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Medical Devices And Lab Values Flashcards

1
Q

Condition whereby the patient suffers from a low concentration of oxygen in the blood

A

Hypoxemia

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2
Q

Insufficient oxygenation of tissue at the cellular level

A

Hypoxia

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3
Q

What are symptoms that hypoxia can lead to?

A

Headaches, dizziness and nausea

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4
Q

What can hypoxia lead to on a more serious level?

A

Ataxia, tachycardia, and pulmonary hypertension

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5
Q

Loss of muscular coordination

A

Ataxia

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6
Q

Increased blood pressure in the pulmonary vasculature

A

Pulmonary hypertension

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7
Q

What can result if hypoxia is left untreated?

A

Cyanosis, low blood pressure and death

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8
Q

Blue coloration of the skin

A

Cyanosis

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9
Q

What can localized hypoxia result in?

A

Pain, cyanosis and gangrene

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10
Q

Substance considered as a drug and typically administered under the order of a physician

A

Oxygen

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11
Q

What unit measures the amount of oxygen delivered?

A

Liters per minute (LPM) or specific concentration (%)

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12
Q

Stored in either gas or liquid form

A

Oxygen

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13
Q

Supplied in metal tanks that accompany the patient or through an oxygen supply system that is integrated within the facility and accessed via a wall-mounted port within treatment or scan room

A

Oxygen gas

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14
Q

Supplied in concentrated form and more convenient manner in small, portable tanks

A

Oxygen liquid

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15
Q

Valve used to control the rate of oxygen gas delivery in LPM, may be mounted on the wall outlet, or attached to a portable cylinder and green in color

A

Oxygen flow meter

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16
Q

Two-pronged tube inserted into the nose for delivery of oxygen at 1-5 LPM

A

Nasal cannula

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17
Q

Simple oxygen face covering that sits over the patient’s nose and mouth to deliver oxygen flow rates of 6 LPM or higher

A

Oxygen mask

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18
Q

Type of oxygen mask that includes an attached reservoir that fills with oxygen and provides a higher percentage of delivery. Includes a one-way valve that prevents the patient from exhaling into the reservoir

A

Nonrebreathing mask

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19
Q

Device used when patients have an insufficient airway or the inability to maintain adequate oxygenation may require intubation with an endotracheal tube

A

Ventilator

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20
Q

Tube that has been inserted into the trachea through a surgical opening

A

Tracheostomy

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21
Q

Device used to drain fluid from the intrapleur space of the ill or injured CT patient

A

Thoracostomy/chest tube

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22
Q

Commonly used to reestablish and maintain proper intrapleural pressure in patients who have a fluid collection in the lungs or a pneumothorax

A

Chest tube

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23
Q

Fluid in the lungs

A

Pleural effusion or hemothorax

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24
Q

Free air in the pleural space

A

Pneumothorax

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25
Catheter that remains in place to provide a physiologic function within the patient
In-dwelling catheter
26
Common location for an indwelling catheter and used to collect urine into a drainage bag
Bladder
27
Process by which a catheter has been placed into the bladder
Urinary catheterization
28
Includes a balloon that is inflated after insertion to keep it in place
Foley catheter
29
Catheter used for temporary drainage
Straight-type catheter
30
Why are lab values important for CT technologist to know?
For administering Iodinated contrast
31
What are three lab values that are used to evaluate kidney function?
BUN, creatinine, and GFR
32
What does BUN stand for?
Blood, urea, nitrogen
33
What is the normal BUN range in adults?
7-25 mg/dl
34
What lab value is not a sufficient indicator of renal insufficiency?
BUN
35
What is the normal creatinine range?
0.5-1.5 mg/dl
36
An elevated creatinine level of what value can sometimes, but not always, indicate renal function compromise?
>1.5 mg/dl
37
What type of change in creatinine levels is an informative renal function indicator
Recent change
38
What is the normal BUN/creatinine ratio used to evaluate renal function?
6:1-22:1
39
What lab value is an approximation of creatinine clearance from the bloodstream?
GFR
40
What does GFR stand for?
Glomerular filtration rate
41
What are all the accumulated factors when determining a patient’s GFR?
Creatinine serum, age, sex and race
42
A GFR greater than what range indicates normal kidney function?
90-120 mL/min
43
What does a decreasing GFR indicate?
Decrease in kidney function
44
What is a measure of blood coagulation?
Prothrombin time (PT)
45
What is the normal range for PT?
12-15seconds
46
What protein is added to PT when the lab is testing the blood sample?
Tissue factor
47
What is calculated to standardize the PT results?
International normalized ratio
48
What is the normal range for INR?
0.8 to 1.2
49
Lab value used to detect abnormalities in blood clotting
Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
50
What is the normal range for clotting time?
25-35seconds
51
What is the normal platelet count range?
140,000-440,000 per mm^3 of blood
52
What test is ran to diagnose DVT and PE?
D-Dimer
53
What happens with the D-Dimer test that indicates recently degraded blood clots?
Elevates
54
What scan is ordered to diagnose chest PE?
CTA of pulmonary arteries
55
Test used to screen for damage to the patient’s liver and consists of a panel of blood tests that measure the levels of various enzymes and proteins in circulating blood?
Liver function test
56
A patient in stage 1 of CKD has kidney damage with normal function and a GFR of what?
>90
57
A patient with stage 2 CKD has mild loss of kidney function and a GFR of what?
89-60
58
A patient with stage 3a CKD has mild-to-moderate loss of kidney function and a GFR are of what?
59-44
59
A patient with stage 3b CKD has moderate-to severe loss of kidney function and a GFR of what?
44-30
60
A patient with stage 4 CKD has severe loss of kidney function and a GFR of what?
29-15
61
A patient with stage 5 CKD has kidney failure a GFR of what?
<15
62
What type of event do CT Techs benefit in when it comes to medicine administration?
Adverse drug event
63
Process of reviewing the patient’s medication record at all points of care, including admission, transfer of service and discharge
Medication reconciliation
64
What part of patient care does the medication name, dosage, frequency and route of administration apply to?
Medication record
65
What is the proprietary name for the generic drug warfarin?
Coumadin
66
What type of drug is Coumadin
Anticoagulant
67
What is Coumadin used for and how does it help reduce heart attack and stroke?
Blood clot formation in veins and arteries
68
Drug commonly named glucophage and used for type 2 diabetes treatment
Metformin
69
What classifies a patient using metformin to reduce the intake of the medication before and IV contrast exam and for up to 2 days post exam?
Patients with acute kidney injury or severe chronic kidney disease
70
What type of medication can be administered before a CT scan to reduce a patient’s anxiety?
Anxiolytic
71
What medication is a class of anxiolytic drugs including Valium, Xanax, Klonopin, and Ativan?
Benzodiazepines
72
What is the proprietary name for Valium?
Diazepam
73
What is the proprietary name for Xanax?
Alprazolam
74
What is the proprietary name for Klonopin?
Clonazepam
75
What is the proprietary name for Ativan?
Lorazepam
76
What are Paxil, Zoloft, Prozac, and Lexapro considered?
serotonin reuptake inhibitors
77
What’s the proprietary name for Paxil?
Paroxetine
78
What is the proprietary name for Zoloft?
Sertraline
79
What is the proprietary name for Prozac?
Fluoxetine
80
What is the proprietary name for Lexapro?
Escitalopram

Mosby's Exam Review (18 decks)

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