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214.201 Human Bioscience: Impaired Body Function > 214.201 Exam 1503 > Flashcards

214.201 Exam 1503 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Risk factors for aneurysm include all of the
    following EXCEPT
    a. Atherosclerosis
    b. Chronic hypertension
    c. Hereditary disorders affecting connective
    tissue
    d. Oxygen deprivation
A

D

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2
Q
  1. The central nervous system disorder characterised by degeneration of
    dopaminergic neurons in the basal ganglia is
    a. Parkinson’s disease
    b. Alzheimer’s disease
    c. Multiple sclerosis
    d. Motor neuron disease
A

A

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3
Q
  1. A complication from blunt force trauma to the head with haemorrhage is
    a. cerebral oedema
    b. increased intracranial pressure
    c. tentorial herniation
    d. all of the above are complications
A

D

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4
Q
  1. Low levels of this neurotransmitter has been associated with epilepsy
    a. Glutamate
    b. Dopamine
    c. GABA
    d. Noradrenaline
A

C

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5
Q
  1. A psychotic disorder which is characterized by positive and negative behaviours is
    a. unipolar depression
    b. bipolar depression
    c. schizophrenia
    d. parkinsonism
A

C

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6
Q 
6. Spinal cord injury may result in reduced ability to thermoregulate through sweating if
there is damage to the
a. somatic nervous system
b. sympathetic nervous system
c. parasympathetic nervous system
d. enteric nervous system
A

B

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7
Q
  1. Nociceptors in the skin can be stimulated by
    a. inflammatory chemicals
    b. very hot temperatures
    c. tissue injury
    d. all of the above
A

D

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8
Q
  1. Pain that is characterised as chronic, “achey” and poorly localised would be conducted by
    a. afferent C fibres that are thickly myelinated
    b. afferent C fibres that are unmyelinated
    c. efferent C fibres that are thickly myelinated
    d. efferent C fibres that are unmyelinated
A

B

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9
Q
  1. Sickle cell disease and Rh incompatibility both cause
    a. haemolytic anaemia
    b. pernicious anaemia
    c. haemorrhagic anaemia
    d. aplastic anaemia
A

A

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10
Q
  1. A disorder characterised by overproduction of red blood cells is
    a. hemophilia
    b. polycythemia
    c. leukemia
    d. thalassemia
A

B

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11
Q
  1. The renin-­‐angiotensin hormone system elevates blood pressure by:
    a. stimulating the excretion of sodium
    b. increasing blood volume
    c. opposing the actions of ADH
    d. all of the above
A

B

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12
Q 
12. Blood components that are raised in
dyslipidaemia include
a. red & white blood cells
b. fibrinogen & plasmin
c. triglycerides & cholesterol
d. urea & bilirubin
A

C

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13
Q
  1. Cardiac biomarkers are useful in determining the cause of the following symptom of
    a. shortness of breath
    b. headaches
    c. menstrual pain
    d. insomnia
A

A

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14
Q
  1. Collateral circulation helps
    a. stimulate oxygen uptake in the lungs
    b. flush out clogged arteries
    c. reduce cholesterol uptake
    d. bypass clogged arteries
A

D

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15
Q
  1. The mechanism which is NOT a compensatory mechanism for heart failure is
    a. decrease in heart rate
    b. increased sympathetic nerve activity
    c. increased heart rate and stronger heart contractions
    d. changes in the shape and size of the left
    ventricle
A

A

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16
Q
  1. Failure of spiralling in the following diagram during heart development will result in
    a. coarctation of the aorta
    b. transposition of the great vessels
    c. tetralogy of fallot
    d. ventricular septal defect
A

B

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17
Q
  1. The following are both examples of acyanotic heart defects
    a. coarctation of the aorta & ventricular septal defect
    b. Interrupted aortic arch & atrial septal defect
    c. transposition of the great vessels & aortic stenosis
    d. Tetralogy of Fallot & atrial septal defect
A

A

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18
Q
  1. During the compensatory stage of circulatory shock
    a. homeostatic adjustments cope with shock
    b. blood volume declines by more than 35%
    c. precapillary sphincters fail to respond to vasomotor centres
    d. cardiac output remains inadequate
A

A

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19
Q
  1. Three cardiac biomarkers used to diagnose myocardial infarction include
    a. carnitine, dopamine, corin
    b. angiotensin I, anti-­‐diuretic hormone, vasopressin
    c. troponin T, troponin I, creatine kinase isoform MB
    d. ventilin, serum albumin, alpha-­‐antitrypsin
A

C

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20
Q 
20. Arterial occlusion greater than this proportion causes ischaemia in cardiac
myocardium
a. 25%
b. 33%
c. 75%
d. 50%
A

C

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21
Q 
21. The following cancer classification is likely
to have the worse prognosis:
a. Stage IV
b. Stage 0
c. Grade I
d. Grade 0
A

A

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22
Q
  1. Concerning epigenetics the following is not true:
    a. It refers to changes in gene expression
    b. It refers to changes in gene sequence
    c. It is important in regulating gene activity
    d. Methylation is an epigenetic mechanism
A

B

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23
Q
  1. If two alleles control eye colour, B and b, and you are told the frequency of the B allele
    in the population in 0.7, then the frequency of
    the b allele is:
    a. 1
    b. 0.3
    c. 0.49
    d. 0.09
A

B

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24
Q
  1. If a trait is entirely genetic we would expect the concordance in monozygotic twins to be
    a. 100%
    b. 0%
    c. 50%
    d. 75%
A

A

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25
Q
  1. Concerning a carrier of a balanced chromosomal translocation:
    a. they have missing chromosomal material
    b. they have physical problems
    c. they have intellectual problems
    d. they are at an increased risk for miscarriage
A

D

26
Q
  1. A couple come to you for genetic counselling as the male is albino and his partner is not, they already have one child, a girl who is albino.
    The risk of further pregnancies being albino is
    a. 0
    b. 100%
    c. 25%
    d. 50%
A

D

27
Q 
27. For a given population you are told that the recessive s allele causing sickle cell disease occurs in the population at a frequency of 0.1, this means that the frequency of the dominant S allele occurs at
a frequency of
a. 0.9
b. 0.3
c. 0.7
d. 0.42
A

A

28
Q 
28. The following condition is an example of
a Monosomy
a. Turner’s syndrome
b. Down syndrome
c. Edwards Syndrome
d. Patau syndrome
A

A

29
Q
  1. A woman is a carrier for Cystic Fibrosis, the following is true if she has a child with another carrier:
    a. all their children will have CF
    b. None of their children will have CF
    c. Half their children are likely to have CF
    d. quarter of their children are likely to have
    CF
A

D

30
Q
  1. A nonsense mutation will in a gene:
    a. prematurely terminate the protein
    b. have little change on the resulting protein
    c. will change the reading frame of the sequence
    d. will have no effect
A

A

31
Q 
31. Loss of function of the anterior pituitary can result in deficiencies/loss of which of the
following hormones' secretions?
a. Thyroid-­‐releasing hormone
b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
c. Oxytocin
d. Somatostatin
A

B

32
Q
  1. Which of these following statements is
    TRUE. Hypofunction can occur due to
    a. atrophy of the gland due to medication
    b. a hormone-­‐producing tumour
    c. congenital defects resulting in impaired
    development of the gland
    d. All of the above are true
A

A & C

33
Q
  1. Glucocorticoid excess can cause
    a. orthostatic hypotension
    b. hyperkalaemia
    c. muscle weakness
    d. impaired glucose tolerance
A

D

34
Q
  1. Which of the following physiologic processes is a direct effect of the release of
    growth hormone by the anterior pituitary?
    a. Development of cartilage and bone
    b. Production of insulin-­‐like growth factors by the liver
    c. Increase in overall metabolic rate and cardiovascular function
    d. Positive feedback of the hypothalamic pituitary–thyroid feedback system
A

B

35
Q 
35. Which statement is TRUE? Symptoms of
hypothyroidism include
a. weight loss
b. opthalmopathy
c. muscle wasting
d. loss of appetite
A

D

36
Q 
36. Which of the following effects will result
from increased insulin levels?
a. Inhibition of glycogenesis
b. Promotion of lipogenesis
c. Inhibition of protein synthesis
d. Promotion of gluconeogenesis
A

B

37
Q
  1. Epinephrine (adrenaline)
    a. inhibits the release of glucose by cells
    b. is an insulin antagonist
    c. promotes glycogen storage
    d. none of the above
A

B

38
Q
  1. Increasing adiposity is characterised by all of the following EXCEPT
    a. Tissue hypertrophy
    b. Increased production of anti-­‐inflammatory
    adipokines
    c. Increase infiltration of immune cells
    d. Reduction in the density of capillaries
A

B

39
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is FALSE. When assessing body fat distribution,
    waist circumference
    a. is a simple and inexpensive tool, which can complement a BMI measurement
    b. correlates well with abdominal obesity as assessed by imaging methods
    c. is associated with increased risk for adiposity related mortality
    d. All of the above are true
A

D

40
Q 
40. Obesity-­‐related health problems include
all of the following EXCEPT for
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Breast cancer
c. Sleep apnoea
d. Gall bladder disease
A

A

41
Q
  1. The respiratory centres that monitor and
    control the rate of breathing are located in
    the following region of the brain
    a. Frontal lobe
    b. Brocas area
    c. Medulla and Pons
    d. Corpus Callosum
A

C

42
Q 
42. Creatinine clearance blood tests are used
to estimate
a. Glomerular filtration rate
b. Levels of toxins in the blood
c. Acid-­‐base imbalances
d. Concentration of urea in the blood
A

A

43
Q
  1. Blood flows from the intestines to the liver via the
    a. Hepatic portal vein
    b. Hepatic artery
    c. Descending aorta
    d. Hepatic vein
A

A

44
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver
    a. Synthesis of plasma proteins and clotting factors
    b. Production of bile acids
    c. Storage of iron
    d. Secretion of renin
A

D

45
Q
  1. In advanced liver disease, decreased levels of albumin and portal hypertension may cause
    a. Uremia
    b. Ascites
    c. Gallstones
    d. Hypocalcaemia
A

B

46
Q
  1. Which of the following is an abnormal opening between two organs
    a. Atresias
    b. Fistulas
    c. Stenosis
    d. Recanalization
A

B

47
Q
  1. A diverticular is
    a. A cancerous polyp
    b. A herniation of the stomach
    c. A oesophageal ulcer
    d. An outpocket of the colon mucosa
A

D

48
Q
  1. The most common cause of erosive gastritis is
    a. Ulcerative colitis
    b. Spicy food
    c. NSAIDs
    d. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
A

C

49
Q
  1. Cystic fibrosis impairs absorption across
    the gut by
    a. Reducing the production of pancreatic
    enzymes
    b. Causing intestinal obstructions
    c. Sebaceous cysts scarring the intestine wall
    d. Reducing blood flow the gut
A

A

50
Q
  1. Coeliac Disease is characterised by
    a. Defective digestion of fats
    b. Ulceration of the colonic mucosa
    c. Loss of haustra in the colon
    d. Atrophy of the villi of the intestine
A

D

51
Q
  1. Which one of the following best describes the pathogenesis of rheumatic fever? (Levinson)
    a. An exotoxin produced by Streptococcus pyogenes that acts as a superantigen damages cardiac muscle.
    b. Antibody to the M protein of Streptococcus
    pyogenes cross-­‐reacts with cardiac muscle and damages it.
    c. Endotoxin produced by Streptococcus pyogenes activates macrophages to release cytokines that damage cardiac muscle
    d. The bacteria Streptococcus pyogenes infects and inflames the heart muscle
A

B

52
Q
  1. Your patient in the gastrointestinal clinic
    is a 50-­‐year-­‐old professional man with what
    he describes as “sour stomach” for several
    months. Antacids relieve the symptoms but
    they keep coming back. Which one of the
    following bacteria could be causing the patient’s ongoing disease? (Levinson)
    a. Helicobacter pylori
    b. Salmonella enterica
    c. Shigella dysenteriae
    d. Streptococcus pyogenes
A

A

53
Q
  1. Your patient is a 20-­‐year-­‐old man with a
    urethral discharge. Gram stain of the pus reveals many neutrophils but no bacteria. You suspect this infection may be caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Which one of the following is the laboratory result that best
    supports your diagnosis?
    a. Gram stain of the pus reveals small gram-positive rods.
    b. The organism produces beta-­‐hemolytic
    colonies on blood agar plates when incubated anaerobically
    c. A positive PCR result specific for C. trachomatis DNA
    d. The organism grows only in anaerobic
    conditions
A

C

54
Q
  1. The proteins on the external surface of
    viruses serve several important functions.
    Regarding these proteins, which one of the
    following statements is most accurate?
    a. They are the antigens against which neutralising antibodies are formed
    b. They are the polymerases that synthesize viral messenger RNA
    c. They are the proteins that regulate viral
    transcription
    d. They are all icosahedral
A

A

55
Q
  1. Some viruses are known for their ability to cause perinatal infections. Which one of the
    following viruses is most likely to cause perinatal infections?
    a. Cytomegalovirus
    b. Epstein-­‐Barr virus
    c. Norovirus
    d. Influenza virus
A

A

56
Q
  1. In regard to Prions
    a. They are the cause of spongiform encephalopathy diseases in humans and
    animals
    b. They can only cause disease in sheep
    c. They are naturally occurring in the human
    brain
    d. They are not transmissible
A

A

57
Q
  1. The genome of viruses can be
    a. DNA
    b. RNA
    c. DNA and RNA
    d. DNA or RNA
A

D

58
Q
  1. Transmission of disease from mother to child is
    a. Vertical transmission
    b. Aerosol transmission
    c. Vector borne transmission
    d. Horizontal transmission
A

A

59
Q 
59. What is the most important definitive host (in which the sexual cycle occurs) for the
protozoan parasite Toxoplasma gondii?
a. The mosquito (Aedes anopheles)
b. Domestic dogs
c. Domestic cats
d. Cattle
A

C

60
Q
  1. Infection with high-­‐risk types of Human Papillomavirus (16/18) can cause:
    a. Cervical cancer
    b. Skin cancer
    c. Breast cancer
    d. Bone cancer
A

A

214.201 Human Bioscience: Impaired Body Function (23 decks)

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