214.201 HUMAN BIOSCIENCE: IMPAIRED BODY FUNCTION Summer Semester 1403 - February 2015 Flashcards
1
Q
- Cystitis is a urinary tract infection affecting the
a. urethra
b. prostate
c. bladder
d. kidney
A
C
2
Q
- Kaposi’s sarcoma is a common indicator disease in
a. meningococcal meningitis
b. HIV/AIDS
c. rheumatic fever
d. variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
A
B
3
Q
3. Pneumonia in AIDS patients can potentially be fatal as a consequence of infection by the fungi called a. Pneumococcus b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae c. Haemophilus influenzae d. Pneumocystis jiroveci
A
D
4
Q
- The classic triad of cataracts, heart defects and deafness in a neonate
as a consequence of the virus infection is referred to as
a. AIDS
b. neurological syndrome
c. congenital rubella syndrome
d. hepatitis B syndrome - Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus
A
C
5
Q
- Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Legionella
bacteria, and Mycoplasma pneumoniae are associated with
a. the common cold
b. hepatitis
c. pneumonias
d. pyelonephritis
A
C
6
Q
- Legionnaires’s disease and Pontiac fever make up the disease category called
a. pneumonia
b. meningitis
c. legionellosis
d. lymphomas
A
C
7
Q
7. The spasm associated with intense coughing in whooping cough is caused by infection with a. Meningococci b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Bordetella pertussis
A
D
8
Q
8. Kuru, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease and bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) are due to infections with a. plasmids b. prions c. meningococci d. group b streptococci
A
B
9
Q
- Cervical cancer may be related to infection by
a. hepatitis B virus
b. E. coli
c. human papilloma virus
d. HIV
A
C
10
Q
- Helicobacter pylori infection is associated with
a. duodenal ulcer disease
b. cervical cancer
c. laryngeal papilloma
d. Kaposi’s sarcoma
A
A
11
Q
- Hepatocellular carcinoma or liver cancer may be caused by
a. human papillomavirus
b. hepatitis B virus
c. influenza virus
d. E. coli
A
B
12
Q
- Group A streptococci causing strep throat is associated with
a. rheumatic fever
b. hepatitis
c. pneumonia
d. conjunctivitis
A
A
13
Q
- A thrombotic stroke resulting in paralysis of the left arm is likely caused by a
a. blood clot obstructing an artery that supplies the left motor cortex
b. blood clot obstructing an artery that supplies the right motor cortex
c. ruptured aneurysm of an artery that supplies the left motor cortex
d. ruptured aneurysm of an artery that supplies the right motor cortex
A
B
14
Q
- Tentorial herniation may result in
a. gastroesophageal reflux
b. diverticulosis
c. a visible bulge in the lower abdomen
d. coma
A
D
15
Q
- Ascites is caused by decreased production of
a. albumin
b. prothrombin
c. antidiuretic hormone
d. aldosterone
A
A
16
Q
- Beta-amyloid plaques in the hippocampus are thought to be involved in
a. Parkinson’s disease
b. Alzheimer’s disease
c. Huntington’s disease
d. Multiple sclerosis
A
B
17
Q
17. Some drugs used to treat epilepsy work by increasing brain levels of the neurotransmitter a. glutamine b. norepinephrine c. dopamine d. gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
A
D
18
Q
- Spinal shock typically results in
a. flaccid paralysis below the level of injury
b. spastic paralysis below the level of injury
c. excessive sweating below the level of injury
d. heightened sensation below the level of injury
A
A
19
Q
- Iron deficiency anaemia is likely to produce red blood cells that are
a. microcytic and normochromic
b. microcytic and hypochromic
c. macrocytic and normochromic
d. macrocytic and hypochromic
A
B
20
Q
- A typical sign of atheromatous peripheral artery disease is
a. increased distal pulse pressure
b. incompetent valves
c. intermittent claudication
d. oedema
A
C
21
Q
- Pre-hepatic jaundice with elevated unconjugated bilirubin occurs with
a. haemolytic diseases
b. gallstones
c. cholestasis
d. hepatocellular injury
A
A
22
Q
- An epidural haemorrhage results in a rapid loss of consciousness due to
a. arterial bleeding between the skull and dura mater
b. arterial bleeding between the dura mater and arachnoid mater
c. venous bleeding between the dura mater and arachnoid mater
d. small vessel bleeding between the dura mater and pia mater
A
A
23
Q
- Diverting blood flow around an obstructed artery can be achieved by a/an
a. angiogram
b. pacemaker implantation
c. kidney transplant
d. coronary artery bypass graft
A
D
24
Q
- Elevated levels of High Density Lipoproteins (HDLs) are associated with
a. reduced cardiovascular disease risk
b. increased cardiovascular disease risk
c. pulmonary disease
d. cardiac arrhythmia
A
A
25
Q
25.In determining whether a patient has had a myocardial infarction, it is useful
to test for
a. creatinine and glucagon
b. troponin T and creatine kinase isoform MB
c. bilirubin and HbA1c
d. bicarbonate and lactic acid
A
B
26
Q
- The pain associated with angina pectoris results from
a. flatulence
b. the chambers of the heart contracting out of order
c. extremely high pressure in the pulmonary vein
d. ischaemia and a build-up of lactic acid
A
D
27
Q
- Causes of heart failure include
a. indigestion, impetigo and hirsuitism
b. neuralgia, narcolepsy and hyperthyroidism
c. incontinence, insomnia and haemophilia
d. coronary heart disease, congenital heart disease and hypertension
A
D
28
Q
- Obstructive pulmonary defects
a. block the flow of air to and from the lungs
b. result from a blockage in the coronary arteries
c. result in improved physical performance at high altitude
d. decrease elasticity of the lungs or chest wall
A
A
29
Q
- Haemophilia is a hereditary defect resulting from the lack of an active
a. clotting factor
b. erythropoietin molecule
c. heart
d. complement of white blood cells
A
A
30
Q
30. Angiotensinogen, a precursor of hormones that regulate blood pressure, is mostly produced in the a. thyroid gland b. pituitary gland c. liver d. gastric epithelium
A
C
31
Q
- Hypertension is often defined as chronically elevated BP with
a. systolic pressure of ≥140 and/or diastolic pressure of ≥90 mmHg
b. systolic pressure of 120-140 mmHg
c. diastolic pressure of ≤90 mmHg
d. systolic pressure of ≤140 and/or diastolic pressure of ≤90 mmHg
A
A
32
Q
- Renal insufficiency is typified by
a. haemochromatosis and haploinsufficiency
b. hyperactivity and mania
c. build-up of waste products and inability to concentrate or dilute urine
d. a normal level of healthy nephrons
A
C
33
Q
- Pre-renal causes of chronic kidney failure often result from
a. kidney cell damage
b. obstructions
c. reduced production of erythropoietin
d. lack of renal blood supply
A
D
34
Q
- Oliguria describes
a. lumps in the urine
b. urinary tract infection
c. decreased urine output
d. increased urine output
A
C
35
Q
35. Kidney function is often estimated from glomerular filtration rate (GFR) by calculating creatine clearance using the a. Michaelis-Menton equation b. Cockroft-Gault equation c. Boyle-Mariotte law d. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
A
B
36
Q
- Clinical causes of metabolic alkalosis include
a. hyperventilation
b. eating grapefruit
c. appendicitis
d. prolonged vomiting or gastric suction
A
D
37
Q
37. Kidney failure can result in decreased excretion of phosphate ions leading to the precipitation of a. unsaturated fat b. ferric oxide c. calcium phosphate d. sodium chloride
A
C
38
Q
39. Failure of spiralling in the following diagram during heart development will result in a. coarctation of the aorta b. transposition of the great vessels c. tetralogy of fallot d. ventricular septal defect
A
B
39
Q
- The condition coarctation of the aorta means
a. the aorta is narrowed and collateral circulation will take blood to the
lower body
b. the aorta is narrowed and collateral circulation will take blood to the
upper body
c. the aorta is widened and collateral circulation will take blood to the
lower body
d. the aorta is widened and collateral circulation will take blood to the
upper body
A
A
40
Q
- Myelinated A fibres carry
a. slow pain and are able to localise the stimulus
b. slow pain and give only a general idea where the stimulus is
c. fast pain and are able to localise the stimulus
d. fast pain and give only a general idea where the stimulus is
A
C
41
Q
- Acute pain is characterised by
a. rapid onset and a sharp pricking sensation
b. burning, aching or throbbing
c. being perceived some distance from the site
d. being superficial and easy to locate
A
A
42
Q
- Deep vein thrombosis in spinal cord injury is caused by
a. increased sympathetic nervous system impulses
b. decreased sympathetic nervous system impulses
c. increased parasympathetic nervous system impulses
d. decreased parasympathetic nervous system impulses
A
B
43
Q
- Loss of sensory function may result in
a. paralysis
b. decussation
c. Brown-Sequard syndrome
d. paresthesias
A
D
44
Q
- During the compensatory stage of shock
a. homeostatic adjustments cope with shock
b. blood volume declines by more than 35%
c. precapillary sphincters fail to respond to vasomotor centres
d. cardiac output remains inadequate
A
A
45
Q
- A negative feedback system that does not restore normal blood pressure
during hypovolemic shock is
a. activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
b. secretion of antidiuretic hormone
c. activation of the sympathetic division of the ANS
d. activation of the parasympathetic division of the ANS
A
D
46
Q
- Neurogenic shock is triggered by
a. septic infection
b. cardiac pump failure
c. an allergen
d. loss of motor tone
A
D
47
Q
- Regurgitation containing bile indicates a(n)
a. fistula between the oesophagus and trachea
b. stenosis of the jejunum
c. atresia of the oesophagus
d. atresia below the duodenum
A
D
48
Q
- Diverticulosis is
a. the process in which pockets or pouches are formed on the outside of
the colon and large intestine
b. the formation of polyps in the mucosa of the intestine
c. a type of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that affects the lining of the
large intestine (colon) and rectum
d. caused by Helicobacter pylori
A
A
49
Q
- Failure of the mesodermal masses of the lateral palatine processes to meet
and fuse with each other, with the nasal septum and/or with the median
palatine process best describes
a. cleft lip
b. cleft palate
c. rupturing of the oral nasal membrane
d. true hare lip
A
B
50
Q
- The cancer classification that is likely to have the worse prognosis is
a. Stage IV
b. Stage 0
c. Grade 1
d. Grade 0
A
A
51
Q
- The order that is correct concerning the cancer process is
a. progression, initiation, promotion
b. promotion, initiation, progression
c. initiation, promotion, progression
d. initiation, progression, promotion
A
C
52
Q
- A risk factor for breast cancer is
a. not having children
b. low fat diet
c. high fiber diet
d. having a child before the age of 30
A
A
53
Q
- The pregnancies that can result in live births are
a. Trisomy 18 and Trisomy 13
b. Trisomy 8 and Trisomy 14
c. Trisomy 21 and Trisomy 14
A
A
54
Q
- A balanced translocation carrier will
a. be severely mentally retarded
b. not be able to have children
c. often have frequent miscarriages
d. only produce gametes with 23 chromosomes
A
C
55
Q
- The statement that is NOT TRUE about epigenetics is
a. epigenetics refers to changes in gene expression
b. epigenetics refers to changes in gene sequence
c. epigenetics is important in regulating gene activity
d. methylation is an epigenetic mechanism
A
B
56
Q
- An ECG trace that demonstrates regular atrial and ventricular rhythm, an
atrial rate of 104 b·min-1, a ventricular rate of 104 b·min-1 and a P-R Interval
of 0.16 s could be interpreted as
a. sinus bradycardia
b. second-degree AV block
c. sinus tachycardia
d. first-degree AV block
A
C
57
Q
58. When multiple ectopic pacemakers in the atria discharge at a very rapid rate, the clinical classification is a. sinus tachycardia b. premature ventricular contraction c. atrial flutter d. atrial fibrillation
A
D
58
Q
- The sentence which best defines a Third degree AV block is
a. an obstruction in the transmission of impulses through one of the
branches, either the left or the right, of the bundle of His
b. the impulses from the atria are completely blocked at the AV node and
cannot be conducted through the ventricles
c. each successive impulse from the SA node is delayed slightly longer
than the previous impulse until one impulse fails to be conducted
through the ventricles
d. a delay in conduction which may appear in a healthy person
A
B
59
Q
- If a patient is admitted with a heart rate of 32 b·min-1 having suffered an
acute MI, the area of the heart which is most likely serving as the pacemaker
is the
a. right atrium
b. left atrium
c. AV node
d. ventricles
A
D
60
Q
- Obesity-related health problems include all of the following EXCEPT for
a. colon cancer
b. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
c. osteoarthritis
d. sleep apnoea
A
B
61
Q
- A Caucasian female will be classified as ‘high risk’ with a waist-to-hip ratio of
a. 0.80
b. 0.82
c. 0.84
d. 0.86
A
D
62
Q
- According to the International Diabetes Federation metabolic syndrome
worldwide definition, an individual will be deemed to have high blood pressure
if their reading is
a. 110/70 mmHg
b. 122/81 mmHg
c. 128/84 mmHg
d. 129/85 mmHg
A
D
63
Q
64. An individual will be classified as having elevated triglycerides if their reading is a. 1.03 mmol/L b. 1.29 mmol/L c. 1.7 mmol/L d. 5.6 mmol/L
A
C
64
Q
- Two actions of insulin in the body are to
a. promote glycogenesis and inhibit gluconeogenesis
b. promote glycogenesis and promote lipolysis
c. inhibit lipogenesis and promote protein synthesis
d. inhibit protein synthesis and inhibit glycogenolysis
A
A
65
Q
- According to the NZSSD (2011) position statement, the recommended
diagnostic screening test for Type 2 Diabetes in the first instance is a
a. two-hour oral glucose tolerance test
b. glycated haemoglobin test
c. total lipid profile test
d. fasting blood glucose test
A
B
66
Q
- An asymptomatic individual may be categorised as pre-diabetic if their
diagnostic test result is
a. two-hour oral glucose tolerance: 7.7 mmol/L
b. triglycerides: 1.69 mmol/L and HDL-C: 1.35 mmol/L
c. fasting blood glucose: 6.6 mmol/L and HbA1c: 43 mmol/L
d. fasting blood glucose: 4.5 mmol/L and HbA1c: 38 mmol/L
A
C
67
Q
68. The most common acid-base abnormality associated with chronic diarrhoea in children is a. metabolic acidosis b. lactic acidosis c. metabolic alkalosis d. respiratory alkalosis
A
A
68
Q
- A shift in water from the interstitial compartment into the intravascular
compartment reflects movement of water
a. from the intracellular compartment to the extracellular compartment
b. from the extracellular compartment to the intracellular compartment
c. within the intracellular compartment
d. within the extracellular compartment
A
D
69
Q
- Under clinical investigation, the surface of an individual’s inflamed bowel
demonstrates a ‘cobblestone’ appearance. This typically signifies
a. ulcerative colitis
b. irritable bowel syndrome
c. Crohn’s disease
d. coeliac disease
A
C
