MCQ S1 2016

Question 1

1. Polydactyly and achondroplasia are both
   a. autosomal recessive
   b. sex-linked
   c. congenital defects
   d. autosomal dominant traits

Answer 1

D

Question 2

2. The combination of alleles that manifest themselves only when the person is homozygous for the trait are
   a. recessive
   b. dominant
   c. co- dominant
   d. heterozygous

Answer 2

A

Question 3

3. Sex-linked diseases affect more men than women because men have
   a. two X chromosomes
   b. two Y chromosomes
   c. one X chromosome
   d. no Y chromosomes

Answer 3

C

Question 4

4. If both parents are carriers of an autosomal recessive condition, the chances of their children getting the disease is
   a. 0%
   b. 25%
   c. 50%
   d. 100%

Answer 4

B

Question 5

5. Inherited mutations, including familial adenomatous polyposis and hereditary nonpolyposis, are non-modifiable risk factors for cancer.
   a. lung
   b. liver
   c. stomach
   d. colorectal

Answer 5

D

Question 6

6. Molecular and epidemiological studies have linked the Human papilloma virus to cancer.
   a. breast
   b. cervical
   c. uterine
   d. ovarian

Answer 6

B

Question 7

7. The most important risk factor in the development of prostate cancer is
   a. a diet high in saturated fat
   b. age (greater than 65 years)
   c. hormones
   d. hypertrophy of the prostate

Answer 7

B

Question 8

8. Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
   a. the incidence of Down syndrome increases with maternal age.
   b. Fragile X syndrome is found more in males than in females.
   c. a patient with Turner’s syndrome has an extra sex chromosome.
   d. if one parent is heterozygous for an autosomal dominant trait and one parent is normal, a child has a 50% chance of getting the disease.

Answer 8

C

Question 9

9. The type of meningitis that causes the patient’s CSF to have an increased white cell count, decreased glucose and increased protein levels is
   a. bacterial
   b. fungal
   c. viral
   d. brain abscess

Answer 9

C

Question 10

10. Bordetella pertussis, the causative agent of whooping cough is
    a. a gram positive rod
    b. not contagious and easy to contain
    c. capable of producing toxins that cause airway inflammation
    d. only capable of causing disease in babies

Answer 10

C

Question 11

11. Noroviruses cause
    a. acute airway disease
    b. meningitis
    c. skin infections
    d. gastroenteritis

Answer 11

D

Question 12

12. Perinatal infections
    a. are only acquired at birth
    b. only affect the mother and not the baby
    c. only affect the placenta
    d. cross the placenta and may cause premature delivery

Answer 12

A

Question 13

13. Infection with Chlamydia trachomatis and/or Neisseria gonorrhoea can cause
    a. urethritis
    b. cervicitis
    c. pelvic inflammatory disease
    d. all of the above

Answer 13

D

Question 14

14. Pyelonephritis is
    a. a serious infection of the upper urinary tract
    b. an infection of the urethra and bladder
    c. treated empirically with nitrofurantoin or trimethroprim
    d. a viral infection treated with bed rest and paracetamol

Answer 14

A

Question 15

15. Infectious causes of cancer include
    a. N. meningitidis
    b. Human papillomavirus
    c. S. aureus
    d. none of the above

Answer 15

B

Question 16

16. Autoimmune diseases may be caused by
    a. molecular mimicry
    b. release of sequestered antigens
    c. epitope spreading
    d. all of the above

Answer 16

D

Question 17

17. In Bruton’s gammaglobulinaemia, the most accurate statement is
    a. there are decreased levels of IgG but normal IgM and IgA levels
    b. viral infections are more common than pyogenic bacterial infections
    c. B cell levels are normal
    d. there is a mutation in the gene for tyrosine kinase

Answer 17

D

Question 18

18. Highly Active Antiretroviral Treatment for HIV infection should be started whenever
    a. there is a history of an AIDS defining illness
    b. the CD4 count drops below 500
    c. HIV viral load is greater than 5000 copies/mL
    d. any of the above

Answer 18

A or B

Question 19

19. Heart Failure with Preserved Ejection Fraction (HFpEF), or diastolic heart failure, is typified by
    a. hyperactivity
    b. heart muscle that does not contract effectively
    c. left ventricular ejection fraction less than 30%
    d. heart muscle that contracts normally, but the ventricles do not relax during filling

Answer 19

D

Question 20

20. Post-renal causes of renal failure are mostly due to
    a. low blood flow in the renal arteries
    b. obstructions
    c. drinking too much water
    d. severe burns

Answer 20

B

Question 21

21. Acyanotic cardiac abnormalities occur when
    a. oxygenation of the systemic circulation is relatively normal
    b. a baby has copper poisoning
    c. cyanide binds to haemoglobin in red blood cells
    d. the major blood vessels entering and leaving the heart are transposed

Answer 21

A

Question 22

22. A prominent risk factor for human coronary heart disease is
    a. an elevated ratio of LDL cholesterol : total cholesterol in the bloodstream
    b. slightly low blood pressure
    c. drinking three cups of tea per day
    d. an elevated ratio of HDL cholesterol : total cholesterol in the bloodstream

Answer 22

A

Question 23

23. Septic shock is usually caused by
    a. noxious fumes from a septic tank
    b. drinking contaminated water
    c. septicaemia causing extreme vasodilation
    d. infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever)

Answer 23

C

Question 24

24. Adrenaline which is released in situations of acute stress
    a. is produced by the adrenal cortex
    b. causes bronchoconstriction
    c. decreases intestinal activity
    d. release is stimulated by adrenocorticotrophic hormone

Answer 24

C

Question 25

25. Glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is the tool of choice to diagnose diabetes and monitor blood glucose because
    a. there is no need to fast
    b. it reflects a person’s average level of glycaemia over the previous 6-8 weeks
    c. compared to a blood glucose measure it is less affected by biological variability
    d. all of the above are correct

Answer 25

D

Question 26

26. Two actions of insulin in the body are to
    a. promote glycogenesis and inhibit gluconeogenesis
    b. promote glycogenesis and promote lipolysis
    c. inhibit lipogenesis and promote protein synthesis
    d. inhibit protein synthesis and inhibit glycogenolysis

Answer 26

A

Question 27

27. The sign/symptom NOT observed for Cushing’s syndrome is
    a. muscle wasting
    b. hyposecretion of cortisol
    c. mood disturbances
    d. skin atrophy

Answer 27

B

Question 28

28. Two modifiable risk factors for metabolic syndrome are
    a. being over 40 years of age and having a high body mass index
    b. having a waist circumference less than 102 cm (for a man) and a high fasting blood glucose level
    c. having a triglyceride level > 1.7 mmol/L and stress
    d. being male and being hypertensive

Answer 28

C

Question 29

31. The region of the brain responsible for perception and localisation of pain is the
    a. somatosensory cortex
    b. basal ganglia
    c. amygdala
    d. hypothalamus

Answer 29

A

Question 30

32. Because the amyloid precursor protein is encoded on Chromosome 21, individuals with Down syndrome have increased risk of
    a. Parkinson’s disease
    b. Alzheimer’s disease
    c. Multiple sclerosis
    d. Huntington’s disease

Answer 30

B

Question 31

33. The risk of spina bifida increases when there is prenatal deficiency of
    a. iron
    b. folic acid
    c. calcium
    d. iodine

Answer 31

B

Question 32

34. Bruising of the brain in traumatic brain injury is called
    a. concussion
    b. coning
    c. aneurysm
    d. contusion

Answer 32

D

Question 33

35. Modifiable risk factors for stroke include
    a. sedentary behaviour
    b. genetic predisposition
    c. age
    d. all of the above

Answer 33

A

Question 34

36. Signs of spinal shock include all of the following EXCEPT
    a. flaccid paralysis below the level of injury
    b. loss of sympathetic vasomotor tone
    c. flaccid paralysis above the level of injury
    d. loss of bladder and bowel function

Answer 34

C

Question 35

37. The inhibitory neurotransmitter found in low levels in epilepsy is
    a. glutamate
    b. noradrenaline
    c. acetylcholine
    d. gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

Answer 35

D

Question 36

38. Pharmacological treatment for Alzheimer’s disease is typically aimed at increasing brain levels of the neurotransmitter
    a. glutamate
    b. dopamine
    c. acetylcholine
    d. gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

Answer 36

C

Question 37

39. Sciatica may result from a disc herniation impinging on the
    a. cervical nerve roots
    b. intercostal nerve roots
    c. lumbar nerve roots
    d. thoracic nerve roots

Answer 37

C

Question 38

40. Loss of movement on one half of the body (i.e. the left arm and left leg) is called
    a. paraplegia
    b. quadriplegia
    c. hemiplegia
    d. monoplegia

Answer 38

C

Question 39

48. A mismatch of ventilation and perfusion would cause
    a. hyperoxemia and hypercapnia
    b. hypocapnia and hypoxemia
    c. hyperoxemia and hypocapnia
    d. hypoxemia and hypercapnia

Answer 39

D

Question 40

29. By losing even 5 to 10% of body weight a person with metabolic syndrome can
improve their
a. fasting blood glucose
b. blood lipid profile
c. blood pressure
d. all of the above

Answer 40

D

Question 41

30. The correct test to use for diagnosing Addison disease would be
    a. suppression test
    b. stimulation test
    c. DEXA
    d. radioimmunoassay (RIA) for ACTH

Answer 41

B

Question 42

41. Jaundice results from an excessive accumulation of
    a. bile
    b. haemoglobin
    c. albumin
    d. bilirubin

Answer 42

D

Question 43

42. A hiatal hernia is
    a. where a perforation occurs due to increased intra-abdominal pressure
    b. where the intestine or the bladder protrudes through the abdominal wall
    c. a common cause of diverticular disease
    d. where the upper stomach protrudes through

Answer 43

D

Question 44

43. Which of the following is NOT a pharmacological treatment for gastritis?
    a. histamine 2 blockers
    b. antacids
    c. nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
    d. proton pump inhibitors

Answer 44

C

Question 45

44. The condition where there is persistent reflux of gastric contents into the
oesophagus is abbreviated to
a. CORD
b. ARDS
c. IBD
d. GERD/GORD

Answer 45

D

Question 46

45. An example of a congenital defect of the gastrointestinal tract is
    a. polyps
    b. hernia
    c. cleft palate
    d. celiac disease

Answer 46

C

Question 47

46. Vital capacity in lung function tests is the
    a. maximal amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled from the point of
    maximal inspiration
    b. amount of air that moves into and out of the lungs with each breath
    c. total amount of air that the lungs can hold
    d. volume of air remaining in the lungs after

Answer 47

A

Question 48

47. A primary cause of liver disease is
    a. jaundice
    b. cholelithiasis
    c. colitis
    d. hepatitis

Answer 48

D

Question 49

48. A mismatch of ventilation and perfusion would cause
    a. hyperoxemia and hypercapnia
    b. hypocapnia and hypoxemia
    c. hyperoxemia and hypocapnia
    d. hypoxemia and hypercapnia

Answer 49

D

Question 50

49. Intussusception is a/an
    a. impairment of peristalsis in the bowel
    b. telescoping of the bowel into an adjacent segment
    c. umbilical herniation
    d. temporary impairment of blood flow in the bowel

Answer 50

B

Question 51

50. A manifestation of cystic fibrosis is
    a. thick and sticky mucus secretions
    b. inflammation of the pleura
    c. enhanced mucociliary clearance
    d. presence of air in the pleural space

Answer 51

A