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Mosby's Exam Review > Medical Devices And Lab Values > Flashcards

Medical Devices And Lab Values Flashcards

1
Q

Condition whereby the patient suffers from a low concentration of oxygen in the blood

A

Hypoxemia

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2
Q

Insufficient oxygenation of tissue at the cellular level

A

Hypoxia

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3
Q

What are symptoms that hypoxia can lead to?

A

Headaches, dizziness and nausea

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4
Q

What can hypoxia lead to on a more serious level?

A

Ataxia, tachycardia, and pulmonary hypertension

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5
Q

Loss of muscular coordination

A

Ataxia

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6
Q

Increased blood pressure in the pulmonary vasculature

A

Pulmonary hypertension

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7
Q

What can result if hypoxia is left untreated?

A

Cyanosis, low blood pressure and death

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8
Q

Blue coloration of the skin

A

Cyanosis

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9
Q

What can localized hypoxia result in?

A

Pain, cyanosis and gangrene

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10
Q

Substance considered as a drug and typically administered under the order of a physician

A

Oxygen

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11
Q

What unit measures the amount of oxygen delivered?

A

Liters per minute (LPM) or specific concentration (%)

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12
Q

Stored in either gas or liquid form

A

Oxygen

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13
Q

Supplied in metal tanks that accompany the patient or through an oxygen supply system that is integrated within the facility and accessed via a wall-mounted port within treatment or scan room

A

Oxygen gas

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14
Q

Supplied in concentrated form and more convenient manner in small, portable tanks

A

Oxygen liquid

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15
Q

Valve used to control the rate of oxygen gas delivery in LPM, may be mounted on the wall outlet, or attached to a portable cylinder and green in color

A

Oxygen flow meter

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16
Q

Two-pronged tube inserted into the nose for delivery of oxygen at 1-5 LPM

A

Nasal cannula

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17
Q

Simple oxygen face covering that sits over the patient’s nose and mouth to deliver oxygen flow rates of 6 LPM or higher

A

Oxygen mask

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18
Q

Type of oxygen mask that includes an attached reservoir that fills with oxygen and provides a higher percentage of delivery. Includes a one-way valve that prevents the patient from exhaling into the reservoir

A

Nonrebreathing mask

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19
Q

Device used when patients have an insufficient airway or the inability to maintain adequate oxygenation may require intubation with an endotracheal tube

A

Ventilator

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20
Q

Tube that has been inserted into the trachea through a surgical opening

A

Tracheostomy

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21
Q

Device used to drain fluid from the intrapleur space of the ill or injured CT patient

A

Thoracostomy/chest tube

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22
Q

Commonly used to reestablish and maintain proper intrapleural pressure in patients who have a fluid collection in the lungs or a pneumothorax

A

Chest tube

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23
Q

Fluid in the lungs

A

Pleural effusion or hemothorax

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24
Q

Free air in the pleural space

A

Pneumothorax

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25
Q

Catheter that remains in place to provide a physiologic function within the patient

A

In-dwelling catheter

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26
Q

Common location for an indwelling catheter and used to collect urine into a drainage bag

A

Bladder

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27
Q

Process by which a catheter has been placed into the bladder

A

Urinary catheterization

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28
Q

Includes a balloon that is inflated after insertion to keep it in place

A

Foley catheter

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29
Q

Catheter used for temporary drainage

A

Straight-type catheter

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30
Q

Why are lab values important for CT technologist to know?

A

For administering Iodinated contrast

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31
Q

What are three lab values that are used to evaluate kidney function?

A

BUN, creatinine, and GFR

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32
Q

What does BUN stand for?

A

Blood, urea, nitrogen

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33
Q

What is the normal BUN range in adults?

A

7-25 mg/dl

34
Q

What lab value is not a sufficient indicator of renal insufficiency?

A

BUN

35
Q

What is the normal creatinine range?

A

0.5-1.5 mg/dl

36
Q

An elevated creatinine level of what value can sometimes, but not always, indicate renal function compromise?

A

> 1.5 mg/dl

37
Q

What type of change in creatinine levels is an informative renal function indicator

A

Recent change

38
Q

What is the normal BUN/creatinine ratio used to evaluate renal function?

A

6:1-22:1

39
Q

What lab value is an approximation of creatinine clearance from the bloodstream?

A

GFR

40
Q

What does GFR stand for?

A

Glomerular filtration rate

41
Q

What are all the accumulated factors when determining a patient’s GFR?

A

Creatinine serum, age, sex and race

42
Q

A GFR greater than what range indicates normal kidney function?

A

90-120 mL/min

43
Q

What does a decreasing GFR indicate?

A

Decrease in kidney function

44
Q

What is a measure of blood coagulation?

A

Prothrombin time (PT)

45
Q

What is the normal range for PT?

A

12-15seconds

46
Q

What protein is added to PT when the lab is testing the blood sample?

A

Tissue factor

47
Q

What is calculated to standardize the PT results?

A

International normalized ratio

48
Q

What is the normal range for INR?

A

0.8 to 1.2

49
Q

Lab value used to detect abnormalities in blood clotting

A

Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

50
Q

What is the normal range for clotting time?

A

25-35seconds

51
Q

What is the normal platelet count range?

A

140,000-440,000 per mm^3 of blood

52
Q

What test is ran to diagnose DVT and PE?

A

D-Dimer

53
Q

What happens with the D-Dimer test that indicates recently degraded blood clots?

A

Elevates

54
Q

What scan is ordered to diagnose chest PE?

A

CTA of pulmonary arteries

55
Q

Test used to screen for damage to the patient’s liver and consists of a panel of blood tests that measure the levels of various enzymes and proteins in circulating blood?

A

Liver function test

56
Q

A patient in stage 1 of CKD has kidney damage with normal function and a GFR of what?

A

> 90

57
Q

A patient with stage 2 CKD has mild loss of kidney function and a GFR of what?

A

89-60

58
Q

A patient with stage 3a CKD has mild-to-moderate loss of kidney function and a GFR are of what?

A

59-44

59
Q

A patient with stage 3b CKD has moderate-to severe loss of kidney function and a GFR of what?

A

44-30

60
Q

A patient with stage 4 CKD has severe loss of kidney function and a GFR of what?

A

29-15

61
Q

A patient with stage 5 CKD has kidney failure a GFR of what?

A

<15

62
Q

What type of event do CT Techs benefit in when it comes to medicine administration?

A

Adverse drug event

63
Q

Process of reviewing the patient’s medication record at all points of care, including admission, transfer of service and discharge

A

Medication reconciliation

64
Q

What part of patient care does the medication name, dosage, frequency and route of administration apply to?

A

Medication record

65
Q

What is the proprietary name for the generic drug warfarin?

A

Coumadin

66
Q

What type of drug is Coumadin

A

Anticoagulant

67
Q

What is Coumadin used for and how does it help reduce heart attack and stroke?

A

Blood clot formation in veins and arteries

68
Q

Drug commonly named glucophage and used for type 2 diabetes treatment

A

Metformin

69
Q

What classifies a patient using metformin to reduce the intake of the medication before and IV contrast exam and for up to 2 days post exam?

A

Patients with acute kidney injury or severe chronic kidney disease

70
Q

What type of medication can be administered before a CT scan to reduce a patient’s anxiety?

A

Anxiolytic

71
Q

What medication is a class of anxiolytic drugs including Valium, Xanax, Klonopin, and Ativan?

A

Benzodiazepines

72
Q

What is the proprietary name for Valium?

A

Diazepam

73
Q

What is the proprietary name for Xanax?

A

Alprazolam

74
Q

What is the proprietary name for Klonopin?

A

Clonazepam

75
Q

What is the proprietary name for Ativan?

A

Lorazepam

76
Q

What are Paxil, Zoloft, Prozac, and Lexapro considered?

A

serotonin reuptake inhibitors

77
Q

What’s the proprietary name for Paxil?

A

Paroxetine

78
Q

What is the proprietary name for Zoloft?

A

Sertraline

79
Q

What is the proprietary name for Prozac?

A

Fluoxetine

80
Q

What is the proprietary name for Lexapro?

A

Escitalopram

Mosby's Exam Review (18 decks)

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