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Pediatrics > Mega Review > Flashcards

Mega Review Flashcards

1
Q

Apgar scores- classify scores 0-9

A

0-4: poor
5-7: fair
8-10: good

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2
Q

What is a +2 rating for pulse? grimace?

A

pulse: 100+
grimace: cough +2; grimace +1

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3
Q

Hemangioma in baby is what type?

A

strawberry, capillary

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4
Q

What hemangioma type causes stridor?

A

supraglottic

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5
Q

Buzzword for mongolian spot

A

“sharply demarcated”

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6
Q

Oval bald spot on infant is called?

A

nevus sebaceous

remove in adolescence, risk malignancy

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7
Q

“Milk bumps” on nose are termed?

A

milia

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8
Q

Nerve roots effected by Erbs? Klumpkes?

A

Erbs: C5-6
Klumpkes: C8, T1

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9
Q

Which brachial plexus injury is assc with phrenic palsy?

A

Erbs (C4)

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10
Q

Which brachial plexus injury is assc with Horners?

A

Klumpkes

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11
Q

First test in respiratory distress

A

CXR

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12
Q

“Big three” conditions screened for in newborns

A

CHT, PKU, galactosemia

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13
Q

Galactosemia + PKU inheritance patterns

A

AR

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14
Q

Cutaneous findings assc with PKU

A

fair hair and skin + blue eyes

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15
Q

Galactosemia findings

A
  • jaundice
  • hypoglycemia
  • cataracts
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16
Q

Two physical exam findings assc with CHT

A

umbilical hernia

large fontanel

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17
Q

Preterm baby with resp difficulty=

Term=

A

Preterm- RDS

Term- TTN

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18
Q

Meconium aspiration causes _____

A

chemical pneumonitis

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19
Q

In addition to lung related causes of RD, what other systems may be involved?

A

intracranial process
metabolic disease
cardiac disease

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20
Q

In addition to C/S, what puts baby at risk of TTN?

A

rapid descent

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21
Q

Cephalohematoma= blood in what area?

A

subperiosteal, doesnt cross sutures

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22
Q

When should fontanels close?

A

anterior: 9-18 months
posterior: 4-5 months

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23
Q

Lens opacity on PE=

A

cataracts

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24
Q

What is the CHARGE assc?

A 
Coloboma 
Heart Defects 
Atresia, choanal
Renal Defect 
GU
Ear Deformity
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25
Q

Gastroschisis vs Omphalocele:

which is midline?

A 
omhalocele= midline 
gastro= lateral
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26
Q

First two tests in case of ambiguous genitalia

A

17 OH prog

Karyotype

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27
Q

When does umbilical hernia spontaneously close?

A

5 years

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28
Q

When does physiologic jaundice peak and resolve?

A

peak-3 days

resolve- 1 week

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29
Q

Values assc with physiologic jaundice

A

less than 13/2

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30
Q

Differential diagnosis of direct hyperbili

A

TORCH
biliary atresia
hepatitis

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31
Q

Rate of bili rise assc with kernicterus?

Total bili assc with kernicterus?

A

rate greater than 0.5/hr

total greater than 25

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32
Q

When should iron supplementation start in breast fed babies?

A

6 months, can be with cereal

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33
Q

Calories in formula

A

20 cal/oz

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34
Q

Describe bone age in constitutional vs familial short stature

A

constitutional-bone age = height age, room left

familial- bone age = chrono age

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35
Q

Which patients have short parents:

constitutional or familial short stature

A

familial

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36
Q

Normal growth velocity

A

4 cm/ year

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37
Q

Common cause of abrupt falling of growth curve

A

hypothyroid

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38
Q

Most newborn reflexes disappear by when?

A

4-6 months, except babinski= 18

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39
Q

Which way does baby roll first?

A

back 4 months –> stomach 5 months

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40
Q

When is social smile seen?

A

4-8 weeks

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41
Q

How many cubes should be stacked at 15,18,24 months?

A

15-3
18-4
24-7

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42
Q

When should all potty training be complete?

A

5 years

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43
Q

Renal threshold for gluc spilling

A

180-200

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44
Q

Diabetes insipidus urine finding

A

low specific gravity, less than or equal to 1

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45
Q

Diurnal enuresis may be caused by?

A

anatomic lesion

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46
Q

Most effecient test to order in case of enuresis

A

U/A

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47
Q

DOC in noctural enuresis

A

DDAVP

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48
Q

When are MMR effects seen?

A

1-2 weeks later

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49
Q

Treatment of neonatal sepsis? meningitis?

A

sepsis- amp & gent

meningitis- amp & cefotaxime

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50
Q

Most common cause sepsis older than 2 months?

A

strep pneumo

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51
Q

Cephalosporin contraindicated before 2 months?

A

ceftriaxone

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52
Q

When to use steroids in meningitis?

A

prevents deafness in H flu meningitis

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53
Q

Prophylaxis for nmen/hflu?

A

rifampin for close contacts

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54
Q

Seasonal encephalitis causes

A

arbo,entero viruses

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55
Q

MC sporadic cause of encephalitis

A

HSV

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56
Q

Osteomyelitis testing:

A

xray –> MRI –> culture

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57
Q

1 cause osteo in all patients

A

staph aureus

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58
Q

When is patient at risk of pseudomonas osteomyelitis

A

after sneaker puncture

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59
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis in joint disease

A

arthrocentesis

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60
Q

Duration of pertussis

A

8 or more weeks

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61
Q

All pregnant moms get what vaccine?

A

Tdap

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62
Q

What abx decreases duration of illness in pertussis

A

erythromycin

63
Q

Measles: aka

A

rubeola

64
Q

Roseola distinguishing factors

A

rash AFTER fever

65
Q

Rubella distinguishing factors

A

low grade fever
3 day duration
posterior lymphadenopathy

66
Q

Lacy reticular rash=
evanescent rash=
bullet rah=

A

lacy reticular= fifths disease
evanescent= RF
Bullet= erythma chronicum migrans (lyme)

67
Q

Lyme vs RMSF- who gets doxy

A

lyme; all over 8 doxy, rest amoxicillin

RMSF: all get doxy

68
Q

CSD treatment

A

azithromycin

69
Q

Antibiotic classically assc with rash in mono

A

ampicillin

70
Q

Antidote for acetaminophen tox

A

nacetylcysteine (mucomist)

71
Q

Aspirin findings

A

metabolic acidosis

72
Q

Treatment for CO poisoning

A

hyperbaric O2

73
Q

Toxicity assc with hemorrhagic GE + antidote

A

iron, deferoxime

74
Q

Lead antidotes

A

EDTA, succimer at 45 or higher

75
Q

Organophosphate antidote

A

atropine +/- 2PAM

76
Q

Leading cause of death assc with ingestions

A

TCAs- seizures, arrythmia

77
Q

Most common cause of conjunctivits at 24 hours or less

A

chemical

78
Q

When is strabismus normal?

A

up to 4 months

79
Q

How is amblyopia treated? What is it called?

A

lazy eye, patch

80
Q

Screening test for lead, confirmatory?

A 
screening= capillary 
confirmatory = venous
81
Q

MC complication of AOM

A

meningitis

82
Q

Most common “resistant” bug

A

m cat

83
Q

Gold standard for strep dx

A

throat culture

84
Q

FBA finding on CXR

A

hyperinflation

85
Q

Treatment never to be used alone in asthma

A

LABA

86
Q

Define intermittent asthma

A

less than 2 days per week, 2 nights per month

87
Q

Treatment of intermittent asthma

A

albuterol PRN

88
Q

Chromosome assc with CF

A

chromosome 7

89
Q

Most common cause of death in infants + most common time of year

A

SIDS, most common in winter, common at 2-3 months

90
Q

Grade murmur that may be innocent

A

I-II

91
Q

Cyanotic heart lesions

A

5 T’s + Pulm stenosis

92
Q

TOF murmur

A

loud single S2

93
Q

When does VSD usually close?

A

by one year esp if muscular

94
Q

Tricuspid atresia murmur

A

single S2, pansystolic murmur

95
Q

Egg on a string=

A

TGA

96
Q

Snowman=

A

TAPVR

97
Q

Five major criteria assc with RF

A 
JONES 
-joints 
-carditis 
-nodules 
-erythema marginatum (evanescent)
s-sydenhams
98
Q

Requirements for RF dx

A

2 major
1 major + 2 minor
or just sydenhams

99
Q

Common cause iatrogenic HTN in newborns

A

umbilical catheter

100
Q

MCC diarrheal illness

A

norovirus

101
Q

In which two diarrheal illnesses are abx CI?

A

E coli- increased risk HUS

salmonella- increased length carrier state

102
Q

Treatment for shigella

A

TMPSMX

103
Q

Treatment for campylobacter

A

e-mycin

104
Q

Treatment for Giardia

A

metronidazole

105
Q

Microcolon v megacolon, which= hirschsprungs?

A 
micro= meconium ileus 
mega= hirschsprungs
106
Q

Population with highest rate of pyloric stenosis

A

first born males

107
Q

Lab findings assc with pyloric stenosis

A

hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis

**correct this before surgery, surgery is nonemergent

108
Q

Test of choice for pyloric stenosis

A

U/S

109
Q

CXR finding assc with NEC

A

pneumatosis intestinalis

110
Q

Apt test looks for?

A

swallowed maternal blood in neonate

111
Q

MCC hematochezia in baby?

A

anal fissure

112
Q

UC vs chrons: which= fistula

A

Chrons

113
Q

Alports inheritance pattern

A

XD

114
Q

C3 or C4 which is decreased in PSGN

A

C3

115
Q

Nephrotic syndrome places patients at risk of what secondary condition?

A

peritonitis

116
Q

When do males more commonly than females have UTI ?

A

before one year

117
Q

Who is worked up for UTI cause?

A

females under 3
males
first febrile under 2

118
Q

Workup for UTI cause?

A

renal US

119
Q

Gold standard for UTI diagnosis

A

urine culture

120
Q

In-toeing + neutral heel=

A

metatarsus adductus

121
Q

In-toeing + inward heel=

A 
talipes equinovarus 
(club foot)
122
Q

Knee position in tibial torsion vs femoral anteversion

A

normal knee- tibial torsion

inward knee- femoral anteversion

123
Q

SCFE should prompt what testing?

A

TSH, FSH, LH

124
Q

Population most commonly seen with developmental hip dysplasia

A

breech girls

125
Q

Swelling at tibial tubercle

A

osgood schlatter

126
Q

Most common bone tumor

A

osteosarcoma

127
Q

Osteosarcoma is increased in frequency with

A

blateral Rb

128
Q

Sunburst appearance = ______, onion skin= _____

A

suburst= osteo

onion skin= ewings

129
Q

Allergic rhinitis is _____ mediated

A

IgE

130
Q

When do symptoms begin in Brutons

A

6-12 months, Recurrent sinopulmonary infection

131
Q

Type one pauciarticular JIA:

marker + sex

A

female

ANA

132
Q

Type two pauciarticular JIA

marker + sex

A

male

HLA B27

133
Q

Assc with Type II pauciarticular JIA

A

HLAB27= ankylosing spondylitis

134
Q

Systemic JIA=

A

fever, rash, joints

135
Q

Neonatal lupus causes

A

heart block

136
Q

CRASH + burn, how many are required?

A

fever +4/5

137
Q

Complications of HSP

A
  • intussusception
  • arthritis
  • encephalopathy
138
Q

All HSP patients need

A

hospital admission

139
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis

  • test
  • inhertiance pattern
  • assc
A

osmotic fragility
AD
gallstones

140
Q

MC enzyme assc anemia + inheritance pattern

A

G6PD, XR

141
Q

When does treatment occur in ITP?

A

when symptomatic—> give IVG, steroids

142
Q

Inheritance pattern VWD

A

AD

143
Q

VWD lab

A

prolonged PTT

144
Q

Where does ALL relapse? (2)

A

CNS + testis

145
Q

EEG pattern + tx assc with Infantile Spasms

A

hypsarrythmia, ACTH

146
Q

EEG pattern + tx assc with absence seizures?

aka?

A

3 Hx spike and wave
ethosuximide
petit mal

147
Q

Mucopolysaccharidoses inheritance

A

All AR except Hunter= XR

148
Q

Werdnig Hoffman
inheritance pattern
gene

A

SMN

AR

149
Q

Symptoms SMA

A

pediatric ALS sx

150
Q

Two types SMA

A

I-infantile
III-adolescent

worse with younger onset

151
Q

Treatment of GBS

A

supportive
plasmapheresis
IVIG

152
Q

First sign of puberty in males?

females?

A

males- testicular enlargement

females- breast buds

153
Q

Normal weirdness during puberty

A

assymetry
gynecomastia
irregular menses

Pediatrics (12 decks)

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