Medicine stuff Flashcards

1
Q

Fever, leukocytosis, LUQ pain - think?

Associated condition?

A

splenic abscess

Infective endocarditis

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2
Q

Drug Rx for Primary Biliary Cholangitis?
When to start?
Tx if advanced dz?
Assoc lab findings?

A

UDCA (ursodeoxycholic)
As soon as dz identified
Liver transplant
Positive AMA, elev Alk Phos

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3
Q

Positive GGT with elevated alk phos?

A

Biliary etiology rather than bone (if neg)

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4
Q

Diclofenac is what sort of drug?

A

NSAID

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5
Q

Pneumaturia or fecaluria with UTI like findings - think?

Confirm with what etst?

A

Colovesical fistula

CT with oral or rectal contrast (not IV contrast)

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6
Q

Best measure to reduce risk of CAUTI?

A

clean, intermittent catheterizationa

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7
Q

Minimal BRBPR - next best test and age cutoffs?

A

> 50 or suggesting malignancy - colonoscopy

<40 and no other risk factors anoscopy

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8
Q

Most common inherited hyercoagulable disorder for whites?

Pts unable to respond to what?

A

Factor V leiden

Activated protein C

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9
Q

Firm, freely moveable dome shaped nodule with small central punctum, can grow or produce cheesy white d/c - think?
Treat?

A

Epidermal (inclusion) cyst

Spontaneous resolution usually

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10
Q

Fibromylagia tx? 1st and 2nd and 3rd lines?

A

1st Sleep hygiene and aerobic exercise
2nd Amitriptyline (TCAs)
3rd Pregabalin, duloxetien, milnacipran if not responding to TCAs

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11
Q

Back pain with gradual onset, age <40, does not improve with rest but improves with activity - etiology think?

A

Inflammatory

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12
Q

wedge shaped lesion in lung on CT - think?

A

PE

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13
Q

Sudden or subacute painless monocular vision loss with “blood and thunder” on funduscopic exam - retinal hemmorhages, dilated veins, cotton wool spots, optic disk swelling - think?

A

central retinal vein occlusion

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14
Q

OD on TCAs - give what?

A

sodium bicarb

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15
Q

electrical alterans and sinus tach on ECG - think?

Treat?

A

pericardial effusion - poss tampenade

If tamponade and hemodynamic compromise - emergency pericardiocentesis

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16
Q

What do you need for solid testicular mass diagnosis?

Then do what?

A
painless hard testicular mass and suggestive ultrasound
radical orchiectomy (testic and assoc cord)
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17
Q

Aminoglycosides are used to treat what bugs?

Potentially toxic to what organs?

A

Serious GN infections

Kidneys

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18
Q

Hydatid liver cysts come from what organism?

Transferred by?

A

Echinococcus granulosus, a dog tapeworm

Dog feces

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19
Q

pH and glucose cutoffs for pleural effusion that suggest bacteria in there?

A

pH 7.2 and glucose <60

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20
Q

Most common liver cancer?

A

Mets from somehwere else!

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21
Q

Epigastric pain, often worse on empty stomach, with intermittent melena - think?
Treat?

A
duodenal ulcer (gastric ulcer worse after eating)
Triple tx: amoxi, clarithromycin and PPI
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22
Q

Prolactin level diagnostic of proloactinoma?

Effect on TSH level?

A

> 200

Normal or low depending on compression of thryrotophs

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23
Q

Virus common to kids that can cause an acute symmetric arthritis in adults?

A

Parvovirus B19

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24
Q

Multiple stomach ulcers and thickened gastric folds on endoscopy - suspect?
Confirm diagnosis with?

A

Gastrinoma (Zollinger-Ellision syndrome)

fasting serum gastrin of >1000

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25
Q

Right heart failure sx with a pericardial knock (mid-diastolic), pericardial calcifications on CXR - think?

A

Constrictive pericarditis

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26
Q

How to confirm tinea coporis (ringworm - ring-shaped scaly patches with central clearing and sitnic borders)?

A

potassium hydroxide prep of skin scrapings

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27
Q

Concurrent use of NSAIDs and aspirin can cuase what anemia?

A

Iron defic from occult bleedings

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28
Q

Glucocorticoid defic with hypogonadism and hypothyroidism - think?

A

Hypopoituitarism (so normal aldosterone)

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29
Q

Isolated septic arthritis (or with tenosynovitis and rash) in young sexually active patient, often migrating polyarthralgias leading to purulent monoarthritis - think?

A

Gonococcal infection

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30
Q

What does rheumatoid arthritis do to risk of osteopenia, osteoporosis and bone fracture?

A

risk goes up

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31
Q

Resp alkalosis in a patient on a vent - make what vent adjustment?

A

Decrease resp rate

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32
Q

When to begin colonoscopies with IBD?

Then how often?

A

8 years after diagnosis

Every 1-2 years

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33
Q

How long after injury do you see fat embolism?

A

12-24 hours (at LEAST)

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34
Q

What lipid levels indicate statin therapy in diabetics aged 40-75?

A

Any. They should all be on statins.

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35
Q

Infective endocarditis - what step first, blood cultures or start ABX?

A

culture before starting ABX (serial cultures, at least 3)

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36
Q

C diff risk factors (4)?

A

Hospitalization
Recent ABX
PPI (gastric acid suppression)
Age >65

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37
Q

Notching of the ribs seen in what cardiovascular condition?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

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38
Q

Gram positive rod (beaded or branching), partially acid-fast, aerobic, immunocompromised pt - bug?
Treatment?

A

Nocardia

Bactrim

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39
Q

What happens to TBG levels after starting estrogen?
So effect on free T4?
And if on levothyroxine, requirement goes up or down?

A

They go up
FREE T4 goes down but total stays the same
Up

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40
Q

Side effect of hydroxychloroquine for lupus?

A

retinal toxicity

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41
Q

White paque on oral mucosa in smoker/drinker - think?

A

Leukoplakia

42
Q

3 causes of hyperventilation –> resp alkalosis?

A

PNA, high altitude, salicylate intox

43
Q

When is acalculous cholecystitis most commonly seen?

A

hospitalzied, criticalluy ill patients, post-surgery

44
Q

Excessive IgM but also end-organ damage and >10% clonal lymphocytes on bone marrow biopsy- think?
Presenting with?
Neoplasm of which cell?
Differs form MGUS how?

A

Waldenstrom macroglobinemia
hyperviscosity, neruopathy, cryoglobulinemia
Plasma cell neoplasm
MGUS would have <10% clonal lymphocytes on biopsy

45
Q

Indications for carotid endartectomy?

A

men and women if symptomatic 70-99%

also men if symptomatic 60-99%

46
Q

Hemolytic anemia with thrombocytopenia, renal inuff, neuro sx and fever - think?
Due to?
Treat?

A

TTP (thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura)
Auto-Ab to plasma protease
Emergent PLASMA EXCHANGE

47
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis labs?

A

Anemia, high retics, low MCV, increased MCHgb concentration, high RDW

48
Q

Varices - drugs for prophylactic vs active treatment?

A

Propanolol (or nadolol - non selective B-blockers) for prophylaxis, octreotide for active bleeding

49
Q

2 meds that can trigger bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma?

A

B-lockers and aspirin

50
Q

Frequent complication of IBD?

Effect of NSAIDs?

A

Spondylarthritis

Help joint pain but makes IBD worse

51
Q

Unilateral varicoceles that fail to empty when recumbent - think?
Best diagnostic test?

A

Underlying pathology eg RCC

CT abd

52
Q

Pain at tendon and ligament insertion sites (enthesitis), onset <40, for >30 months, better with use, worse with rest - think?
What HLA assoc?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis and other spondyloartropathies

HLA-B27

53
Q

Anticardiolipin Ab assoc with?

Lupus anticoagulant is a pro-thrombotic that does what to partial thromboplastin time?

A
antiphospholipid syndrome
prolongs it (PTT)
54
Q

ABX class with photosesnitivity?

A

tetracyclines

55
Q

What defines resistant HTN?

Most common cause (with a systolic-diastolic abd bruit)?

A

persists with 3 or more anti-hypertensives

renovascular HTN

56
Q

Appearnce of nasal mucosa in allergic vs non-allergic rhinitis?
Tx for each?

A

pale/bluish in allergic, erythematous in non-allergic
Intranasal antihistamines glucocorticoids or both in non-allgx
Allgx: intrasnasal steroids, PO antihistamines

57
Q

Loss to follow up means what kind of bias?

A

Selection (specifically attrition)

58
Q

Chronic abd pain, weight loss, food aversion - think?

Mostly due to?

A

chronic mesenteric ischemia

atherosclerosis of celiac artery or SMA

59
Q

First branch point in evaluation of hypercalcemia?

A

PTH level (low PTH likely malignancy, and elevated or inappropriately normal PTH likley primary hyperparathyroidism)

60
Q

Imaging in back pain:
MRI (3)?
Xray (3)?

A

MRI: sensory deficits, cauda equina sx, suspected epidural abscess/infection
Xray: compression fracture/osteoporosis, malignancy, ank spondy

61
Q

Infective endocarditis - most common valvular abnomralitty?
2nd most commoan valve?
Most common valve in IE with IVDU?

A

mitral prolapse with coexisting mitral REGURGITATION
aortic stenosis
tricupsid regurg

62
Q

Common bugs for opportunistic infx post-transplant?

Systemic illness with multiple organ systems and without prophylaxis - suspect?

A

pneumocystis and CMV

CMV

63
Q

Positive Prussin blue means presence of what? Which means what process?

A

Hemosiderin so hemolysis

64
Q
Acute MI mech and artrery involved:
RV failure?
Papillary muscle rupture?
Septal rupture?
Free wall rupture?
A

RCA
RCA
LAD if apical, RCA if basal
LAD

65
Q

HIV eye problems - most common serious prob but painless?

Painful with keratitis?

A

CMV

HSV or VZV

66
Q

RUQ pain, mild elevation in liver enzymes, firm hepatomegaly - think?
Confirm with?

A

Liver mets!

Abd CT

67
Q

4 point differential for hypokalemia, alkalosis and normotension?

A

Surreptitious vomiting
Diuretic abuse
Bartter syndrome
Gitelman’s syndrome

68
Q

3 hemolytic anemia labs?

A

low haptoglobin, high LDH and bilirubin

69
Q

Acute or subacute renal failure, skin probelms (eg mottling/livedo reticularis) AFTER RECENT CATH - suspect?

A

Cholesterol emboli

70
Q

Medication to help passage of ureteral stones?

A

Tamsulosin and other alpha agonists that let the ureter smooth muscle relax

71
Q

Temporal headaches, jaw claudication and vision loss - think?
Treat?

A

Giant cell artertitis

High does systemic glucocorticoids

72
Q

Bug responsible for tinea versicolor?
Appearance?
Diagnosis and tx?

A

Malassezia
Hypo- hyper- or salmon colored lesions
KOH prep and tx with topical antifungals

73
Q

Pulsus paradoxus is a drop in BP during inspiration associated with (the big one?) but also?

A

tamponade/pericardial effusion

but also severe asthma and COPD

74
Q

Rash, joint pains, kidney problems, low complement AND PATIENTS USUALLY HAVE Hep C?

A

cryoglobulinemia

75
Q

ARDS results in these 3 big things?

A

Impaired gas exchange, decreased lung compliance, pHTN

76
Q

Common cause of esphagitis in HIV (CD4 <100)?

A

candida

77
Q

Fluids to give in HypOvolemic HYPERnatremia (if mild? or severe?)

A

Mild: D5 in 0.45 NS
Severe: NS (0.9)

78
Q

Why does niacin for lipid abnormalities cause itching and flushing?
And to reduce it?

A

PG induced peripheral vasodilation

Low dose aspirin

79
Q

How to diagnose PCP (pneumocystis PNA)?

A

NO CULTURE! so sputum stain, and if cannto get sputum, bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage

80
Q

Breath sounds in lung consolidation - increased or decreased?

A

Increased

81
Q

3rd heart sounds associated with what?

A

LV failure

82
Q

2 nasty Cyclophosphamide side effects?

A

acute hemorrhagic cystitis, bladder carcinoma

83
Q

Hx of gastrectomy and glossitis with anemia think??

A

b12 defic

84
Q

Blisters and skin fragility assoc with Hep C?

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda

85
Q

Heart finding in Lyme?

Bacterial morphology of borellia (eg. cocci, bacilli, spirochete?)

A

AV block

Spirochete

86
Q

Spondylitis increases risk for …?

A

Vertebral fractures

87
Q

Marfans: complication of aortic dissection that present with early diastolic murmur?

A

aortic regurg

88
Q

Cushings workup (two steps)?

A

1) cortisol test (late night saliva, 24 hr urine free cortisol or low-dose DEXAmethasone suppression test
2) If high cortisol then check ACTH levels

89
Q

Dry cough, fever, high LDH, even in a non-HIV patient (but immunosuppressed eg steroids)?

A

PCPna

90
Q

HFpEF is aka …

A

Diastolic dysfunction

91
Q

Vasospastic angina shows ST elevations during chest pain episodes AT REST OR DURING SLEEP, smoking risk factor - same pathopshysiology as what?

A

Raynaud’s (hyperactvie smooth muscle)

92
Q

Case control vs Retrospective cohort?

A

Case control knows outcome then looks at risk factors, retrospective knows risk factors then looks at outcome

93
Q

Steroid therapy in SLE increases risk of what (presenting eg. as hip pain)?
Best test?

A

ostenecrosis

MRI

94
Q

Infective endocarditis - ABX?

A

Start with vanc then narrow - if PCN sesntive then use IV pen G or ceftriaxone (4 weeks)

95
Q

Another name for the heterophile antibody test?

A

monospot

96
Q

Microcytic anemia with hemolysis in patients with artificial heart valves think?

A

Macrovascular hemolysis

97
Q

Both have red cell casts m but IgA nephropahty arises when compared to post-infectious glomerulonephritis?
Complement levels differentiation?

A

Within 5 days compared to 10-21 days

Normal complement levels in IgA neph (Low C3 in postinfectious)

98
Q

Fungal meningoencephalitis in HIV bug?
CD4 count?
Start antiviral tx?

A

Cryptococcus
<100
2 weeks after antifungal and possible serial LP to reduce pressure

99
Q

Fungal CAP, Arizona, with erythema nodosum/erythema multiform, arthralgias - bug?
Tx?

A

Coccidioides

Healthy don’t need rx, but immunocomp get ketoconazole or fluconazole

100
Q

Spike in WBC to >50K with severe infx, high alk phos, high bands, no basophilia - think?

A

Leukemoid rxn, not leukemia