MCBG Session 16 - Case Studies Flashcards

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1
Q

What is cytogenetics?

A

Cytogenetics: the study of the genetic constitution of cells through the visualisation and analysis of chromosomes.

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2
Q

What are the benefits of cytogenetic analysis?

A
  • Accurate diagnosis/prognosis of clinical problems

I. Identify the syndrome associated with abnormality

II. Account for phenotype

III. Account for pregnancy loss

  • Better clinical management – E.g. hormone treatment for Klinefelter syndrome
  • Prenatal diagnosis – TOP of affected pregnancy/planning management at birth
  • Assess future reproductive risks

I. Risk of live born abnormal child

II. Previous Down’s pregnancy, approx. 1% increase above pop risk of another

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3
Q

The referral reasons for cytogenetics are due to constitutional abnormalities and acquired abnormalities. Outline the former.

A
  • Prenatal diagnosis – Chorionic villus sampling and Amniocentesis
  • Birth defects – dysmorphism, congenital malformations, mental retardation, developmental delay (abnormal behaviour, learning difficulties), specific syndromes (Down syndrome, Williams syndrome, DiGeorge syndrome)
  • Abnormal sexual development

- Infertility

- Recurrent foetal loss

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4
Q

The referral reasons for cytogenetics are due to constitutional abnormalities and acquired abnormalities. Outline the latter.

A
  • Leukaemia’s

I. Acute diseases – AML/ALL

II. Chronic diseases – CML

III. Myelodysplasia/ Myeloproliferative disorders

  • Solid tumours
  • Specific translocations/abnormalities can give prognostic information
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5
Q

Outline the chromosome analysis. (incl define karyotyping)

A
  • Karyotyping: the systematic sorting of chromosomes
  • Whole genome screen 5-10Mb resolution
  • Metaphase chromosome stained, paired up and grouped together
  • Abnormalities described using standard nomenclature ISCN
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6
Q

Outline the steps involved in chromosome analysis.

A
  • Count the number of chromosomes
  • Identify each chromosome pair
  • Assess if there is any missing or extra material – Are the bands in the right place?
  • All pairs must be seen at the correct resolution twice
  • All chromosomes independently rechecked once
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7
Q

Provide examples of standard nomeclature:

  • Normal female
  • Normale male
  • Female with trisomy 21
  • Male with chromosome 7 inversion
A
  • 46,XX – normal female
  • 46,XY – normal male
  • 47,XX,+21 – female with trisomy 21
  • 46,XY,inv(7)(p11.2q11.23) – male with chromosome 7 inversion
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8
Q

Identify some numerical cytogenetic abnormalities (incl. define aneuploidy)

A
  • Aneuploidy – loss and gain of whole chromosomes
  • Arise due to errors at cell division in meiosis

I. Trisomies – Down syndrome +21, Patau syndrome +13 and Edwards syndrome +18

II. Monosomies – Turner syndrome 45,X (X inactivation, only full monosomy to be viable)

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9
Q

What is polyploidy?

A
  • Gain of a whole haploid set of chromosomes
  • Triploid 3n
  • 69, XXX
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10
Q

What are the causes of polyploidy?

A
  • The most common cause of polyploidy is polyspermy: fertilisation of an egg by more than one sperm.

- Triploidy occurs in 2-3% of all pregnancies and ~15% of all miscarriages: term deliveries die shortly after birth

- Tetraploidy is rarer (1-2%) but tetraploid cells are often found at prenatal diagnosis as a cultural artefact

- Diploid/triploid mosaicism seen in livebirths

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11
Q

What are the causes of aneuploidy?

A
  • Originates from non-disjunction at one of the meiotic cell divisions
  • Forms gametes with a missing chromosome and an extra chromosome – which chromosomes involved will influence viability.
  • Can occur during mitotic cell division – causes mosaicism i.e. two cell populations in an individual
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12
Q

What is anaphase lag?

A
  • Chromosomes can be ‘left behind’ at cell division because of defects in spindle function or attachment to chromosomes
  • The lagging chromosomes may be lost entirely in mitosis or meiosis
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13
Q

What is Down syndrome?

A
  • Trisomy 21
  • Frequency 1:650-1000
  • Hypotonia
  • Manifestations: characteristic facial features, intellectual disability, heart defects
  • Increased prevalence of leukaemia
  • Increased incidence of early Alzheimers
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14
Q

What is Edwards syndrome?

A
  • Incidence 1:6000; female predominance
  • Maternal meiosis II error
  • Modal lifespan 5-15 days
  • Nearly all diagnoses made prenatally
  • Visual features: Small lower jaw, prominent occiput, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, overlapping fingers
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15
Q

What is Patau syndrome?

A
  • Trisomy 13
  • Incidence 1:12 000
  • Majority die in neonatal period
  • Holoprosencephaly
  • Polydactyly
  • Multiple congenital abnormalities
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16
Q

What is X chromosome inactivation?

A
  • Only one X chromosome is ever active in a human cell
  • Males only have one X chromosome
  • Females have two X chromosomes
  • X inactivation ensures individuals have same X chromosome complement that is active
17
Q

Why is X chromosome inactivation problematic?

A
  • Males only have a single X chromosome.
  • However, the X and Y chromosomes have short regions in common at the tips of the long and short arms, allows for pairing during cell division
  • Two pseudo-autosomal regions (PAR1 and PAR2)
  • Turner syndrome patients will be monosomic for genes in the PARs
  • SHOX gene (within PAR) associated with short stature
18
Q

What is Turner Syndrome?

A
  • Incidence 1:2500
  • Majority cases absent paternal X; phenotypic differences depending on parental origin of X
  • Visual features: puffy feet, redundant skin at back of the neck
  • Manifestations: short stature, heart defects, mild learning difficulties, neck webbing, infertility
19
Q

Outline what is meant by mosaicism.

A

- Mosaicism: the presence of 2/more cell lines in an individual. Usually caused by mitotic non-disjunction. Occurs throughout the body or tissue limited

  • Degree of mosaicism depends on when the error occurred

I. First post zygotic division – no mosaicism looks like a meiotic event

II. Subsequent divisions – 3 cell lines, monosomy cell line usually lost

  • Trisomic conceptus ‘rescued’ to give mosaicism – anaphase lag
  • Non-disjunction in later cell division
20
Q

Identify some cytogenetic structural abnormalities.

A
  • Translocations –Reciprocal & Robertsonian
  • Inversions – Paracentric & pericentric
  • Deletions – incl. microdeletions
  • Duplications
  • Insertions
  • Rings
  • Marker chromosomes
  • Isochromosomes
21
Q

Outline recipocial translocations.

A
  • Two break rearrangements
  • Usually unique to a family – t(11;22) is an exception
  • Carriers produce balanced and unbalanced gametes
  • If unbalanced offspring will have an abnormal phenotype dependant on regions of trisomy and monosomy
  • Segregation analysis using pachytene diagram to assess this imbalance
22
Q

Outline robertsonian translocations.

A
  • Two acrocentric chromosomes fused together – 13,14,15 ,21,22
  • Mono or dicentric – 13;14 most common
  • Chromosome count of 45 in balanced carriers
  • Trivalent formed at meiosis – Not very stable
  • Aneuploidy risk

I. Females have higher risk than males

II. Homologous carriers can’t have normal pregnancy

23
Q

Outline the types of segregation in meiosis I.

A
  • Alternate – balanced

- Adjacent I – non homologous centromeres, most common form to give imbalance

- Adjacent 2 – homologous centromeres

  • 3:1 non disjunction
  • 4:0 non disjunction – all balanced
24
Q

Outline Alternate segregation.

A

Alternate – alternate centromeres segregate together

25
Q

Outline Adjacent segregation.

A
26
Q

What is FISH?

A
  • Fluorescent in situ hybridisation (FISH)
  • Molecular cytogenetic technique
  • Allows us to answer specific questions – Need to know what to look for
  • Probes used for specific chromosomes or loci
  • ISCN for FISH probes
27
Q

What are centromere probes?

A
  • Large probes, easy to see Metaphase and interphase
  • Used for: copy number analysis and identifying derivative chromosomes and markers
28
Q

What is the function of whole chromosome paints?

A

Can identify individual chromosomes even when they are rearranged

29
Q

What are locus specific probes?

A
  • Microdeletion/duplication syndromes
  • Too small to see on G-banded chromosomes
30
Q

Outline prenatal aneuploidy screening as a form of interphase analysis

A
  • PND - up to 14 days in culture- causes anxiety
  • Uncultured cells
  • FISH probes for 13,18,21,X &Y – Common aneuploidies
  • Result in 24-48hrs
  • Full karyotype -14 days
  • 99+% concordance with full karyotype – Many patients TOP after FISH
31
Q

Outline Leukaemia FISH as a form of interphase analysis.

A
  • Look for different types of abnormalities
  • Translocations – fusion probes for the genes involved
  • Gene rearrangements – breakapart probes
  • Amplifications – locus specific probes (E.g. her2, c-myc oncogenes)
32
Q

What is microarray comparative genomic hybridisation (aCGH)?

A
  • Examines the whole genome at high resolution
  • Copy number changes

I. Can’t detect balanced rearrangements

II. Not used for mutation detection

  • Uses patient DNA not chromosomes
  • Compare normal control DNA to patient DNA
  • 15-20% abnormality rate in developmental delay cohort.
33
Q

What is CGH slide scanning?

A
  • Scan slide with 3 μm laser scanner
  • Expect 1:1 ratio for test and reference – giving a yellow colour
  • Excess red = more reference DNA and deletion of test DNA
  • Excess green = more test DNA and duplication of test DNA
34
Q

What are the aCGH referral groups?

A
  • Learning difficulties/ developmental delay/ multiple congenital abnormalities
  • Normal karyotype
  • Balanced de novo karyotype – is it really balanced ?
  • Unbalanced karyotypes to assess gene content
35
Q

Read the advantages and disadvantages of Array CGH?

A
  • Advantages

I. Examines the entire genome at a high resolution

II. Targeted against known genetic conditions and sub telomere regions

III. 1 array is the equivalent of many thousands of FISH investigations & can be automated

IV. Detailed information on genes in del/dup region

V. Better phenotype/genotype correlation

  • Disadvantages

I. Arrays are more expensive than karyotyping

II. Will not detect balanced rearrangements – not suitable for referrals

III. Copy number variation (CNV) – what is genuine abnormality ?

IV. Mosaicism may be missed

36
Q

Outline array analysis.

A
  • Scan array slides
  • Input scans into software – Aligent Cytogenomics
  • Run appropriate algorithm for array type
  • Results file produced Quality criteria must be reached
  • Interpret any copy number calls (CNV? Pathogenic?)
  • Follow up using FISH/MLPA/array
37
Q

Outline the results in accordance to:

I. Normal result

II. Pathogenic (causative) change

III. Uncertain change

IV. Benign finding

A
  • Normal result
  • Pathogenic (causative) change

I. Clear pathogenic finding

II. Specific gene(s) or Syndromic region

  • Uncertain change

I. Possibly pathogenic – novel copy number change with relevant gene content

II. Likely benign – novel, large copy number change with no genes or those unlikely to be relevant to phenotype

  • Benign finding

I. Polymorphic finding (use Database of Genomic Variants to assess)

II. Generally not reported