214.201 HUMAN BIOSCIENCE: IMPAIRED BODY FUNCTION Semester One 2015 Flashcards
1
Q
- Loss of sensation in the left arm is likely due to a stroke in the
a. frontal lobe
b. parietal lobe
c. temporal lobe
d. occipital lobe
A
B
2
Q
2. Head trauma that causes a brief disruption in consciousness but typically results in full recovery is called a a. concussion b. contusion c. laceration d. haematoma
A
A
3
Q
3. Localised degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra describes the pathophysiology of a. Huntington’s Disease b. Alzheimer’s Disease c. Parkinson’s Disease d. epilepsy
A
C
4
Q
- Treatment of unipolar depression includes drugs which increase
a. acetylcholine activity
b. serotonin activity
c. GABA (gamma amino-butyric acid) activity
d. glutamate activity
A
B
5
Q
- The pathophysiology occurring in Multiple Sclerosis is
a. progressive degeneration of the basal ganglia
b. progressive demyelination
c. uncontrolled firing of a group of neurons
d. development of neurofibrillary tangles
A
B
6
Q
- Damage to the hippocampus of the brain would result in impaired
a. movement
b. memory
c. balance
d. vision
A
B
7
Q
7. A psychotic disorder characterized by positive and negative behavioural symptoms is a. unipolar depression b. epilepsy c. schizophrenia d. Alzheimer’s Disease
A
C
8
Q
8. The Gate Theory suggests that massage interrupts the pain pathway by the activation of touch-sensitive a. thickly myelinated A-beta fibres b. thinly myelinated A-beta fibres c. thickly myelinated C fibres d. thinly myelinated C fibres
A
A
9
Q
9. Haemolysis due to a blood incompatibility reaction would lead to elevated serum levels of a. unconjugated bilirubin b. conjugated bilirubin c. lipoproteins d. fibrinogen
A
A
10
Q
- Low albumin production by the liver leads to
a. ascites
b. cholestasis
c. increased clotting time
d. high blood volume
A
A
11
Q
- Cushing’s syndrome is a result of
a. excess cortisol secretion
b. reduced cortisol secretion
c. excess adrenaline secretion
d. reduced adrenaline secretion
A
A
12
Q
- Characteristic features of Cushing’s syndrome are
a. hypertension, headaches, fatigue
b. chronic stress, striated abdomen, big hands
c. polyuria, polyphagia, polydipsia
d. moon face, buffalo hump, muscle wasting
A
D
13
Q
- The statement that details the correct test for the particular endocrine condition is
a. administration of ACTH, then measurement of cortisol levels to
determine possibility of Cushing’s syndrome
b. oral glucose load and then measurement of growth hormone 2
hrs later, to determine possibility of Acromegaly
c. blood test for TSH, with a high level of TSH indicating
hyperthyroidism
d. measurement of oestrogen blood levels, with high levels
indicating osteoporosis
A
B
14
Q
- The correct test to use for diagnosing Addison disease would be
a. suppression test
b. stimulation test
c. DEXA
d. radioimmunoassay (RIA) for ACTH
A
B
15
Q
- Factors that increase GH secretion by stimulating the release of growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH) from the hypothalamus are
a. decreased blood glucose and hypertension
b. starvation and heavy exercise
c. feeling cold and tired
d. a fright and drop in blood pressure
A
B
16
Q
- Three factors that would be diagnostic for metabolic syndrome are
a. BMI> 30 kg/m2; TG < 1.7 mmol/L and fasting BG > 7 mM
b. high BP; smoking and no physical activity
c. fasting BG > 5.5 mM; TG >1.7 mmol/L; high BP
d. more than 6 standard glasses of alcohol/week; BMI> 30 kg/m2
and person is on antihypertensive medication
A
C
17
Q
- The diagnostic test for diabetes mellitus is
a. fasting BG greater than 6.5 mM
b. glycosylated haemoglobin greater than 48 mmol/mol
c. detection of glucose in the urine
d. detection of hyperinsulinaemia
A
C
18
Q
- Signs and symptoms of DKA are
a. nausea and vomiting and hair loss
b. fruit smelling breath and confusion
c. constipation and hyperglycaemia
d. urinary retention and acetone breath
A
B
19
Q
- Treatment for GH deficiency would include administration of
a. glucose daily
b. glucagon
c. IGF-5
d. somatotropin
A
D
20
Q
- In patent ductus arteriosus oxygenated blood flows from
a. low pressure in the aorta to high pressure in the pulmonary artery
b. high pressure in the aorta to low pressure in the pulmonary artery
c. low pressure in the pulmonary artery to high pressure in the aorta
d. high pressure in the pulmonary artery to low pressure in the aorta
A
B
21
Q
- The condition in which cyanosis is found is
a. Ventricular septal defect
b. Transposition of the great vessels
c. Patent ductus arteriosus
d. Coarctation of the aorta
A
B
22
Q
- Anaphylactic and septic shock are types of
a. hypovolemic shock
b. cardiogenic shock
c. vascular shock
d. obstructive shock
A
C
23
Q
- The following cancer classification is likely to have the worse prognosis
a. Stage IV
b. Stage 0
c. Grade I
d. Grade 0
A
A
24
Q
- If two alleles control eye colour, B and b, and you are told the frequency of
the B allele in the population in 0.7, then the frequency of the b allele is
a. 1
b. 0.3
c. 0.49
d. 0.09
A
B
25
25. The correct order of events concerning the cancer process is
a. Progression, initiation, promotion
b. Promotion initiation, progression
c. Initiation, promotion, progression
d. Initiation, progression, promotion
C
26
26. The condition that is an example of a Monosomy is
a. Turner’s syndrome
b. Down syndrome
c. Edwards Syndrome
d. Patau syndrome
A
27
27. If a woman who is a carrier for Cystic Fibrosis (CF) has a child with
another carrier the most likely outcome is
a. all of their children will have CF
b. none of their children will have CF
c. half of their children will have CF
d. a quarter of their children will have CF
C
28
28. Pregnant women diagnosed with trisomy can result in live births for
a. Trisomy 18 and Trisomy 13
b. Trisomy 8 and Trisomy 14
c. Trisomy 21 and Trisomy 14
d. Trisomy 18 and Trisomy 12
A
29
29. A balanced translocation carrier will
a. be severely mentally retarded
b. not be able to have children
c. often have frequent miscarriages
d. only produce gametes with 23 chromosomes
C
30
30. An example of an autosomal dominant trait is
a. Sickle cell disease
b. Colour blindness
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Achondroplasia
D
31
31. An abnormal narrowing of the intestine is termed
a. atresia
b. fistula
c. stenosis
d. diverticulosis
C
32
32. Bowel cancer most commonly arises from
a. perforated peptic ulcers
b. colon polyps
c. intestinal hernias
d. biliary cholestasis
B
33
33. Celiac disease is characterised by
a. ulcerated granulomas in the bowel
b. autoimmune antibodies against tissue transaminase and gluten
c. ‘skip’ lesions
d. all of the above are correct
B
34
34. An example of an autoimmune disorder is
a. type 1 diabetes
b. rheumatoid arthritis
c. psoriasis
d. all of the above are correct
D
35
35. The autoimmune disorder that can result from molecular mimicry following
a Strepcococcus pyogenes throat infection is
a. agammaglobulinemia
b. graft versus host disease
c. pyogenic osteomyelitis
d. rheumatic fever
D
36
36. Vaccination against viral and bacterial diseases is dependent on the
vaccinated person developing and retaining
a. hyperactive phagocytic neutrophils
b. clonal memory lymphocytes
c. secondary natural killer cells
d. immortalised eosinophils
B
37
37. An example of a viral infectious disease of concern in New Zealand is
a. measles
b. meningitis
c. pneumonia
d. all of the above are correct
A
38
38. An example of a parasitic disease of concern worldwide is
a. malaria
b. candidiasis
c. tuberculosios
d. all of the above are correct
A
39
39. An example of a virus that can induce cancer is
a. Epstein Barr virus
b. hepatitis B virus
c. human papilloma virus
d. all of the above are correct
D
40
40. Hereditary haemachromatosis is a genetic disease that causes
a. anaemia
b. iron overload
c. chromium deficiency
d. vitamin D deficiency
B
41
41. B-type natriuretic peptide hormone is mainly produced in the
a. cardiac ventricles
b. kidneys
c. lungs
d. liver
A
42
```
42. Angiotensin II acts to raise blood pressure and is produced by the action
of the enzyme
a. renin
b. gastrin
c. angiotension converting enzyme (ACE)
d. neutral endopeptidase (NEP)
```
C
43
43. Myocardial infarction is often indicated by elevated levels of
a. creatinine and glucagon
b. troponin T and creatine kinase isoform MB
c. bilirubin and HbA1c
d. renin and angiotensin
B
44
44. The pain associated with myocardial infarction is not relieved by
a. rest and vasodilators
b. morphine
c. angioplasty
d. cardiac reperfusion
A
45
45. An option for treating a blocked heart artery is called
a. angiogram
b. adenoidectomy
c. coronary arterial bypass graft
d. echocardiography
C
46
46. A feature of renal failure is
a. elevated HDL cholesterol
b. an atrial septal defect
c. low glomerular filtration rate
d. reduced cardiac output
C
47
47. Obstructive pulmonary defects
a. block the flow of air to and from the lungs
b. result from a blockage in the coronary arteries
c. result in increased lung volume
d. decrease compliance of the lungs or chest wall
A
48
48. Pre-renal causes of chronic kidney failure often result from
a. kidney cell damage
b. obstructions
c. reduced production of erythropoietin
d. lack of renal blood supply
D
49
```
49. As a treatment for chronic kidney failure renal transplant has the
advantage of
a. little input needed from the patient
b. infections are seldom a problem
c. relatively low cost
d. little change in patient lifestyle
```
D
50
50. Acidosis occurs when arterial blood pH falls below pH
a. 7.35
b. 7.50
c. 7.70
d. 7.85
A
