Therapy targets problematic Behaviours, cognitions And (to a lesser degree) emotional responses, (emotional responses are usually used as a measure of how effective the treatment is)

309
Q

Exposure therapy is used for what?

A

phobias and anxieties

310
Q

What does Exposure therapy involve?

A

Involves confronting the client with their fear.

311
Q

Types of exposure=?

A

1 Systematic desensitization: In-house pairing a relaxation technique with the anxiety (a Counter conditioning process) is used for Anxiety Especially Phobias
2 Flooding techniques
3 Virtual reality exposure (a form of systematic desensitization done in a virtual environment)

312
Q

What is the important element of exposure therapy?

A

when the patient is exposed they are incapable of leaving and must Experience the anxiety Until it resides.

313
Q

How does exposure therapy work?

A

Anxiety reactions Decay overtime Due to the required energy that the body cannot continuously provide By preventing the Ability to flee or fight The individual experiences that declined anxiety and is reconditioned.

314
Q

Avoidance of anxiety is what kind of operant conditioning?

A

Negative reinforcement

315
Q

Desensitization hierarchy=?

A

Involves Rating fear stimuli In order of severity And slowly introducing that stimuli in incremental steps. (1, thinking of spider, 2 holding spider in box, 3 leting spider crawl on arm)

316
Q

Flooding=?

A

the act of Introducing Severe fear stimuli Immediately after some education on tips to cope (this is more uncommen but some choose to do this). It is Incredibly important not to alow the peson to Engage in their usual avoidance response as this will Reinforced the fear (Response preservation) sometimes people will mentaly avoid the stimly this is far more difficult to mange.

317
Q

Virtual reality=?

A

The client Views Computer made images that trigger the fear response. Virtual reality is commonly used for fears were exposure therapy would be costly, Dangerous, Or difficult to complete for some other reason.

318
Q

—- (1960s) pointed out how we not only learn from experience but also from other people.

A

Bandura

319
Q

Modelling involves what?

A

1 it is unconscious, Eating like the way your friend is eating
2 it is associated with the learning of both adaptive and maladaptive behaviour. (Parent is afraid of a snake, so you are afraid of snake)
3 This can be used in therapy by the therapist modelling the wanted behaviour, either Implicitly (the client learns over time by Observing The therapist) or Explicitly (through roleplay and role reversal)

320
Q

What is The most common form of modelling?

A

Social skills training.

321
Q

what is social skills training used for?

A

it is most commonly used on individuals who have a range of concerns in social settings (shyness, Lack of assertiveness) as well as disorders that Effects social skills (Schizophrenia, autism, depression). This is not considered a cure for those who are experiencing a disorder.

322
Q

What does social skills training involve

A

The commen set up of Social skills training is Direct skills training from the therapist followed by roleplay followed by self-examination followed by planning of Future social encounters.

323
Q

Is Virtual reality being used for social skills training?

A

yes

324
Q

How is Operant conditioning used in therapy?

A

Operant conditioning can be useful With anxiety disorders especially in children who lack the capacity to fully understand the therapy.

325
Q

Token economy=?

A

A star chart or similar reward given after completing the Desired behaviour and taken away for unwanted behaviour.

326
Q

when are token economies used?

A

commonly used with children but can be used in more adult settings like psych wards

327
Q

Aversion therapy=?

A

Pairing unpleasant stimuli with an unwanted behaviour to negate the behaviour.

328
Q

when is aversion therapy used?

A

it Is not commonly used. However, can be useful in certain situations. (aka Alcohol Addiction at the behest of the client, especially after failed attempts to quit prior)

329
Q

Criticisms of behaviour therapy=?

A

1 Most behavioural therapy Ignore the Internal processes aka cognition and emotion
2 Doesn’t consider interpersonal relationships to the same degrees other Therapies
3 Perhaps to dismissive of past experiences (aka childhood)

330
Q

The mean=?

A

Mathematical average of a set of numbers. (the mean is the average out of a set of numbers)

331
Q

Why do psychologists care about the mean?

A

The mean (Average) is important in understanding data Collected for the use of exams and or better understanding Groups of people

332
Q

The median=?

A

The most occurring number, the number that is seen the most in the number set.

333
Q

Central tendency=?

A

what number is in the middle most

334
Q

when to use the median rather than the mean

A

when the mean could be thrown off by widely varying data points

335
Q

Standard deviation=?

A

the measure of Dispersion, It measures how spread out the data is from the mean.

336
Q

Standard deviation of 0 says that —?

A

that all values in the set of the same

337
Q

Why is standard deviation useful?

A

Even when two scores are the same, they can have different Standard deviations which would suggest different things.

338
Q

What is a normal distribution?

A

A normal distribution Is a distribution that tends to cluster around the centre with few deta points falling on the extreme

339
Q

normal Distribution Is common, true or false

A

false, normal Distribution Is uncommon.

340
Q

Independent variable=?

A

whatever the psychologist changed to creat the The conditions or group ie are women better at maths then men? The Psychologist would change the gender of who took the test, this being the thing he is actively changing.

341
Q

Dependent variable=?

A

the variable that changes as a result of the independent variable

342
Q

Psychotropic medication/Psychopharmacology=?

A

medication impacts the brain in someway (any drug that can cross the blood-brain Barrier)

343
Q

Neurons transmit messages through the release of—?

A

Neurotransmitters

344
Q

What may Too much or too little of a neurotransmitter cause?

A

Psychological (anxity, depression) or physiological dysfunction (tremors)

345
Q

Neurons release Neurotransmitters which pass through synapse before doing what?

A

being Recepted by the receptor site.

346
Q

Neurotransmitters that don’t breach the receptors do one of three things.

A

1: reuptake, the Neurotransmitters are reabsorbed by the neron theat sent them
2: Deactivated/Inactivation: The neurotransmitters deactivate Negating their chemical potency
3: Driftaway: They drift away and eventually are broken down.

347
Q

There are three main things Psychotropic medication can do.

A

1: Decreases neurotransmition by Locking up receptor sites (it oretends to be a Neurotransmitter and locks up the receptor so less Neurotransmitter are passed on)
2: Increases neural transmission By blocking reuptake (by stoping reuptake the Neurotransmitter remain in the Synapeses for longer leaving for of that Neurotransmitter in the brain)
3: Increases neural transmission by stopping breakdown of Neurotransmitters in Synaptic vesicles (alows more Neurotransmitters to be Present in the cell so more can be released)

348
Q

Anxiolytics=?

A

Anti-anxiety medication

349
Q

What is the most common class of Anxiolytics

A

benzodiazepine

350
Q

Examples of Anxiolytics

A

Diazepam (Valium), Alprazolam (Xanax), Clonazepam (Paxam) Lorazepam (Antivan)

351
Q

How do Anxiolytics work?

A

Influences types of neurotransmitters Decreases brains receptiveness to anxiety cuasing triggers

352
Q

side effects of Anxiolytics

A

Drowsiness, Dizziness, low blood pressure, some are addictive.

353
Q

Most common Antidepressant.

A

SSRI’s

354
Q

Most common Antidepressant.

A

SSRI’s

355
Q

examples of SSRIs

A

Fluoxetine (prozac), citalopram (cipramil), Sertraline (Zoloft).

356
Q

How do SSRIs work?

A

it stops Serotonin neurotransmitter from being Reabsorbed (alwoing it to sit in the synaps)

357
Q

What are SNRIs

A

(does the same things SSRIs but focuses on adrenaline rather then Serotonin.

358
Q

side effects SSRIs

A

Nausea, Headaches, Increased appetite, sexual dysfunction, Drowsiness. Side effects are usually experienced at the beginning of taking medication.

359
Q

what are Mood stabilisers used for?

A

Used to treat Bipolar and related disorders, somtimes Schizophrenia due to the mood dysfunction Sometimes experience in schizophrenia.

360
Q

Most commonly used Mood stabilisers?

A

Lithium carbonate (Lithium).

361
Q

what is dangerous about lithium?

A

Lithium is a type of Mineral salt which is toxic Thus, it is crucial to monitor those who are taking lithium for long periods of time in case of high levels of lithium.

362
Q

What other type of medication can be used instead of a mood stabiliser?

A

Some medications for epilepsy (Anticonvulsant medications) are useful as well

363
Q

Side effects of mood stabilisers?

A

Weight gain, Tremors, fatigue, digestive problems.

364
Q

What are Antipsychotic Medications (Neuroleptics) used for?

A

Used to treat disorders that involve psychosis.

365
Q

Side effects of Antipsychotic Medications?

A

Drowsiness, rapid heartbeat, weight gain. Older drugs like Chlorpromazine can cause Tremors, Tardive dyskinesia (Muscle rigidity and problems with movement) Especially when taken for a long period of time.

366
Q

what are Psychostimulants used for?

A

Used to treat disorders that involve a reduced capacity in attention such as ADHD and like narcolepsy.

367
Q

how do Psychostimulants work?

A

Most work by increasing dopamine

368
Q

Psychostimulants examples?

A

Examples: Methylphenidate (Ritalin, Concerta) Amphetamine (Adderall) Dexmethyphenidate (Focalin)

369
Q

Side effects of Psychostimulants

A

Decreased appetite, sleep disturbances, headaches. Some types such as amphetamines have risk of addiction.

370
Q

Pharmacotherapy cautions

A

1: They often have side effects, Thankfully most of the side effects will only be for the first Period of using them and will die down over time, but woth others they can be Permanent or can build up ofer time (Lithium)
2:Individual differences: People vary greatly in response to drugs (Not only in side effects but also tendency towards addiction), Depending on various factors such as weight, age, health ect. (Pharmaceutical companies tend to test on healthy midle aged men)
3: Misconceptions about the need of drugs, Efficacy And appropriateness.
It’s not always necessary to treat disorders drugs, even ones that Have research suggesting they may have biological clauses. Non-pharmacy Therapies Can alter neurobiology (Such as exercise being a great for depression)
They are not cure alls (Some drugs work better in some age groups and not others, And may need an intervention of other means as well as the pharmaceuticals (eg Major depressive disorder using both Medication and CBT or somthing simmler)
4: Overprescription and polytherapy (taking multiple drugs)

371
Q

Psychosurgery =?

A

Any Surgery that removes part of the brain to “cure” mental disorders

372
Q

What was the first type of psychosurgery?

A

Lobotomy

373
Q

Transorbital (ice pick) Lobotomies=?

A

Inserting an ice pick-like tool into the eye socket and into the brain to intentionally damage the frontal lobe.

374
Q

What are Capsulotomies used for?

A

used to treat Severe OCD that Hasn’t responded To treatment or medication

375
Q

How are capsulotomies done?

A

by damaging a very specific Area of the brain to reduce symptoms.

376
Q

the outcome of patients 10 years after the sergory=?

A

50% had a very good recovery

377
Q

side effects (Capsulotomy)

A

Weight gain, Executive dysfunction/Short-term memory Dysfunction (Dysfunction in motivation, planning, Decision-making, Understanding whats Socially acceptable), Severe Disinhibition (the inability to conrtole ones actions and Desires, less common)

378
Q

ECT (Electroconvulsive therapy) Involves what?

A

Involves the application of brief Electric current to the head of the Patient, This causes a seizure in the Individual. (the person is asleep for this)

379
Q

ECT (Electroconvulsive therapy) is used to treat what?

A

used to treat Severe depressive disorders as well Depression with psychotic features.

380
Q

when was ECT misused and how?

A

Was used inappropriately and indiscriminately in the 1920s-1970s

381
Q

how is Repetitive trans-magnetic stimulation (rTMS) Similar to ECT?

A

same process but rather then Electricity, it is a Magnetic pulse

382
Q

What does Repetitive trans-magnetic stimulation (rTMS) intale?

A

A noninvasive magnetic coil is placed on the head and sends pulses to specific regions (Isn’t as painful as ECT The patient can remain conscious the some may need over the counter pain relief medication

383
Q

What is Repetitive trans-magnetic stimulation (rTMS) used for?

A

Has found to be useful in the treatment of drug-resistant major depressive disorder

384
Q

Why are ECT and rTMS effective?

A

Both ECT and rTMS are Effective for unknown reasons

385
Q

Deep brain stimulation (DBS) is an alternative to –?

A

Psychosurgery

386
Q

What is Deep brain stimulation (DBS)?

A

It’s similar to a pacemaker except it’s attached to the head. It delivers Electrical pulses in order to keep the right parts of the brain activated

387
Q

DBS is used for?

A

was Initially used for Parkinson’s Disease but now is also used for OCD and MDD

388
Q

What are the Precautions of Psychosurgery?

A

1: Can have serious side effects of which can be life long
2: Why ECT, DBS, rTMS work is still unknown, something to always be Cast yourself especially Medicine.

389
Q

Efficacy =?

A

Efficacy = is the measurement of how effective a treatment is for a patient.

390
Q

Efficacy relies on four factors which are?

A

1: The type of therapy (some Therapies work bette overall then others)
2: the disorder (some therapies work well for Certain disorders and not others)
3: the Clinician’s Ability and Characteristics (how compatent the Clinician is in the area of Therapy as well as Their personality traits, can they communicate well?)
4: the patient Ability and characteristics (how abel the patient is to complet the therpia as well as there overall temrpament reagrdig it are both important factors)

391
Q

Psychodynamic therapy works bets on —?

A

Works better on people with Anxiety and depression then other disorder like Schizophrenia

392
Q

Psychodynamic therapy is just as effective as CBT, true or false?

A

There is some evidence that suggests that both long and short term Psychodynamic therapy can be just as effective as CBT (there isnt alot of academic literature regarding this)

393
Q

Behaviour therapy techniques are most effective in the treatment of —?

A

Experimental studies have suggested That systematic desensitization Results in behavioural changes, especially in PTSD and anxiety

394
Q

Operant conditioning and Token Economies are not well proven, true or false?

A

false. Operant conditioning and Token Economies have a large amount of proof The recent studies are more varied than their earlier counterpart (1950s-1960s)

395
Q

Cognitive behaviour therapy is best used for—?

A

Highly Effective in Reducing risk of Relapse From anxiety depression Trauma-related disorders and many others

396
Q

Beck’s cognitive therapy is just as useful as medication in the treatment of depression, true or false?

A

Outcome studies into Beck’s cognitive therapy Report that is at least as effective as psychotropic medication in the acute stages if depression.

397
Q

What is an example of a disorder best treated with Psychopharmacotherapy?

A

Thorough, well-documented well-established benefits for certain disorders Such as schizophrenia. Roughly 60% of schizophrenic patients who were treated with medication showed a complete remission or highly decreased symptoms within 6 weeks

398
Q

Antidepressants are useful on there own, true or false?

A

Antidepressants alone are helpful in the relief of acute symptoms of depression but not the long-term ones, stopping the medication will commonly result in a relapse (the same for Anxiety disorders And anxiolytics)

399
Q

CBT and antidepressants are equally as effective true or false?

A

true, CBT and antidepressants, when used alone, are Equally as effective

400
Q

Combining CBT and antidepressants is a good idea?

A

yes, Combining the two reduces the risk of Relapse From depression following The cease of medication

401
Q

CBT And anxiolytics don’t mix, true or false?

A

false, findings exist that therapies for anxiety And anxiolytics work well together.

402
Q

Eclectic psychotherapy=?

A

Involves combining therapeutic techniques to suit the Patient’s needs

403
Q

Caution of efficacy.

A

Many studies fail to consider individual differences (such as age, gender etc)
Often there isn’t much difference in the efficacy of different Therapies
Some people won’t get better (5% of people report negative outcomes)

404
Q

Efficacy depends on—?

A

The appropriateness of the therapy for the Condition in question and the Specific Patient

405
Q

Important abilities for therapists=?

A

. The ability to stay up to date on Techniques and research
. Empathetic and able to establish rapport
Important abilities for patients
. low level of anxiety about issue to motavte change
. self awareness
. Willingness to take responsibility in action

406
Q

Ineffective therapies appear to work for several reasons. Which are?

A

1: Spontaneous remission, sometimes people just feel better without any good reason, sometimes disorders are Cyclical, this can give a false report that the theory is the reason for this Remission.
2: The placebo effect, just talking about problems may sotmes help regardless of therapy
3: Regression to the mean, Extreme behaviours over time will regress back to ‘normal’
4: Self-serving Biases, sometimes Patience will want a therapy to wokr and so will downplay Continuing problems and overplay Improvements, this can also be because they don’t want to affend the Practitioner.
5: Confirmation bias, Conditions may look for evidence that the therapy is working while we can doing anything to counter that point.

407
Q

Clinical ethics=?

A

a set of rules That are set to up hold good moral standing in Organisations.

408
Q

ethics are enforced by=?

A

Professional associations and governmental boards

409
Q

The Professional Association for psychologists in au=?

A

Australian Psychological Society (APS)

410
Q

The regulation board for psychologists in Australia=?

A

Australian Health Practitioner Regulation Agency (AHPRA)

411
Q

AHPRA is responsable for=?

A

all ethics in the medical indistry

412
Q

what is psyBA?

A

the Psychology board of Australia

413
Q

The Psychology Board of Australia is within AHPRA, true or false?

A

true.

414
Q

The APS’s role=?

A

The APS’s role is to Support and protect psychologist as well as Provide resources for it’s members

415
Q

is psyBA optional?

A

You must become a member of psyBA if you are a psychologist.

416
Q

Professional competence=?

A

Keeping up to date with Research/Treatment methods

417
Q

Good and appropriate relationships with Patient’s and colleagues=?

A

Having good supervision and not having duel roles (not Counselling someone you have a relationship with in another setting)

418
Q

Observance of professional ethics=?

A

Adhering to the code of ethics

419
Q

The three General principles=?

A

1: Respect for the rights and dignity of people and peoples, both respecting the rist of the person as well as Cultures and Ethnicities. This encludes: informed consent, Avoiding discrimination, Confidentiality and privacy.
2:Proprietary, This includes the need for conditions to be Competent, Keep good records And provide service in a professional manner.
3: Integrity, The need to act in the best Interests of the client, Engage in Reputable and honest behaviour, Avoid conflicts of interest and Be aware of power imbalances

420
Q

Why is there a need for Strict procedures of ethics?

A

To protect the client: it allows clients to come forward when they believe that they have been mistreated
To protect the Clinician: it allows clinicians to refuse to treat when they believe it is wrong as well as have the wright to refuse to give our there clients information
To protect the profession: it allows for people to believe that Psychologist some morally sound

421
Q

What functions are used to track progress?

A

Mood
Symptoms and symptom severity
Intelligence
Behaviour
Memory and learning

422
Q

Stress=?

A

An internal process that we experience as we adjust too certain events and circumstances

423
Q

Stress is in response to=?

A

Stress is in response to a stressor.

424
Q

Stressors=?

A

The events and circumstances we need to adjust too (can be both positive and negative) any aspect that we feel we might struggle to adept to the change or worry about are ability to cope with the change and or new responsibilities.

425
Q

Stressors intensity levels=?

A

1: Daily hassles (simple daily things, stress level low but can build up over time)
2:Chronic problems (on going issues, ongoing level of stress)
3: Life changes and strains (event in life like a Divorce, things that change life for better or worse)
4: Catastrophic (Traumatic) events (events were Safety is threatened, either The individual’s or The individual’s close Relations. Examples: Car accidents, Assaults. Things that happen suddenly, unpradicplby and cause substantial change, Either in moment or after)

426
Q

Stress reactions=?

A

Emotional: Initially, low mood, crying, irritability, Negative emotions. Prolonged: low Affect, sadness, lake of enjoyment, blunted mood.
Cognitive: disruptions of Concentration, inability to make decisions, Rumination (the tendacy to overthink things, dwelling on past events) Inhibits competency and other areas
Behavioural:avoidance (can be both maladaptive and adaptive) Maladaptive Coping mechanism: Drinking, Substance misuse, Decreased physical activity leading to many Health consequences, Overeating or loss of appetite, Sleep disturbances.
Physical: heart rate increase, clammy hands, breathing rate increase, tunnel vision, pins and needles.

427
Q

General adaptation syndrome=?

A

Alarm: when we first Interpret the stressful event, onset of Physical stress response. Adrenaline, Cortisol.
Resistance: We begin to adapt to the stressor, we Physiologically overcome the response. We use cognitive and behavural to cope with the stressor (breathing techniques, avoidance techniques, moving away).
Exhaustion: when we can no longer cope with the stressor (are Resources to manager have been depleted) Past stressors If severe enough Can damage ability to cope with similar stresses in the future. (can be Initiated easier if Proper coping mechanisms are not inplace)

428
Q

The exhaustion phase when experienced for a prolonged time can lead to=?

A

a Vulnerablty to illness (Diseases of adaptation)

429
Q

The ongoing excess release of certain chemicals such as cortisol is damaging to what parts of the body?

A

Heart, kidneys, liver.

430
Q

HPA Access=?

A

Hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and adrenal Cortex. The reason the body releases Adrenaline

431
Q

Adrenaline Activates=?

A

at the beginning of the stress response (the Accelerator)

432
Q

Cortisol Activates=?

A

at the end of the stress responses, average 15 Minutes in (shuts down the stress response, The brakes)

433
Q

Side effects of an overactive stress response: Adrenaline=?

A

can cause harmful effects when Over released due to a Certain part of the body becoming damaged when Introduce to prolonged Exposure.

434
Q

Side effects of an overactive stress response: Cortisol.

A

when over released can cause a depleted release and thus will be unable to stop stress response.

435
Q

an overactive stress response Effects what parts for the body?

A

heart, lungs, brain, Certain glands even all the way down to the bone marrow.