Medical 2 Flashcards

1
Q

How many people in Canada have symptoms of GERD (gastroesophageal reflux disease)

A

10-20%

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2
Q

What are some risk factors of GI disorders?

A

Age
Previous illness
Surgery
Family history
Medications
Cigarettes
Drugs or alcohol

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3
Q

What is role of the portal veins?

A

Portal veins transport veins transport venous blood from the GI system to the liver for processing of nutrients that have been absorbed.

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4
Q

Name the 3 sections of the small intestine and it’s purpose.

A

Duodenum, jejunum, and ileum function to absorb 90% of nutrients.

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5
Q

What are the common symptoms of a GI tract disease?

A

Pain, fluid losses (diarrhea/vomiting), bleeding, and alterations in bowel habits

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6
Q

What is esophageal varices?

A

Increased pressure in the blood vessels of the distal esophagus due to liver damage or cirrhosis

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7
Q

What is Mallory-Weiss Syndrome?

A

Tears in the esophageal lining caused by severe vomiting and may lead to hemorrhage.

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8
Q

What causes hemorrhoids?

A

Swelling and inflammation of the blood vessels surrounding the rectum.

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9
Q

What causes peptic ulcer disease (PUD)? And with are the risk factors?

A

The protective layer is eroded allowing the acid to eat the mucosal lining of the stomach
Major risk factors are helicobacter pylori infection and NSAID use

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10
Q

What causes cholecystitis?

A

Obstruction of the cystic duct from the gallbladder to duodenum, usually by a gallstone can cause inflammation of the gallbladder.
Patient may show a positive Murphy sign (rebound tenderness in the right upper quadrant as the diaphragm descends)

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11
Q

What are the Five F risk factors for cholecystitis?

A

Fat, Fair (White), Female, Fertile, Forty

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12
Q

What causes Diverticulitis?

A

Feces may become trapped in the diverticula (bulges in the colon wall). Bacteria will grow causing inflammation and infection
Pain from diverticulitis is most common in the left lower quadrant

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13
Q

What causes Ulcerative Colitis?

A

Generalized inflammation of the colon

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14
Q

What is Crohn disease?

A

A disease in which the immune system attacks the GI tract, most commonly affecting the ileum

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15
Q

What’s the biggest difference between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s disease?

A

Ulcerative Colitis affects the colon, Crohn Disease may affect any part of the GI Tract

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16
Q

What is Acute Gastroenteritis and what are it’s symptoms?

A

Gastroenteritis is caused by several infectious conditions and presents with nausea, diarrhea, vomiting, cramps, and chills.
May run its course in 2-3 days or several weeks

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17
Q

What are the types of Hepatitis, what does hepatitis do, what are the symptoms?

A

Hep A (fecal-oral)
Hep B (blood-blood)
Hep C (blood-blood)
Hep D (blood-blood)
Hep E (fecal-oral)
Acute Hepatitis causes damage to the liver.
Symptoms: abdominal pain, vomiting, fever, and jaundice

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18
Q

What do you have to do before palpating the abdomen?

A

Auscultate for bowel sounds

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19
Q

What are Orthostatic vital signs? What can they determine?

A

When a patient has suffered significant fluid loss, 10-20%, you will note a 20 mmHg systolic and 10 mmHg diastolic change in blood pressure when the patient is sitting vs. standing

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20
Q

What are the 4 types of abdominal pain?

A

Somatic Pain- localized pain, felt deeply
Rebound Tenderness- felt on rebound of palpation, increases with movement
Visceral Pain- difficult to localize, described as burning cramping or aching
Referred Pain- originates in the abdomen and causes pain in distant locations

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21
Q

What are normal bowel sounds?

A

Soft gurgles occurring 5-30x per minute

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22
Q

What is the main airway concern for the GI patient?

A

Potential for aspiration or obstruction of the airway due to vomit or blood

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23
Q

What does shortness of breath with a GI problem indicate?

A

The patient needs oxygen, GI bleeding may cause significantly decreased hemoglobin. Oxygen saturation may read high but the patient still needs oxygen.

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24
Q

What equipment can be used to protect from bodily fluids?

A

Gloves, Gowns, Eye pro, Mask
Towels and Wash rags
Extra linens
Absorbent pads
Emesis basin
Disposable basin

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25
Q

How much of the body’s blood flows through the kidneys each minute?

A

1/4

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26
Q

What are the parts of the kidney?

A

Hilum- concave medial side
Renal Fascia- dense tissue anchoring the kidney to the abdominal wall
Cortex- light coloured outer region
Medulla- includes cone shaped renal pyramids and inward tissue
Renal pelvis- flat funnel shaped tube that fills the sinus

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27
Q

What is a nephron and how many are there?

A

The main structural and functional units of the kidney that form urine, each kidney contains approximately 1.25 million nephrons

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28
Q

What affect does Aldosterone and Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) have on reabsorption?

A

Aldosterone- increases the rate of sodium and chloride ion reabsorption (water follows salt)
Antidiuretic hormone- Increases water reabsorption when solute concentration in the blood is too high

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29
Q

What is the Micturition Reflex?

A

Spinal reflex causes contractions of bladder smooth muscle causing the urge to void.

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30
Q

What is Polynephritis?

A

Inflammation of the kidney linings caused by an upper urinary tract infection. If untreated may lead to sepsis.

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31
Q

What are the risk factors of kidney stones?

A

Diet, hydration, personal or family history, and hypertension

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32
Q

Types of Kidney stones?

A

Calcium oxalate (calcium stones account for 80%)
Calcium phosphate
Uric acid/ Cystine
Struvite stones

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33
Q

Define the terms Polyguria, Anuria, Oligura

A

Polyguria- increased urinary output
Anuria- complete stop of urine production
Oliguria- decreased urinary output

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34
Q

What is an AKI

A

An Acute Kidney injury is a sudden decrease in the rate of filtration through the glomeruli causing toxins to accumulate in the blood. Classified into 3 types, prerenal, intrarenal, postrenal. (approximately 1/8 will require long term dialysis)

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35
Q

What is CKD?

A

Chronic Kidney Disease is progressive and irreversible loss of function developed over months or years, more than half caused by diabetes or hypertension. May also be caused by congenital diseases such as pyelonephritis.

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36
Q

What is dialysis? What are the 2 types?

A

Dialysis is a technique for filtering toxic wastes from blood or removing excess fluids.
There are 2 types:
Peritoneal- large amounts of dialysis fluid are infused into the peritoneal cavity, remain there for 4-6 hours for equilibrium to occur.
Hemodialysis- Blood is circulated through a dialysis machine that functions similarly to normal kidneys
Patients requiring chronic dialysis every 2-3 days

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37
Q

What problems may be associated with dialysis?

A

Accidental disconnection of the machine
Air embolism
Bleeding from a fistula or shunt
Malfunction of machine
Rapid shift in fluid may cause hypotension, potassium Imbalance, or disequilibrium syndrome

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38
Q

What is Disequilibrium Syndrome and what are it’s signs and symptoms?

A

Increase of Intracranial pressure from water moving into the CSF through osmosis as a consequence of dialysis.
Patient may experience nausea, vomiting, headache, and confusion

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39
Q

What is Pheochromocytoma?

A

A tumour in the adrenal gland, usually in the medulla
Fewer than 10% of tumours are malignant (cancerous)

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40
Q

What is the most common presentation of Renal (Kidney) Trauma?

A

Flank pain and hematuria (blood in the urine)

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41
Q

Why is ongoing assessment of patients with renal and urological emergencies essential?

A

Electrolyte imbalances caused by renal failure can cause rapid deterioration in the function of organs, specifically the heart.

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42
Q

What are the common symptoms of a UTI?

A

Painful urination
Difficulty urinating
Hematuria, cloudy, or foul odour in urine
Visceral discomfort or extreme burning

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43
Q

Signs and symptoms of AKI

A

Fluid retention
Tachycardia
Possible hyperkalemia
Pale, cool, and moist skin
Peripheral edema

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44
Q

Signs and symptoms of CKD?

A

Altered LOC, Lethargy, Nausea, Headaches, Cramps, Weakness, Vomiting, Anorexia, Increased thirst, Pruritis, and Hypertension

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45
Q

What are the possible routes of absorption of a toxin?

A

Ingestion
Inhalation
Injection
Dermal Absorption

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46
Q

What’s the difference between and opioid and an opiate?

A

Opiate- natural product derived from opium
Opioid- synthetic non-opium derived narcotic

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47
Q

What is the definition of drug abuse?

A

Any use of drugs that causes physical, psychological, economic, legal, or social harm to the user or to others affected by the drug users behaviour

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48
Q

Define the term Habituation?

A

Psychological or physical dependence on a drug or drugs

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49
Q

Define physical dependence?

A

A physiological state of adaptation to a drug, usually characterized by tolerance to a drugs affects and by withdrawal syndrome if the drug use is stopped

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50
Q

Define psychological dependence?

A

The emotional state of craving a drug to maintain a feeling of well-being

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51
Q

Define the term Tolerance?

A

Physiologic adaptation to the effects of a drug such that increasingly larger doses of the drug are required to achieve the same effect

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52
Q

Define the term potentiation?

A

Enhancement of the effect of one drug by another drug

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53
Q

Define the term synergism?

A

The action of two substances in which the total effect is greater than the sum of the two. (2+2=5)

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54
Q

What are the red flags pointing to alcohol abuse?

A

Drinking early in the day
Drinking alone or in secret
Periodic binges
Loss of memory/ blackouts
Tremulousness and anxiety
Chronically flushed face and palms

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55
Q

What is Delerium Tremens?

A

Potentially lethal complication of alcohol withdrawal that usually starts 48-72 hours after the last alcohol intake. Symptoms include confusion, tremors, fever, restlessness, tachycardia, diaphoresis, hallucinations, and hypotension secondary to dehydration.

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56
Q

Drugs such as nasal decongestants and diet pills generally fall into which category?

A

Amphetamines

57
Q

What’s the difference between Hemoglobin’s affinity CO vs O2

A

Hemoglobin’s affinity for CO is 250x greater than it’s affinity for oxygen

58
Q

What are the symptoms of CO poisoning?

A

Headache
Nausea
Vomiting
Altered LOC
Cherry red skin (very late symptom)

59
Q

What does the odour of almonds on a patients breath indicate?

A

Cyanide poisoning

60
Q

What is the DUMBELS mnemonic and what is it used to assess

A

Diaphoresis/ Diarrhea
Urination
Miosis/ Mydriasis (very small pupil/ very large pupil)
Bronchospasm/ Bronchorrhea (watery sputum)/ Bradycardia
Emesis
Lacrimation
Salivation
Symptoms of cholinergic excess

61
Q

What is considered to be a toxic dose of acetaminophen?

A

A dose greater than 150-200 mg/kg

62
Q

What is a caustic substance?

63
Q

What can the paramedic do for a patient that has ingested a caustic substance?

A

Give the patient water or milk

65
Q

What is Lithium used to treat?

A

Bipolar disorder

66
Q

What are the functions performed by the blood?

A

Respiratory function
Nutritional function
Excretory function
Regulatory function
Defensive function

67
Q

What are the 4 elements of the blood?

A

Plasma (water with proteins and electrolytes)
Erythrocytes (Red blood cells)
Leukocytes (White blood cells)
Thrombocytes (platelets)

68
Q

What is the life cycle of white blood cell?

A

Bone marrow releases granulocytes that circulate in the blood 6-12 hours. If the cells travel to a tissue they will live there for a few days, if not they are recycled by the reticuloendothelial system as red blood cells

69
Q

Define Thalassemia?

A

A disorder that causes too little or abnormally shaped hemoglobin

70
Q

What is Neutropenia?

A

Abnormally low number of neutrophils, neutrophils make up the majority of circulating white blood cells

71
Q

What is Leukemia?

A

Cancer in the lymphoid system. Leukemia can cause anemia, decrease in platelets (thrombocytopenia), and increase in white blood cells (leukocytosis)

72
Q

What is the difference between Hodgkin Lymphoma and Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma?

A

Hodgkin Lymphoma
Occurs between 15-35 or age 55-60
Painless

Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma
Occurs at any age
May be slow moving, aggressive, or highly aggressive

73
Q

What is polycythemia?

A

An over abundance or over production of red blood cells

74
Q

What are the 2 stages of DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulopathy)?

A

Stage 1- thrombin and fibrin deposits in the blood increase and platelets begin to aggregate
Stage 2- uncontrolled hemorrhage results from severe reduction in clotting factors

75
Q

What is hemophilia?

A

A bleeding disorder in which clotting cannot occur due to a missing clotting factor
(type A, missing factor 8)
(type B, missing factor 9)

76
Q

How long will a patient with sickle cell anemia live?

A

Mortality rate peaks between 1-3 years old

77
Q

Who is primarily affected by sickle cell anemia?

A

Most common in African, Puerto Rican, and European populations but may occur in anyone

78
Q

What is multiple myeloma?

A

The number of plasma cells in the bone marrow increase abnormally leading to the formation of tumours in the bone
Most common in men over the age of 40

79
Q

What is an environmental emergency?

A

A medical condition caused or worsened by the weather, terrain, or unique atmosphere conditions.

80
Q

Which structure controls thermoregulation in the body?

A

The hypothalamus is the thermostat of the body, operates via negative feedback control:
Thermogenesis-heat production
Thermolysis- heat release

81
Q

What are the 4 ways that the body releases heat?

A

Radiation
Conduction
Convection
Evaporation

82
Q

What are heat cramps?

A

Muscle pain that occurs because of profuse sweating and sodium depletion

83
Q

What are the symptoms of heat exhaustion?

A

(Early) nausea, vomiting, headache, weight gain
(Worsened) confusion, agitation, disorientation
(Untreated) cerebral edema, pulmonary edema, respiratory distress, seizures

84
Q

What are the 2 findings that diagnosis heat stroke?

A

Core temp > 40°C
Altered LOC

85
Q

What is frostbite?

A

An ischemic injury classified as superficial or deep depending on whether tissue loss occurs

86
Q

What is chilblains?

A

Itchy red or purple lesions, usually on the face or extremities. Caused by long exposures to temperatures just above freezing

87
Q

Define Hypothermia?

A

A decrease in core body temperature below 35°C, owing to inadequate thermogenesis or excessive environmental cold stress.

88
Q

How may hypothermia cause cardiac disrhythmias?

A

When the cbt drops below 32.2°C atrial fib and Osborne waves may be seen
When the cbt drops below 28°C the heart is susceptible to ventricular fib

89
Q

What are the 3 classifications of hypothermia?

A

Mild 32-35°
Moderate 28-32°
Severe < 28°

90
Q

What is the definition of drowning?

A

The process of experiencing respiratory impairment from submersion in liquid

91
Q

What is Atmospheric Absolute? (ATA)

A

The weight of air at sea level
1 ATA - 14.7 lbs
Every 33 feet of seawater the pressure increases by 14.7 lbs or 1 ATA

92
Q

What is Boyle’s law?

A

At a constant temperature the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure.

93
Q

What is Dalton’s law?

A

Each gas in a mixture exerts the same partial pressure that it would exert if it were alone in the same volume. The total pressure of a mixture of gases is the sum of the partial pressures of all the gases in the mixture.

94
Q

What is Henry’s law?

A

The amount of gas dissolved in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the liquid.

95
Q

What is decompression sickness?

A

Symptoms caused by nitrogen bubbles in the blood and tissues coming out of solution during ascent. Does damage in 2 ways, mechanical interference with tissue perfusion and triggers chemical changes.

96
Q

At what height does altitude sickness occur?

A

Typically around 2500 ft, but can occur as low as 2000 ft

97
Q

What are the 3 types of altitude sickness?

A

Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS)
High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE)
High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE)

98
Q

What are the 5 ways a communicable disease may spread?

A

Airborne transmission
Droplet transmission
Contact transmission
Vehicle transmission
Vector-borne transmission

99
Q

What are the 4 types of pathogens?

A

Bacteria
Viruses
Fungi
Parasites

100
Q

What is Virulence?

A

The ability of an organism to invade and create disease in a host.

101
Q

What is host resistance?

A

The body’s ability to fight off infection.

102
Q

What is an incubation period?

A

The time from exposure to symptoms first appearing

103
Q

What is a communicable period?

A

The period during which a patient can transmit their illness to someone else.

104
Q

What is a carrier?

A

A person who is infected with a disease but does not present any signs or symptoms.

105
Q

What is the most common cause of blood borne infection in the health care setting?

A

Needlestick injury
(Report to a supervisor immediately)

106
Q

What are the 3 protective barriers for the emergency responder?

A
  1. Skin/ mucous membranes
  2. PPE
  3. Post exposure medical follow up
107
Q

What are some examples of airborne diseases?

A

Measles
Rubella
Mumps
Chickenpox/ Shingles
Pertussis (whooping cough)
Meningitis
Tuberculosis
Pneumonia

108
Q

What are the classic symptoms of meningitis?

A

Fever
Headache
Neck stiffness
Kernig sign (cannot extend leg at the knee)
Brudzinski sign (passive flexion of the leg on one side)

109
Q

What are the classic symptoms of TB?

A

Persistent cough for greater than 3 weeks
Night sweats
Headache
Fever
Fatigue
Weight loss
Hoarseness or chest pain

110
Q

What are some examples of sexually transmitted diseases?

A

Gonorrhea
Syphilis
Genital Herpes
Chlamydia
Scabies
Lice

111
Q

What are some examples of blood borne diseases?

A

Viral hepatitis
HIV (human immunodeficiency virus)
AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome)

112
Q

What are some examples of Vector-borne diseases?

A

West Nile virus
Lyme disease
Hantavirus
Rabies
Tetanus

113
Q

What are the 4 categories of abnormal behaviour causes?

A

Biological/ organic causes
Environmental causes
Acute injury or illness causes
Substance related causes

114
Q

What is Boyle’s law?

A

At a constant temperature, the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to it’s pressure

115
Q

What is Dalton’s law?

A

Each gas in a mixture exerts the same partial pressure that it would exert if it were alone in the same volume and the total pressure of a mixed gas is the sum of all the partial pressures.

116
Q

What is Henry’s law?

A

The amount of gas dissolved in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the liquid.

117
Q

What is decompression sickness?

A

Nitrogen bubbles accumulate in the blood and tissues during ascent. Cause damage by interfering mechanically with tissue perfusion and triggers chemical changes within the body.

118
Q

At what height might you start experiencing altitude sickness?

A

Typically around 2500 ft, can occur as low as 2000 ft

119
Q

What are the 3 types of altitude sickness?

A

Acute mountain sickness (AMS)
High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE)
High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE)

120
Q

What are the 5 ways that communicable diseases may be transmitted?

A

Airborne Transmission
Droplet Transmission
Contact Transmission
Vehicle Transmission
Vector-borne Transmission

121
Q

What are the 4 types of pathogens?

A

Bacteria- grow and reproduce outside the cell
Viruses- smaller than bacteria, grow rapidly
Fungi- similar to bacteria
Parasites- live in or on another living creature and feeds off its host

122
Q

What is virulence?

A

The ability of an organism to invade and create disease in a host, also encompasses its ability to survive outside the host.

123
Q

What is host resistance?

A

The ability of the body to fight off infection.

124
Q

How do delerium and dementia differ?

A

Delirium- Rapid onset impairment of consciousness and cognitive function, usually caused by a medical condition
Dementia- Chronic onset of deficits in memory, abstract thinking, and judgement

125
Q

What is stereotyped activity?

A

Repetition of movements that do not seem to serve any useful purpose.

126
Q

What are compulsions?

A

Repetitive actions carried out to relieve the anxiety of obsessive thoughts

127
Q

Define these 3 terms?
Neologism
Echolalia
Mutism

A

Neologisms- words that the patient invents
Echolalia- the patient echos the words of the examiner
Mutism- the patient does not speak at all

128
Q

Explain thought broadcasting and thought control

A

Broadcasting- the patient believes that others can hear their thoughts
Control- the patient believes that outside forces are controlling their thoughts

129
Q

What is thought perseveration?

A

Repetition of the same idea over and over again.

130
Q

What’s the difference between mood and affect?

A

Mood- a persons sustained and pervasive emotional state
Affect- the outward expression of a persons mood

131
Q

What are the 4 parts of memory?

A

Registration- the ability to add new things
Retention- the ability to store information in an accessible place
Recall- the ability to retrieve stored information on demand
Recognition- the ability to identify things that have happened before

132
Q

What is agoraphobia?

A

The fear of public places

133
Q

What are the diagnostic features of depression remembered by the mnemonic GAS PIPES

A

Guilt
Appetite
Sleep disturbance
Paying attention
Interest
Psychomotor abnormalities
Energy
Suicide

134
Q

What are the 4 levels of substance disorder?

A

Substance use- moderate consumption
Substance intoxication- use that impairs thinking and motor function
Substance abuse- when use disrupts daily living
Substance dependence- an addiction to a substance

135
Q

What are the most common causes of psychosis?

A

Mental illness or drug abuse
Other causes include, intense stress, delusional disorders and schizophrenia

136
Q

What are positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Positive symptoms include delusions or hallucinations
Negative symptoms include apathy, mutism, flat affect, and lack of interest in pleasure
Disorganized symptoms include erratic speech, emotional responses, and motor behaviour

137
Q

What steps should you take when there is a potential for violence in any situation?

A

Call for backup
Assess the situation
Observe your surroundings
Maintain a safe distance
Try verbal interventions first

138
Q

Why should you never hogtie or place a patient face down on a stretcher?

A

Can be dangerous and lead to asphyxia or aspiration, or death

139
Q

What is required to restrain a patient?

A

Overwhelming force, which means a minimum of 5 trained and able bodied people.

140
Q

What are the symptoms of a lithium overdose?

A

Nausea
Vomiting
Tremors
Excessive thirst
Slurred speech
Muscle weakness
Blurred vision
Seizures (eventually)