MCQ Random Mix Flashcards
The number of functional (D) gene segments in human
immunoglobulin loci is
25
Pernicious anemia is ——- mediated by ——–
An organ-specific autoimmune disease, auto-antibodies
Which of the following statements concerning the Leishmania
parasite is NOT correct ?
a) It can prevent fusion of neutrophil tertiary granules after
phagocytosis
b) It produces antioxidants and enzyme inhibitors blocking macrophage
function
c) It sexually reproduces in macrophages
d) It can induce mast cell degranulation
c) It sexually reproduces in macrophages
Leishmania parasites are single-celled protozoan parasites that cause leishmaniasis, a vector-borne disease transmitted by sandflies. They do not sexually reproduce in macrophages. Instead, they undergo a form of asexual reproduction within the host’s macrophages.
Helminth infections are characterised by
- Increased numbers of circulating eosinophils
- IgG4 directed against helminth antigens
- Increased production of IgE
Which pathogen is present in >50% of the human population?
a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) Helicobacter pylori
c) Salmonella typhi
d) Yersinia pestis
Helicobacter pylori
What is the leading cause of death due to infectious disease?
a) Diarrheal diseases
b) HIV/AIDS
c) Lower respiratory infections
d) Malaria
c) Lower respiratory infections
Clinically HIV infection is characterised by the development of
opportunistic infections, especially with the fungus:
a) Pneumocystis carinii (a.k.a Pneumocystis jiroveci)
b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
c) Candida albicans
d) Cryptococcus neoformans
a) Pneumocystis carinii (now known as Pneumocystis jiroveci)
HIV infection can lead to a weakened immune system, making individuals susceptible to various opportunistic infections. One of the common opportunistic infections in people with advanced HIV/AIDS is Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (previously known as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia).
The outer layer of the HIV nucleocapsid is called:
a) p10
b) p17
c) p24
d) p32
p24
AIDS is defined clinically by a drop in the CD4 T cell count to less
than:
a) 100 cells/µl of blood
b) 200 cells/µl of blood
c) 300 cells/µl of blood
d) 400 cells/µl of blood
b) 200 cells/µl of blood
You have generated an antibody against an assembled epitope. For
which of the following would this be most appropriate?
a) western blotting
b) immunofluorescence microscopy
c) enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
d) protein purification for crystallography
d) protein purification for crystallography
Which of the following statements about monoclonal antibodies is
NOT correct?
a) they are the product of a B-cell clone
b) they can recognise linear epitopes
c) they can be anti-peptide antibodies
d) because they recognise a unique epitope they do not cross react
with other proteins
b) they can recognise linear epitopes
Which of the following would have an absolute requirement for a
monoclonal antibody?
a) production of an antibody against a protein that cannot be readily
purified
b) production of kilogram quantities of antibody
c) production of an antibody against human proteins
d) rapid production of an antibody
c) production of an antibody against human proteins
Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine?
a) Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG)
b) vaccinia virus
c) Salk polio vaccine
d) Sabin polio vaccin
c) Salk polio vaccine
Which of the following does NOT relate to Complete Freund’s
Adjuvant?
a) When Complete Freund’s Adjuvant is mixed with an antigen, a
water-in-oil emulsion is created
b) Complete Freund’s Adjuvant is composed of dried and inactivated
mycobacteria – the pathogenic agent of tuberculosis
c) Complete Freund’s Adjuvant causes a vigorous inflammatory
response when introduced into a host
d) Complete Freund’s Adjuvant is approved for human use
d) Complete Freund’s Adjuvant is approved for human use
Which of the following does NOT relate to DNA vaccines?
a) involves the intra-muscular injection of plasmid DNA encoding
antigenic protein from a pathogen
b) the plasmid DNA is avidly taken up by muscle cells that express the
encoded foreign protein
c) humoral and T cell responses are induced
d) antigen presentation occurs without a “professional” antigen
presenting cell such as a dendritic cell
d) antigen presentation occurs without a “professional” antigen-presenting cell such as a dendritic cell.