Medicine Miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

A person has begun taking amlodipine as part of their management of HTN. What type of drug is it and what side effect should the patient look out for that will be present on exam?

A

It is a calcium channel blocker (dihydropyridine => not cardioselective => can be given with beta blockers). The main side effect to note is ankle oedema

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2
Q

A person has begun taking amiodarone as part of their management of Atrial Fibrillation.
What type of drug is it?
What should you advise the patient when taking amiodarone (4)?

A

Amiodarone is a Class III anti-arrhythmic drug => works by blocking K+ channels
Patient must be advised of 4 things:
Thyroid function (can cause both hypo and hyperthyroidism)
Pulmonary fibrosis of the lower bases (drugs typically affect lower bases)
!! Grey Man syndrome: Advise patient to use sunscreen or protective clothing when in sunlight due to irreversible skin changes when sunlight interacts with its metabolites in the skin. (bluish-gray discolouration)
Eye sight due to optic neuropathy

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3
Q

The angle of louis is an anatomical landmark that indicates the X rib. What is X?

A

2nd

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4
Q

A 76-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department by ambulance after collapsing suddenly at home. Initial assessment revealed a heart rate of 42 beats per minute and she is treated according to bradycardia resuscitation guidelines whereupon she stabilises.

Her past medical history includes stable angina for which she is prescribed verapamil, however, she has recently been suffering from bouts of anxiety following a car accident, leading her sister to lend her some of the tablets she takes to ‘calm her nerves’.

What is the most likely medication this patient has taken thus leading to her presentation?

A

Beta blocker e.g. propanolol

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5
Q

When a patient says chest tightness, what can they mean?

A

Chest pain
SOB

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6
Q

You have a routine telephone consultation booked with Mrs McGoldrick, a 53-year-old lady who has been seeing the health-care assistant for blood pressure (BP monitoring). The health care assistant booked the appointment as readings have been consistently around 150/90mmHg. You look at the records and see she was commenced on amlodipine as she is of Caribbean origin, and she is taking 10mg once a day. Her only other medication is atorvastatin 20mg. The health care assistant has commented in the record that the patient confirms she does take her medications as prescribed. What is the next step up in management?

A

Afro-carribean origin => ARBs over ACE inhibitors
Afro-carribean people have less renin and ACE inhibitors block Ang1 -> Ang 2 which involves renin. If it already low, blocking it further would have less of an effect than if there was raised Renin levels
ARBs target Ang II directly => blocking what is already made

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7
Q

What are the investigations for any arrhythmia?

A

As for any arrhythmia: except ECG
Bedside:
ECG/!Holter monitor: looking for patterns consistent with NSVT, VT, or VF (specific questions will come) + screen for previous MI, BBB, or LV hypertrophy
Urine dipstick (sepsis)
Urinalysis (evidence of CKD to guide management between DOAC and Warfarin) + Toxicology (sympathetomimetics)

Bloods:
FBC - Anaemia, infection, low platelets if DIC, infection, sepsis)
CRP - raised in infl. + inf.
U&E - Hypomagnesia + hyper/hypokalaemia + medications
TFTs - hyperthyroidism
Troponin + CKMB (ischaemia as a cause or result of arrhythmia)
BNP - HF in severe arrhythmia
HbA1c and Lipid profile (RFs)

Imaging:
CXR - sx of HF (ABCDE)
ECHO - TTE - atrial/ventricular size (LA enlargement/LV hypertrophy), RV systolic pressure, valvular involvement, pericardial disease - TOE - LA (appendage) thrombus, Rule out vegetations in IE

Procedure: Exercise stress test - helps identify ischaemia (not rly done so not required for 5/5)

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8
Q

We know that to restore K+, you need to restore Mg levels first. What is the hierarchy of these electrolytes?

A

Phosphate (PO4 2-) - Recall PTH
Mg 2+
K+ and Ca2+
Na+

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9
Q

You are about to administer prophylactic clexane as DVT prophylaxis.

How is it administered?

You come back the next day and on inspection of the site, you note 3 findings. Assuming no infection, what are they?

A

Small, subcutaneous Hematoma (may mimic rash/telangiectasia)
Lipodystrophy from repeat injections (also insulin)

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10
Q

Quick bacteria vs viral infection on CSF findings?

A

Bacterial: Low glucose, high protein, raised PMN
Viral: High glucose, Low protein, raised lymphocytes

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11
Q

Patient with meningitis suspected. What antibiotics/antivirals will you give?

A

Ceftriaxone to cover meningococcal and pneumococcl
Vancomycin to cover penumococcus
Amoxicillin to cover listeria
Aciclovir to cover viral (given anyways just incase)

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12
Q

What 2 signs is indicative of meningococcal meningitis compared to other types?

What are these signs also used for?

A

Kernig’s and Brudzinski’s sign also used for SAH

Kernig
Patient lying supine, flex patients hip and knees to 90 degrees. then extend knee fully. Positive if patient experiences pain or resistance in the hamstrings or lower back

Brudzinski’s sign
Patient also lying supine, examiner gently flexes the patient’s neck, bringing the chin down toward the chest. If the patient’s knees/hips flex involuntarily, then it is positive.

Why? These basically irritate the meninges => the flexion relieves tension to ease the pain

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13
Q

What antibiotics are you going to use for an ENT infection?

A

G+ve
Amoxicillin/Co-amoxiclav
if penicillin allergy, Clarithromycin or azithromycin

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14
Q

A nursing home patient on their first day after moving gets sick. is this CAP or HAP?

What organisms are you looking for in each case anyways?

A

CAP. although a nursing home is consideref HAP, it still has not been 48 hours

CAP: Staph/strep
HAP: Klebiella, pseudomonas, MRSA

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15
Q

A patient with a chest infection, night sweats and weight loss. What is the most likely organism?

A

Tb

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16
Q

Give 3 medications that may cause C.Diff

A

Co-amoxiclav (beta lactam ab)
Clarithromycin (Macrolides)
Ciprofloxacin (fluoroquinolones)

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17
Q

What empiric antibiotics will you give for a GI infection (if you had to)

A

G-ve => Tazocin, Flagyl (Metronidazole)

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18
Q

Empiric antibiotic for skin infections

If this was complicated with Nec Fasciitis, what is the ideal antibiotic to start with?

A

Flucloxacillin (might also be able to say benzylpenicillin) -> Vancomycin for MRSA later

Nec Fasciitis -> Clindamicin

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19
Q

UTI top 3 antibiotics
Which one for pregnancy?

A

Nitrofurantoin
Trimethoprim
Cephalexin (pregnancy)

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20
Q

When someone says CPE, what bacteria are they referring to?
Also what does CPE stand for?

A

Carbapenemase-producing Enterobacterales

E.coli
Klebsiella
Enterobacter

NOT Enterococci (faecalis, faecium)

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21
Q

Enterobacterales (E.coli, klebsiella, enterobacter) may be carbapenemase-producing (CPE). What about for Enterococci (faecalis, faecium)?

A

VRE - Vancomycin-resistant Enterococci

22
Q

What medications would you use for
CPE:
VRE:

A

CPE: Colistin (polymyxin) or Meropenem
VRE: Linezolid

23
Q

when taking a history, a patient tells you they have an allergy to penicillin. You ask them to tell you what happens when they take penicillin. For the following, state if it is an allergy or sensitivity
Diarrhoea:
Stomach pain:
Rash:
Angioedema:
Hives:
Trouble breathing

A

You already know the answers to all
The point is that a rash is a sensitivity not an allergy

24
Q

Youre in the ED someone comes in with sepsis. You have no clue whats going on and no one likes you. What empiric antibiotics is the best to prescribe in this scenario?

A

Piptaz + STAT gentamicin (not just prescribed because of nephrotoxicity)

25
Q

Is orthostatic hypotension a type of vasovagal syncope?

A

Yes

26
Q

I need all your differentials for Syncope
15 for 5/5

A

Cardiovascular:
Vasovagal Syncope incl. Orthostatic hypotension
Acute Coronary syndrome (STEMI, NSTEMI, Unstable angina)
Aortic dissection
Cardiomyopathy
Shock (septic/distributive, anaphylactic, cardiogenic, autonomic, hypovolemic…)
Arrhythmias (SVT, Brady/block)
Infective endocarditis

Resp:
PE, pneumothorax, Acute exacerbation of COPD, asthma, CF, bronchiectasis

Neuro: Stroke, ICH, Sezure (absence, focal, focal progressive, generalised)

GI: Severe Upper/lower GI bleed

Metabolic: DKA, Myxoedema coma, Thyrotoxic storm, Addisonian crisis

Psychogenic: Malingering

Trauma
Medication-induced
Malignancy

27
Q

When you say vasovagal syncope what is the cause?

A

Cerebral hypoperfusion after a trigger

28
Q

A patient comes to you with a history of a syncopal episode. On examination, there is evidence of deep cut/bite on the upper 1/3 of the tongue. What is the most likely cause of this presentation?

A

Upper 1/3 of tongue/ front of tongue => most likely caused by trauma from the fall

29
Q

A patient comes to you with a history of a syncopal episode. On examination, there is evidence of deep lateral cut/bite on the tongue. What is the most likely cause of this presentation?

A

This one is seizure. Lateral bite

30
Q

Define vasovagal syncope

A

Transient loss of consciousness (syncope) resulting from a sudden drop in BP and HR, leading to a sudden drop in cerebral perfusion caused by excessive stimulation of the vagus nerve

31
Q

What are the causes of vasovagal (Just 10 enough) syncope?

A

Physical Triggers:
Dehydration
Standing for long periods
Heat exposure
Exhaustion/hunger
Intense physical activity

Situational Triggers:
Medical procedures
Micturition syncope
Defecation syncope
Swallow syncope
Post-prandial syncope (elderly)
Coughing/Sneezing

Emotional Triggers:
Anxiety/fear
Pain
Distress

32
Q

How would you assess for orthostatic hypotension? What are you looking for?

What 2 medications can be given to those with orthostatic hypotension given that there are no reversible causes?

A

Lying down and seated+/-standing pressures at 0,1,3,5 minutes. Looking for >20 drop in SBP

Midodrine - alpha agonist
Fludrocortisone - Mineralocorticoid (used in addison’s for the same reason)

33
Q

Why do the elderly experience orthostatic hypotension

A

Baroreceptors become less sensitive so they are more prone
e.g. Post-prandial syncope

34
Q

When performing an abdominal exam. How should your hand be oriented? Why?

A

Horizontal in order to feel for the splenic notch

35
Q

What is Waldeyer’s ring? Go through it

A

It is the ring of lymphoid tissue in the naso and oropharynx
Pharyngeal tonsil (Adenoid)
Tubal tonsils (next to ET tube)
Palatine tonsils (main ones)
Lingual tonsil

36
Q

What treatments should you offer sperm banking before starting?

A

Chemotherapy (esp alkylating agents). Alkylating agents such as cyclophosphamide are also used in BM transplants and autoimmune conditions
Radiotherapy to sensitive areas
Surgical: Procedures that may directly (obv) or indirectly affect reproductive organs such as bladder or colorectal surgeries
Androgen-deprivation therapy (prostate Ca, male breast Ca)

37
Q

State Virchow’s Triad

A

Stasis/turbulent flow
Endothelial injury
Hypercoagulability

38
Q

What 3 genetic/inherited abnormalities lead to hypercoagulability

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome
Anti-thrombin 3 deficiency (also acquired via nephrotic syndrome)
Protein S/Protein C

39
Q

When asked about why youre performing an ECHO, what will you say?

A

TTE ECHO looking for a
1) Atrial/ventricular size (LA enlargement, LV hypertrophy),
2) RV systolic pressure (RHF)
3) presence of valvular disease e.g. papillary rupture causing acute mitral regurgitation (rule out),
4) Atrial and ventricular filling,
5) Pericardial disease (dressler)

TOE needed for identifying left atrial thrombus. (also rule out vegetations in IE)

40
Q

What surgeries should be asked about when taking a history with a renal component?

A

Fistulas, Permcath, urostomy
CABG
Parathyroid
Renal transplant

41
Q

How is an EPO injection administered?

A

SC

42
Q

If a patient when taking a family history tells you ADPKD. What diseases should you ask questions about?

A

Aneurysms
AAA (abdo pain, examination)
SAH (headache, brain bleeds…)
Popliteal etc.. Any aneurysm

43
Q

What are the 3 main SC injections most commonly used in the population?

What are the top 2 examination findings associated with all of them.

A

1) LMWH (+small subcutaneous haematomas)
2) Insulin
3) EPO

44
Q

What is the difference between dizziness and vertigo?

A

Dizziness = Unsteadiness
Vertigo = sensation of person or environment spinning

45
Q

What is the most important immediate question you should ask when facing a patient with syncope

A

Position!! and activity the person is doing at the time of syncope

46
Q

Is parkinson’s onset unilateral or bilateral? How about parkinson +?

A

Parkinson’s Unilateral
Ddx of Parkinson’s Bilateral

47
Q

What are the 3 components necessary for balance?

What gait is typically demonstrated in patients with poor balance?

What diseases should you be thinking about when a patient walks into your clinic with that gait?

A

Wide-based gait

Vestibular system 70% (Think stroke/ENT)
Proprioception 20% (think dorsal columns)
Vision 10% (think demyelination/diabetes)
Others: Alcohol, tumour, vascular, encephalitis, Brucella

48
Q

Epilepsy drug if you have no idea whats going on

A

Kepra, Leviteracetam

49
Q

2 most common causes of delirium

A

infection
constipation

50
Q
A