Medical Procedures D. 2. Flashcards
In the positioning of the electrodes, if the electrodes are placed too close together, the amplitude will be _________________.
A. small
B. large
C. round
D. square
A. small
The large squares on the ECG paper are equal to ________________.
A. 0.10 sec
B. 0.20 sec
C. 0.04 sec
D. 0.09 sec
B. 0.20 sec
A “V wave” will ________________ be seen in a normal EKG.
A. always
B. sometimes
C. never
D. usually
C. never
The __________ switch controls the gain or amplitude on the EKG.
A. major
B. sensitivity
C. red
D. ticker
B. sensitivity
When preparing for lead placement you should first care for ___________.
A. skin preperation
B. application of electrode wires
C. application of electrodes
D. positioning of electrodes
A. skin preparation
Conversion of a dysrhythmia to a normal rhythm by applying electric shock to the chest is called ______________
A. cardiac scan
B. pacemaker implant
C. defibrillation
D. endarterectomy
C. defibrillation
Which of the following is NOT a criteria for skin preparation for lead placement?
A. clean the skin with an alcohol wipe
B. make sure the skin is damp when applying the electrode
C. shave the hair from the skin
D. roughen the skin for better dermis contact
B. Make sure the skin is damp when applying electrode
The electrode site should be ____________.
A. clean, smooth, and dry
B. hairy
C. have plenty of skin oil present
D. moist
A. clean, smooth, and dry.
An ECG tracing measures the amount of voltage and the ________ it takes for the voltage to travel throughout the heart.
A. time
B. route
C. waves
D. lines
A. time
In the application of electrodes, secure the electrode by rubbing your finger around the __________ area.
A. center
B. gel
C. adhesive
D. peripheral
C. adhesive
When there is no variation of R-R intervals it is called ___________
A. irregular with a pattern
B. absolutely regular
C. essentially regular
D. totally regular
B. absolutely regular
Ventricular depolarization produces an electrical force or vector with 2 components: (1) magnitude or force, and (2) _________________.
A. amplitude
B. ground electrode
C. direction or shape
D. polarization
C. direction or shape
A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the _______________.
A. R wave
B. T wave
C. Q wave
D. S wave
C. Q wave.
A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) where the QRS have the same configuration each time they appear is called ______________.
A. uniform
B. malignant
C. fused
D. bigeminy
A. uniform
When applying leads, apply the V1 lead ________________.
A. directly lateral to V4 at the anterior axillary line
B. the fourth intercostal space right sternal border
C. lateral to V5 at midaxillary line
D. fifth intercostal space midclavicular line
B. the forth intercostal space right sternal border.
Which fact is true about the P wave?
A. duration of the P wave is not greater than 0.11 sec
B. height-deflection is small, not more than 3mm
C. both a and b
D. no correct answer
C. Both a and b
Duration of the P wave is not greater then 0.11 seconds
height - deflection is small, not more then 3mm
When PVC’s fall on the T wave, occur in pairs, runs of 3 or more, or are multiform in nature, these conditions are called __________.
A. fused
B. multiform
C. life threatening
D. uniform
C. life threatening
When a vector travels away from the positive electrode, a _________ deflection results.
A. position
B. variation
C. T wave
D. negative
D. negative
The combination of sensors or electrodes used for lead #1 is ___________.
A. right arm, left leg
B. right arm, right leg
C. left arm, right arm
D. left arm, left leg
C. left arm, right arm
Concerning ECG’s for irregular rhythms, any method of rate calculation that depends on intervals between complexes is ___________.
A. acceptable
B. computed using 1/2 as fast: 300/2=150/minute
C. unreliable
D. computed by counting the number of complexes in a span of 30 large boxes
C. unreliable
The ______________wave represents atrial depolarization.
A. S
B. P
C. R
D. U
B. P
While the duration of the ST segment is not generally of clinical significance, it is an exceedingly important portion of the ECG because of _______________.
A. the fact that it follows the QRS complex
B. shifts up and down from the baseline
C. upward deflection from the baseline
D. the shift away from the ischemic area
B. shifts up or down from the baseline.
A QRS measurement of less then _____________ seconds indicates a supraventricular pacemaker.
A. 0.13
B. 0.14
C. 0.16
D. 0.12
0.12
The area between waves is referred to as _____________.
A. back spaces
B. intervals
C. segments
D. cycles
B. intervals
A terminal lethal dysrhythmia, a dying heart, is called ______________.
A. agonal
B. asystole
C. agonist
D. agogue
A. agonal
When the heart rhythm is abnormal it is referred to as ________________.
A. patent ductus arteriosus
B. an arrhythmia
C. an aneurysm
D. an embolism
B. an arrythmia
A rapid, irregular succession of chaotic bizarre waves; wide, irregular oscillations of the baseline is called ventricular ______________.
A. fibrilliation
B. standstill
C. tachycardia
D. rhythm
A. fibrillation
The absence of one or more complete cardiac cycles where the rhythm is interrupted is referred to as _______________.
A. atrial flutter
B. sinus arrest
C. ventricular arrhythmia
D. sinus wenchebach
A. atrial flutter
Oxygen is administered to the patient by way of a __________.
A. catheter
B. cannula
C. tent
D. all choices
D. all choices.
catheter, cannula, tent
A special device called a “ regulator” or “flow meter” is necessary when using ________________.
A. an electric thermometer
B. a hot pad
C. oxygen
D. a sphygmomanometer
C. oxygen
A 24-hour urine specimen should be __________.
A. kept at body temperature
B. left open to the air
C. kept at room temperature
D. chilled/refrigerated
D. chilled/refrigerated
The fresh - fractional urine specimen is used to test urine for _________.
A. T.B.
B. pneumonia
C. sugar
D. high blood pressure
C. sugar
Which test measures both sugar and acetone in the urine?
A. acetest
B. pus
C. ketone bodies (ketones)
D. no correct answer
C. Keto-diastix
To help classify bacteria into two groups; gram-positive and gram-negative is a special stain called _____________.
A. glass stain
B. gram stain
C. germicide
D. bacteria stain
B. gram stain
The clean-catch urine specimen is also called ___________.
A. clean-voided specimen
B. 24-hr urine specimen
C. mid-stream specimen
D. both a and c
D. both a and c
clean voided specimen and mid stream specimen
Another term for acetone in the urine is __________.
A. sugar
B. pus
C. ketone bodies (ketones)
D. no correct answer
C. ketone bodies (ketones)
When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should _________ the first drop.
A. collect
B. use
C. wipe away
D. wash off
C. wipe away.
When you pull the second slide apart from the first slide, let them ___________.
A. stand for one hour
B. stand for four minutes
C. air dry
D. blow on them to dry them
C. air dry
When preparing a blood smear, the spreader slide must be made of _____.
A. foil
B. steel
C. plastic
D. glass
D. glass
Which of these is crucial in making a blood smear for a differential blood count?
A. edges should be thicker than the rest
B. edges should be feathered
C. smear must be at least 1.5 inches long
D. edges should be in a straight line
B. Edges should be feathered
The glucose tolerance test is a ____________ test.
A. saliva
B. timed
C. finger stick
D. dangerous
B. timed
While ordering procedures may vary, generally a type and RH are ordered on all pregnant women. This normally is called a __________ screen.
A. blood
B. serum
C. prenatal
D. postnatal
C. prenatal
Certain types of cultures, such as deep wound cultures could contain anaerobic pathogens. Which of the following conditions is required for their growth?
A. light and oxygen
B. absence of oxygen
C. light and the absence of oxygen
D. no correct answer
B. absence of oxygen
To obtain a specimen for a throat culture the _______ must be swabbed.
A. nasopharynx and tonsillar area
B. back of the tongue and epiglottis
C. under the tongue and along the gum line
D. no correct answer
A. nasopharynx and tonsillar area.
A CLIA waived pregnancy test is based on the detection of which of the following?
A. testosterone
B. human chorionic gonadotropin
C. progesterone
D. estrogen
B. Human chorionic gonadotropin
Performing routine maintenance on laboratory equipment is critical. The maintenance plan should include which one of the following?
A. regularly scheduled check-ups
B. daily examination of equipment for frayed cords or broken parts
C. routine cleaning of the outside of the equipment with a damp cloth
D. all answers are correct
D. all answers are correct
regularly scheduled check ups
daily examination of equipment for frayed cords or broken parts
routine cleaning of the outside of the equipment with damp cloth
When testing for occult blood which of the following specimens would be required?
A. stool sample
B. urine
C. semen
D. blood
A. stool sample
When performing any CLIA waived test it is important to do which of the following?
A. keep all CLIA waived tests refrigerated
B. discard quality control kits immediatley upon opening the box
C. perform quality control testing with every new kit and routinely thereafter
D. all answers are correct
C. Perform quality control testing with every new kit and routinely thereafter.
When providing a patient instructions on the collection of a sample for occult blood testing, which of the following statements are correct?
A. dietary modifications must occur for 48 hours prior to collection of the specimen
B. the patient should consume 20oz if red meat in the four hours prior to the collection of the specimen
C. the patient should limit dairy
D. there are no restrictions on medications-the patient should take all medications as prescribed.
A. Dietary modifications must occur for 48 hours prior to collection of the specimen
In the medical office the most frequently performed pulmonary function test is ____________.
A. nebulization
B. spirometry
C. sigmoidoscopy
D. mantoux test
B. spirometry
The fresh-fractional urine specimen is used to test urine for ____________
A. T.B.
B. pneumonia
C. sugar
D. high blood pressure
C. sugar
