Medications Flashcards

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1
Q

2nd line medication and dosage for a 6yo pediatric patient with bradycardia and poor perfusion?

A

atropine at 0.02 mg/kg

min dose: 0.1mg
max dose: 0.5mg

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2
Q

1st line medication and dosage for a 6yo pediatric patient with bradycardia and poor perfusion?

A

epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg 1:10,000 concentration

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3
Q

Heparin

A

an anticoagulant used to decrease the clotting ability of the blood and help prevent harmful clots from forming in blood vessels.

Heparin is used to prevent blood clots from forming in people who have certain medical conditions or who are undergoing certain medical procedures that increase the chance that clots will form.

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4
Q

Narcan dosage

A

2mg IN

0.4mg IV

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5
Q

Atropine pediatric dosage for organophosphate poisoning?

A

0.05mg/kg IV (max of 3mg)

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6
Q

Pre-Hospital treatment for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy medication and dosage?

A

Correct answer: Thiamine 100 mg IM/IV and 25 g of dextrose 50 percent IV

The proper prehospital medications and dosages for a patient with the signs and symptoms of Wernicke’s encephalopathy are 100 milligrams of thiamine to be administered either IntraMuscularly (IM) or IntraVenously (IV) before administering dextrose 50 percent intravenously only. If IV access is not accomplished or possible, glucagon intramuscularly can replace the dextrose 50 percent, but only, as already stated, if IV access is not accomplished.

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7
Q

Cimetidine (Tagament)

A

Cimetidine is an H2 antagonist that may help improve a patient’s blood pressure during an anaphylaxis reaction when epinephrine fails to improve the pressure by blocking the histamine that is partly responsible for vasodilation.

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8
Q

Morphine sulfate

A

It is effective in decreasing venous return by dilation of the capacitance vessels of the peripheral venous bed, helping to reduce preload.

  • It also helps reduce pain, anxiety, and myocardial
    workload.

-it decreases myocardial oxygen demand.

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9
Q

Fentanyl

A

works by binding to the body’s opioid receptors, which are found in areas of the brain that control pain and emotions.

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10
Q

Furosemide

A

is a diuretic that helps reduce blood pressure by inhibiting the reabsorption of NaCl in the kidneys,
dilating the veins in acute pulmonary edema.

Onset of venous dilation is in 5-10min after IV infusion with diuresis within 20-30 minutes.

Packaged in 10 mg/ml vials

Administered at 1 mg/kg slow IV push over 2 minutes.

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11
Q

What are the three types of cells located in the Islets of Langerhans within the pancreas?

A

Alpha cells, Beta cells and Delta cells.

alpha cells are responsible for the production and controlled release of glucagon into the bloodstream.

The beta cells are responsible for the production and release of insulin to assist glucose in the bloodstream to enter the cells.

The delta cells are responsible for the production and release of somatostatin.

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12
Q

Somatostatin

A

controls the release of the growth hormone and is thought to be responsible for limiting the release of insulin and glucagon by the alpha and beta cells to help control blood glucose level swings.

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13
Q

Murphy’s Sign

A

A positive Murphy’s sign is a clinical finding during an abdominal examination that suggests acute CHOLECYSTITIS. The sign is positive when a patient experiences sharp pain and abruptly stops inspiration while the examiner palpates the right subcostal area (under the liver edge). This occurs because the inflamed gallbladder comes into contact with the examiner’s hand during inspiration.

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14
Q

McBurney’s sign

A

It is a clinical sign that suggests APPENDICITIS.

Tenderness at McBurney’s point, which is roughly located one-third of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus, is indicative of inflammation of the appendix.

This sign is a classic finding used to aid in the diagnosis of APPENDICITIS.

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15
Q

Cullen sign

A

It is characterized by PERIUMBILICAL bluish discoloration and is associated with retroperitoneal hemorrhage, particularly in the setting of acute pancreatitis, leading to the spread of hemorrhagic fluid to the superficial tissues around the umbilicus.

It is not related to cyanosis but rather to the tracking of blood through tissue planes.

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16
Q

Grey Turner sign

A

It refers to bluish or bruise-like discoloration of the flanks and indicates:
Intra-abdominal
or Retroperitoneal hemorrhage.

This sign can be seen in severe cases of
Pancreatitis
Abdominal trauma
other causes of bleeding within the abdominal cavity.

Like Cullen’s sign, it reflects the seepage of blood into the soft tissues.

17
Q

What medications have been approved for Intranasal (IN) administration? Dosage?

A

naloxone (Narcan)
glucagon (GlucaGen)
midazolam (Versed)
ketorlac (Toradol)
flumazenil (Romazicon)
fentanyl citrate (Duragesic).

Most protocols require 2 to 2.5 times the normal dose when giving a medication intranasally.

18
Q

What medications are approved for ET tube administration?

A

N.A.V.E.L.

Narcan
Atropine
Valium
Epinephrine
Lidocaine

19
Q

Flumazenil

A

a benzodiazepine antagonist typically used in overdose emergencies.

It is a reversal agent for benzodiazepine overdose and postoperative sedation from benzodiazepine anesthetics.

20
Q

H2 Antagonist medications

A

a class of drugs that reduce stomach acid production by blocking histamine at the parietal cells’ histamine H2 receptors.

They are FDA-approved for short-term use to treat conditions such as:

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
Gastric or duodenal ulcers
Gastric hypersecretion
Mild to infrequent heartburn
Indigestion

21
Q

H1 medications

A

H1-blockers, also known as H1-receptor antagonists

 -A class of drugs that bind to and keep histamine type 1 (H1) receptors in an inactive state. 

 - Commonly used to treat allergies and other conditions. 

First-generation:
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
chlorpheniramine (Chlor-Trimeton)
doxylamine (Vicks NyQuil)
hydroxyzine (Vistaril)

Second-generation:
Azelastine (Astelin)
loratadine (Claritin)

22
Q

Mannitol (Osmetrol) and Furosemide (Lasix)

A

Diuretic medications are used to manage fluid overload, heart failure, and in some cases, cerebral edema.

23
Q

Beta Blockers

A

A group of cardiac medications that effectively REDUCE HEART RATE by blocking sympathetic stimulation of the beta receptors that stimulate the SA node and other myocardial cells.

They effectively DECREASE the force of the myocardial contractions, causing a direct reduction in heart rate.

Metoprolol
Labetalol
Sotalol
Propranolol.

24
Q

Calcium-channel blockers

A

They relax smooth muscles to provide vasodilation
Reduce heart rate and stroke volume of the heart.

Diltiazem (or Cardizem)
Verapamil
Nicardipine.

25
Q

Sodium-channel blockers

A

They impair conduction of sodium ions through sodium channels used in the treatment of cardiac dysrhythmias.

Lidocaine.

26
Q

Atropine

A

Indicated:
ACLS situations for symptomatic bradycardia
heart block
Asystole.

It is a strong ANTICHOLINERGIC drug that BLOCKS the
PARASYMPATHETIC system
- Reduces vagal tone
- Increases the SA and AV nodal conduction.

It is prepackaged as 1 milligram in a 10-cc dose syringe.

Dosage:
0.5 to 1mg per dose up to a MAX of 3 milligrams.

27
Q

Mannitol

A

an osmotic diuretic medication.

helps to reduce swelling in heart, kidney or kidney disease by reducing bodily fluids, salt and excess water through urine.

It also treats swelling around the brain (ICP) or in the eyes.

28
Q

Procainamide

A

a Class 1a antidysrhythmic

It Inhibits recovery after repolarization and PROLONGS the refractory period.

It also PROLONGS the QT interval and may be successful in treating refractory SVT after adenosine fails to convert the rhythm.

Administered at 20-50 mg/min until dysrhythmia ceases, hypotension occurs, or the QRS duration increases.

It is followed by a maintenance infusion of 1-4 mg/min.

29
Q

Lorazepam

A

Ativan

30
Q

Diazapam

A

Valium

Treatment of heatstroke 2mg IVP