Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

[2b] A- step 2 CK > Med-DM/Endocrine > Flashcards

Med-DM/Endocrine Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 ways to Diagnose DM

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Goal HbA1C and BP for DM pts

A

< 7% ; <140/90(also BP goal for CKD pts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When is Metformin contraindicated?

A

Creatinine > 1.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Sulfonylurea MOD ; List examples-3

A

Stimulates pancreas to release endogenous insulin

  1. Glimepiride
  2. Glyburide
  3. Glipizide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Meglitinide MOD ; List examples-2

A

Stimulates pancreas to release endogenous insulin

  1. Nateglinide
  2. Repaglinide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

[Alpha glucosidase inhibitor] MOD ; List examples-2

A

inhibits a-glucosidease –> inhibits carb digestion;

  1. Acarbose
  2. Miglitol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

[DPP-4 inhibitors] MOD ; List examples-2

A

Inactivates [DPP-4 GLP1 peptidase] –> ⬆︎GLP1–> ⬆︎Glucose-induced insulin release

  1. SitaGliptin
  2. SaxaGliptin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the GLP1 homologs?-2 ; What do they do?

A

⬆︎Glucose-induced insulin release

  1. ExenaTIDE
  2. LiragluTIDE

These require Injections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Microalbuminuria is an indicator of __(3)___.

What lab value is used and what are the values for normal, micro and macro?

A
  1. DM
  2. HTN
  3. PSGN

Urine [Albumin Creatinine Ratio];

30-300

normal = < 30

micro = 30-300

MACRO = 300+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How often should eye exams be done for DM pts

A

yearly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

for IDDM, how much daily insulin should be prescribed?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

[Nonketotic Hyperosmolar Coma] is a complication of DM

What Blood Glucose precipitates this?

A

Blood Glucose > 600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What things cause HYPERKalemia? -6

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Classic Presentation for DM -4

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the opthalmological complications of DM-3; what causes them?

A
  1. Retinopathy (from ⬆︎VEGF –> abnormal angiogenesis)
  2. Glaucoma (⬆︎ Sorbitol eye pressure)
  3. Cataracts (Glycation of Ocular lens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A: Clinical Manifestations of DiGeorge Syndrome (5)

B: Genetic Cause

C: Embryologic cause

A

“CATCh 22 & Pa3”

Cardiac (Tetralogy of Fallot + Aortic Arch abnormalitites)

Abnormal face (Bifid Uvula/low set ears)

Thymus Aplasia (Thymic shadow in image) –> Virus/Fungal infection

Cleft Palate

[hypOcalcemia from PTH deficiency] may–> Carpopedal Spasms

22q.11.2 deletion

Pharyngeal arch - 3rd/4th both fail to develop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does hypOthyroidism affect Neuro system - 4

A
  1. it causes ⬇︎ in DTR
  2. ⬇︎ motor relaxation phase
  3. Mood ∆
  4. Dementia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Obesity w/Hyperphagia + Retardation should raise suspicions for what disorder?

A

Prader Willi Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Common s/s of HYPERthyroidism -9

A

TT Feels ARCHED

  1. [Tremor & Tachycardia]
  2. Fatigue
  3. Appetite ⬆︎ but Wt ⬇︎
  4. Reflexes ⬆︎
  5. Cardio (Tachycardia, Palpitations,Exertional SOB)
  6. Heat intolerance –> SWEATING
  7. Exopthalmous with lid lag
  8. Diarrhea w/ possible dyspepsia

Older pts may only have Fatigue and Cardio sx!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

S/S of hypothyroidism is mostly opposite of Hyperthyroidism

What are 6 distincitve s/s of hypothyroidism?

A

Mosty opposite of TT Feels ARCHED but may also have…

  1. Cardio: Diastolic HF
  2. Depression
  3. Menorrhagia
  4. Pedal Edema
  5. HTN
  6. BOTH HAVE FATIGUE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What type of radioiodine uptake do you see in Silent Painless thyroiditis?

this is a variant of Hashimoto chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What happens to thyroid hormone serum level when drugs displace thyroid hormone? ; Which drugs do this?-3

A

Thyroid production will ⬇︎ –> ⬇︎TOTAL thyroid levels with normal free hormone levels ;

  1. ASA
  2. Furosemide
  3. Heparin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Precocious puberty occurs in girls < __ years old and boys < ___ years old

How do you work this up?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Precocious puberty occurs in girls < __ years old and boys < ___ years old

A pt has just been diagnosed with Gonadotropin Dependent Central Precocious Puberty

What are the major causes of this?-2

A

IDIOPATHIC > Pituitary tumor

ALL PTS WITH THIS SHOULD UNDERGO CONTRAST BRAIN MRI REGARDLESS OF +/- HA/VISION SX. Precocious Puberty may be the first sign before the tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Danazol MOA ; Indication

A

testosterone derivative with progestin effects ; endometriosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Teenage boy comes in with gynecomastia

How do you work this up?

A

YOU DONT! - Pubertal gynecomastia is seen in up to 66% of teenage boys mid-late puberty. It can be uL, BL and/or painful

Tx = self-limited to ≤2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How long does it take radioiodine therapy to treat Hyperthyroidism? ; How does radioiodine therapy actually worsen Graves ophthalmopathy?

A

1-4 mo ; radioiodine eventually –> hypothyroidism –>⬆︎ thyroid stimulating autoantibodies –> orbital tissue expansion from orbital fibroblast stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Tight blood glucose control in DM pts mostly ⬇︎ their risk for what?

A

microvascular complications (retinopathy, neprhopathy)

we dont know if it has an effect on MACROvascular disease such as MI or stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

You suspect a pt has Cushing Syndrome

How do you work this up?-2

A

1st: Determine if pt has ⬆︎Cortisol (Overnight low-dose dexamethasone test, late night salivary cortisol assay, 24 hr urine free cortisol)
2nd: If ⬆︎ Cortisol, determine if its from Cushing or adrenal adenoma (ACTH serum level)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Name the characteristics of Cushing Syndrome - 7

A

Fat Heavy People May HOG the Cushing

  1. Fat distribution problems (central obesity, Moon face)
  2. Hyperpigmentation (from ACTH excess - can occur during excess or insuffiency)
  3. Purple striae with skin atrophy and bruisability
  4. Muscle atrophy
  5. HTN
  6. Osteoporosis
  7. Glucose intolerance

Dx = 1st-low dose Dexamethasone suppression test

Cushing SYNDROME is caused by HIGH levels of Cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Riedel thyroiditis MOD

A

progressive fibrosis of thyroid gland and surrounding tissue (that looks like CA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

cp for HyperParathyroidism - 4

A

Painful Bones (to include Pseudogout), Renal Stones, Abdominal Moans (includes constipation), Psychic Moans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

MEN-Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia 1 cp - 3

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

MEN-Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia 2A cp - 3

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

MEN-Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia 2B cp - 4

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In Hashimoto chronic lymphocytic Thyroiditis, which antibodies are responsible for the attack on the thyroid gland?

A

AntiThyroidPerOxidase

AntiTPO is also a/w miscarriage!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Acromegaly cp - 12

A

heart = concentric LVH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Acromegaly Dx

A

GH stimulates IGF1 secretion most of the day –> acromegaly sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

cp of hypopituitarism - 5

A

FLAT PiG

  1. FSH/LH ⬇︎ –> Amenorrhea, testicular atrophy
  2. ACTH ⬇︎ –> ⬇︎Cortisol BUT NOT ALDOSTERONE –> hypotension from ⬇︎arterial resistance
  3. TSH⬇︎ –> Fatigue/hypOthyroidism
  4. Prolactin⬇︎ –> LACTATION FAILURE (1ST SIGN OF SHEEHAN!)
  5. GH⬇︎ –> Anorexia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are all the functions of Cortisol - 6

A

BIG FIB

  1. ⬆︎Blood pressure (⬆︎a1 receptors)
  2. ⬆︎Insulin resistance –> DM
  3. ⬆︎Gluconeogenesis
  4. ⬇︎Fibroblast –> striae
  5. ⬇︎Immune system (WHITE)
  6. ⬇︎Bone formation by ⬇︎osteoBlast
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How does immobilization affect Ca+ levels

A

INCREASES

Immobilization –> ⬆︎osteoclast activity –> ⬆︎serum Ca+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Acute Rhabdomyolysis causes Ca+ to ____[increase/decrease] because of what?

A

DECREASE ; release of Ca+ and Phosphorous in damaged muscles –> CaPhosphate precipitation –> drops free serum Ca+

HYPERcalcemia and HYPERphosphatemia can occur during the remobilization phase during recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How does albumin levels affect ionized Ca+ levels?

A

IT DOESNT! - albumin only affects TOTAL ca+ levels and will NOT cause calcium-related symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

etx of PCOS ; What are the primary effects of this etx?-5

A

DM/Obesity–>Hyperinsulinemia which –> ⬆︎⬆︎⬆︎LH secretion –> ⬆︎ovarian theca Androgen secretion –>

  1. Androgen characteristics (acne, balding, hirsutism)
  2. menstrual irregularities from Anovulation
  3. PCOS on US from Follicular atresia
  4. Infertility from Anovulation
  5. ⬆︎Estrogen (from Androgen conversion) –> Endometrial ADC

Tx = Wt loss–> OCP –> [Clomiphene for infertility] and [Combined OCP for irregular menses]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Tx for PCOS - 3

A

DM/Obesity–>Hyperinsulinemia which –> ⬆︎⬆︎⬆︎LH secretion –> ⬆︎ovarian theca Androgen secretion –>

Tx = Wt loss–> OCP –> Clomiphene for infertility and [Combined OCPs for irregular menses]

SOCK:Spironolactone,OCP (1st line after wt loss),Clomiphene for infertility,Ketoconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What level of prolactin indicates a Prolactinoma

A

>200

Prolactin inhibits LH release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which CA is known for producing calcitonin?

A

Medullary Thyroid Cancer

also produces ACTH and VIP

associated with MEN2A and 2B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Why should pts with Medullary Thyroid Cancer have a fractionated metanephrine assay ordered?

A

Screen them for Pheochromocytoma

MTC and Pheochromocytoma are associated with MEN2A and 2B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How do you treat Papillary Thyroid Carcinoma - 3

A

Surgical Resection –> +/- radioiodine ablation and suppressive doses of thyroid hormone (in pts with risk of recurrence)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When is a thyroid Radionuclide scan indicated?

A

pts with low TSH

evaluates for HOT nodules (which are usually benign)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When is a thyroid Fine needle aspirations indicated? - 3

A

pts with HIGH TSH who have:

  1. cold nodules
  2. thyroid CA fam hx
  3. suspicious thyroid US findings
52
Q

How is Mg associated with Ca+ levels

A

low Mg+ (especially in alcoholics) –> ⬇︎PTH hormone release and PTH resistance —> ⬇︎serum Ca+ AND low serum K+

serum Phosphorous levels are NOT affected by this phenomena!

53
Q

What are the distinguishing features of Pancreatic VIPoma - 5

A
  1. Tea colored watery secretory diarrhea
  2. hypOkalemia
  3. hypOchlorhydria (from ⬇︎gastric acid)
  4. HYPERcalcemia from ⬆︎bone resorption
  5. Facial flushing

tx = octreotide for diarrhea

54
Q

Osteomalacia etx

A

defective mineralization of bone matrix (usually from Vitamin D deficiency)

VitD deficiency –> ⬇︎GI Ca+ and Phosphate absorption –> secondary hyperparathyroidism –> ⬆︎ALP

mineralization = osteoclast create cavity that osteoBlast fill with osteoid. Ca+ and P then deposit in osteoid matrix to provide mineralization

55
Q

Most common causes of Osteomalacia - 5

A

usually Vitamin D deficiency from …

  1. Malabsorption
  2. RYBG
  3. Celiac sprue
  4. Chronic liver disease
  5. Chronic Kidney disease
56
Q

Pts with untreated Hyperthyroidism are at risk of developing what conditions? - 2

A
  1. Bone loss from ⬆︎osteoclast activity
  2. cardiac tachyarrhythmias

Hyperthyroidism = Graves > toxic adenoma > multinodular goiter

57
Q

Subacute DeQuervain Thyroiditis presents with a PAINFUL HYPERthryoid (release preformed thyroid hormone)—>hypOthyroid all after having a ______ ; Tx?-2

A

URI

  1. BBlockers
  2. NSAIDs

You may see ⬆︎inflammatory markers in this condition

58
Q

What is the most common side effect of AntiThyroid drugs (i.e. Methimazole, PTU)

A

agranulocytosis

  • Pt on AntiThyroid drugs who develop sore throat with fever should have WBC checked!*
  • Radioactive Iodine tx can –> worsening ophthalmopathy*
59
Q

In HYPERthyroidism, what is the mechanism for why pts have HTN?

A

⬆︎Myocontractility and HR

60
Q

Diabetic Gastroparesis cp-3 ; Tx-2?

A
  1. early satiety
  2. NV
  3. postprandial fullness

Tx = Metoclopramide or Erythromycin

61
Q

A pt comes in with hypOcalcemia < 8.4

Describe your full work up

A
62
Q

Why are pts who receive > 1 unit of pRBC/blood transfusion at risk for hypOcalcemia?

A

pRBC and whole blood CONTAIN CITRATE and citrate chelates Ca+ AND Mg –> paresthesias, Chvostek, Trousseau, Hyperreflexia

Leukoreduction ⬇︎risk of Febrile Nonhemolytic Reaction in trasfusion patients

63
Q

What is the most beneficial therapy to ⬇︎ the progression of DM nephropathy?

A

BP control < 130/80

do not push HbA1C < 7%

64
Q

Clomiphene Citrate MOA ; Indication

A

hypothalamic estrogen R blocker ; PCOS Infertility

65
Q

Leuprolide ; Indication

A

GnRH agonist ; endometriosis

66
Q

what type of abd pain does DKA pts have

A

DIFFUSE

67
Q

How does DKA and HHONK affect total body K+ levels?

A

⬇︎total body K+ (REGARDLESS OF WHAT SERUM VALUE SAYS)

DKA & HHONK causes severe osmotic diuresis –> ⬇︎total body K+ stores even though serum K+ level may be elevated

68
Q

autoimmune adrenalitis is known as _____ disease

etx?

A

Addison’s disease

Autoimmune Primary Adrenal Insufficiency (suspect this in pts with other Autoimmune diseases - pernicious anemia, vitiligo, hypothyroid!)

Sx = HYPERKalelmia, hypOnatremia, wt loss, fatigue

69
Q

A Pt with Hyperthyroid pt develops Sore throat and Fever after being started on Methimazole

What should you assess for?

A

agranulocytosis

D/C the drug!

  • Pt on AntiThyroid drugs who develop sore throat with fever should have WBC checked!*
  • Radioactive Iodine tx can –> worsening ophthalmopathy*
70
Q

What are the main causes of Primary Adrenal Insufficiency? (Addison disease) - 4

A
  1. TB
  2. Autoimmune adrenalitis
  3. CA
  4. Adrenal Hemorrhage
71
Q

Dx for Addison’s Primary Adrenal Insufficiency - 2

A

[8 AM serum cortisol and plasma ACTH] –> ACTH stimualtion test for confirmation

72
Q

A woman starts to rapidly develop facial and body hair

What test do you order first to determine etiology? - 2

A

DHEA and Testosterone

Hyperandrogenism suggest androgen secreting CA of ovary or adrenal glands so these test will help to determine that

73
Q

Potassium Iodide Indication - 2

A
  1. PreOp tx for Thyroidectomy in Graves
  2. Thyroid Storm
74
Q

In the context of thyroid disease, what is the indication for CTS - 3

A
  1. Thyroid Storm
  2. Type 2 amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis
  3. SEVERE DeQuervain Subactue Thyroiditis
75
Q

What are the two definitive treatments for thyroid disease

A
  1. Radioactive Iodine
  2. Thyroidectomy
76
Q

Main sx for Addison’s Primary Adrenal Insufficiency - 5

A
  1. HYPERKalemia
  2. hypOnatremia
  3. Wt loss
  4. fatigue
  5. GI sx
77
Q

Describe Euthyroid Sick Syndrome

A

Euthyroid Sick (low T3) Syndrome

syndrome characterized by ISOLATED low T3 that can occur anytime the body is “sick”

78
Q

When would you say a pt has subclinical hypothyroidism

A

elevated TSH but normal T4 and T3

T3 remains normal until late stages of hypothyroidism

79
Q

What are the two most common thyroid CA

A

Papillary > Follicular

80
Q

Which microscopic finding is associated with Papillary Thyroid CA?

A

Psammoma bodies (large lamellated calcifications with ground glass cytoplasm)

81
Q

Why can’t Follicular Thyroid CA be evaluated with fine needle biopsy?

A

FTC involves invasion of the tumor capsule and/or blood vessels which can only be examined via surgical excision

This is also the reason FTC has the tendency to hematogenously spread

82
Q

How does respiratory rate affect Calcium levels?

A

Tachypnea causes ⬇︎CO2 acid –> H+ ions dissociate from albumin so they can help maintain pH –> ⬆︎free albumin which bind to free ionized Ca+ –> overall ⬇︎ in ionized unbound calcium

83
Q

When is screening for DM (fasting bg or oral glucose tolerance test) recommended?

A

>45 yo with BP>135/80

and those with additional DM risk factors

84
Q

cp for Glucagonoma - 3

A
  1. Necrotic Migratory Erythema (perioral, extremities, perineum)
  2. Anemia
  3. Diarrhea
85
Q

dx for Glucagonoma

A

Glucagon >500

Look for Necrotic Migratory Erythema!

86
Q

Tx for Prolactinoma >1cm or Symptomatic - 3

A
  1. Cabergoline dopamine agonist OR
  2. Bromocriptine dopamine agonist
  3. Transsphenoidal resection if refractory
87
Q

Tx for Prolactinoma >3cm

A

Transsphenoidal resection

88
Q

How does Hyperthyroidism affect muscle function?

A

HYPERthyroidism AND hypOthyroidism can both cause myopathy characterized as proximal muscle weakness

89
Q

Graves Ophthalmopathy etx ; risk factors?-2

A

Activated T cells and Thyrotropin Autoantibodies both stimulate retroorbital fibroblast –> orbital tissue expansion

Smoking, Female

90
Q

In DM, explain how the disease destroys nerves ; compare cp for large nerve fiber vs small nerve fiber damage

A

deposition of glycosylation products, oxidative stress and microvascular injury all –> small AND Large nerve damage length dependent axonopathy

small nerves –> positive sx = pain, pareshtesias

LARGE nerves –> negative sx = loss of 2TVP, ⬇︎ankle reflexes

91
Q

What is the most common cause of primary hypogonadism in males? ; cp for this?-5

A

Klinefelter XXY

  1. hypogonads (small testes)
  2. gynecomastia
  3. small phallus
  4. hypospadia
  5. Cryptochidism
92
Q

The most common enzyme deficiency for Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia is ______

cp?-3

A

21 hydroxylase

  1. Virilization (acne, premature adrenarche/pubarche)
  2. Loss of Aldosterone
  3. Loss of Cortisol
93
Q

Why do pregnant patients or patients started on OCPs require increased doses of levothyroxine if they’re taking it

A

Estrogen –> ⬇︎clearance of Thyroid Binding Globulin –> additional TBG binds up all the free T4 –> ⬇︎free T4

94
Q

What would you expect Radioactive iodine uptake to be in DeQuervain Subactue Thyroiditis

A

Decreased

The hyperthyroid phase (which eventually becomes hypothyroid) is caused by release of preformed thyroid hormone

95
Q

Thyroid Toxic Adenoma hyperthyroidism MOD

A

autonomous production of thyroid hormones from hyperplastic thyroid follicular cells

if multiple uptake present, consider multinodular goiter

96
Q

How does looking at Thyroglobulin levels help determine etiology of thyroid disease?

A

Thyroglobulin is the base needed to make thyroid hormone. If thyroid hormone is elevated…and so is thyroglobulin then that means Thyroid is producing a lot of thyroid hormone

If Thyroglobulin is low, then that means thyroid hormone is exogenousouly given

97
Q

What is Conn’s syndrome

A

Primary Hyperaldosteronism

98
Q

List the ophthalmoscopy findings for simple Diabetic Retinopathy - 3 ; What procedure prevents this?

A
  1. microhemorrhages
  2. retinal edema
  3. exudates

Argon laser photocoagulation

99
Q

What are the precipitants of Pheochromocytoma?-3 ; which medication should be given prior to these precipitants?

A
  1. Anesthesia
  2. Surgery
  3. General Beta Blcokers (allows unopposed alpha stimulation)

Phenoxybenzamine (irreversible general alpha blocker)

100
Q

PTHrelatedProtein is associated with Cancer (Humoral Hypercalcemia of Malignancy)

What is the major mechanism difference between PTHrP and PTH

A

true PTH ⬆︎ conversion of 25VitaminD to 1-25VitaminD

PTHrP comes from SQC, renal, bladder, breast, ovarian CA

101
Q

What are the triggers of Thyrotoxicosis - 5

A
  1. iodine contrast
  2. infection
  3. childbirth
  4. surgery
  5. trauma
102
Q

What is Milk Alkali Syndrome

A

HYPERcalcemia from excessive intake of PO Ca+ supplement and absorbable alkali usually in pts taking Ca+ supplement for osteoporosis

103
Q

Refeeding Syndrome etx

A

surge of insulin after severe starvation –>

VERY LOW MPK

  1. Mg
  2. Phosphorous
  3. K+
104
Q

What is the best way to monitor a pt being treated for DKA - 2

A
  1. Serum Anion Gap
  2. Beta Hydroxybutyrate levels
105
Q

Primary Hyperparathyroidism and Familial hypocalciuric Hypercalcemia both present with serum Ca+ that is _____ (low/high)

How do you differentiate the two?

A

HIGH

FHH = urine calcium:creatinine ratio < 0.01

Primary Hyperparathyroidism = ucc>0.02

106
Q

Sialadenosis etx

A

NONinflammatory swelling of the salivary glands caused by liver disease or malnutrition (DM, bulimia)

107
Q

In DKA and HONK management, when do you hold the insulin?

A

K<3.3

Remember that ALL DKA and HHONK pts are Total Body K+ depleted due to osmotic diuresis regardless of what serum values say

108
Q

In DKA and HONK management, when do you add dextrose 5% to the IVF replenishment?

A

glucose≤200

109
Q

In DKA and HONK management, when do you consider using Sodium Bicarbonate?

A

pH<6.9

110
Q

Demeclocycline MOA ; Indication?

A

inhibits ADH-mediated renal cortical collecting duct aquaporin insertion; SIADH

111
Q

Tolvaptan MOA ; Indication?-2

A

V2 vasopressin R blocker ;

  1. SIGNIFICANT Hypervolemia secondary to HF
  2. refractory SIADH
112
Q

In pts with Diabetes Insipidus, how do you differentiate between Central and Nephrogenic causes?

A

Water Deprivation Test

give Demopressin AVP after water deprivation and if urine becomes more concentrated = Central DI. If no change = nephrogenic DI. This is ALSO helpful for r/o Primary Polydipsia

113
Q

cp for Primary Hyperparathyroidism

A

Asymptomatic Hypercalcemia

Hypercalcemia sx: Painful Bones, Renal Stones, Abd Groans and Psychic Moans

114
Q

Struma Ovarii etx

A

RARE - ovarian teratoma produces thyroid hormone –> Hyperthyroid state

115
Q

cp for Thyroid Storm - 3

A

Hot, Head and Heart

  1. Hot = Fever
  2. Head = CNS dysfunction with tremor
  3. Heart = Tachycardia, palpitations, HTN, HF

tx = Propranolol –> PTU —(1 hr later)–> Potassium Iodine and CTS

116
Q

tx for Thyroid Storm - 4

Thyroid storm can be triggered by iodine contrast, surgery, trauma, infection

A

Hot, Head and Heart

Propranolol –> PTU —(1 hr later)–> Potassium Iodine and CTS

117
Q

A DM pt is not well managed on single therapy Metformin

Out of the other DM drug classes, which is most effective for inducing weight loss?

A

GLP1 agonist (exenaitde, liraglutide)

118
Q

A DM pt is not well managed on single therapy Metformin

When is it appropriate to consider adding insulin?

A

HBA1c>8.5%

119
Q

A DM pt is not well managed on single therapy Metformin

Out of the other DM drug classes, which have the potential to actually cause weight gain?-3

A
  1. Insulin
  2. Sulfonylurea
  3. Meglitinides
120
Q

cp for McCune Albright syndrome-3 ; etx?

A
  1. Precocious puberty
  2. Pigmented cafe au lait spots
  3. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia –> bone defects

etx = autonomous activity of endocrine tissue from defect in cAMP kinase

121
Q

etx for Prader Willi Syndrome ; cp?-4

A

PATERNAL deletion of chromo15q11 thru 13 ;

  1. HyperPhagia –> Phat (Obesity), Gastric rupture, DM2
  2. hypOtonia
  3. short stature
  4. Mentally retarded
122
Q

etx for Angelman Syndrome ; cp?-4

A

maternal deletion of chromo15q11 thru 13 ;

  1. Frequent sMiling/Laughter (Moms make you smile)
  2. Hand Flapping
  3. short stature
  4. mentally retarded
123
Q

The most common enzyme deficiency for Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia is ______

Which lab value is diagnostic for this deficiency?

A

21 hydroxylase

⬆︎17 HydroxyPROGESTERONE

124
Q

What should you suspect in a pt with Hashimoto chronic lymphocytic Thyroiditis who develops B-symptoms?

A

Conversion of Hashimoto to Thyroid Lymphoma

125
Q

How is the Thyroid related to Bone homeostasis?

A

Thyroid hormone ⬆︎osteoclast activity –> bone loss

[2b] A- step 2 CK (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions