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Catz > MCAT Q&A -Summer 2011 > Flashcards

MCAT Q&A -Summer 2011 Flashcards

1
Q

what’s the opposite of a vector quantity?

A

Scalar

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2
Q

energy is a [scalar/vector/neither] quantity.

A

Scalar

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3
Q

displacement is a [scalar/vector/neither] quantity

A

vector

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4
Q

time is a a [scalar/vector/neither] quantity

A

scalar

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5
Q

cos2θ + sin2θ = ???

A

1

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6
Q

what is mass percent? Define it.

(BR chem. 17)

A

mass of solute / mass of solution

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7
Q

what does ‘solvate’ (verb) mean?

A

Solvate (noun) is an aggregate that consists of a solute ion or molecule with one or more solvent molecules;

also : a substance (as a hydrate) containing such ions (m-w.com)

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8
Q

What is a lipid?

A

Any biological molecule that has low solubility in water (hydrophobic), and high solubility in nonpolar organic solvents.

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9
Q

what does amphipathic mean?

A

Polar at one end (hydrophilic),

nonpolar at the other end (lipophilic)

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10
Q

What are the six major groups of lipids?

A

Fatty acids;

glycolipids;

phospholipids;

steroids;

terpenes

triglycerides (EK Bio 2)

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11
Q

Fatty acids; triglycerides; phospholipids; glycolipids; steroids; terpenes (EK Bio 2)

what must be noted about the above list of 6 lipids?

A

triglycerides; phospholipids; glycolipids

are sometimes simply referred to as ‘fatty acids’ b/c fatty acids are a component of all of them

(EK Bio 2)

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12
Q

the main constituent of veggie oil and animal fat is ____

A

triglyceride

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13
Q

what are fatty acids?

i.e., describe their chemical components

A

they’re long chains of carbons truncated at one end by carboxylic acid

(EK BIO 2)

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14
Q

In humans, what is the max # of carbons for a fatty acid chain?

A

24

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15
Q

Are all fatty acids saturated?

A

No. fatty acids can be saturated or unsaturated

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16
Q

[saturated/unsaturated] fatty acids contain all single bonds

A

saturated

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17
Q

triglycerides are also called ____

A

triacylglycerols

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18
Q

what are the components that make up a triglyceride?

A

3 fatty acids bonded to a glycerol; according to Audio Osmosis it’s “3 carbon chains dangling from a 3-carbon backbone”

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19
Q

what is glycerol?

A

propan-1,2,3-triol

3 hydroxyl groups attached to 3 carbons

A 3-carbon backbone of triglycerides

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20
Q

What is the purpose of triglycerides?

A

To store energy, & provide thermal insulation and padding

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21
Q

special cells, AKA fat cells, whose cytoplasm contains almost nothing but triglycerides, are called _____

A

adipocytes

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22
Q

What are phospholipids?

A

A glycerol backbone with 2 fatty acids and a phosphate group attached

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23
Q

in what part of the cell do we phospholipids?

A

Cell membranes

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24
Q

where are glycolipids found abundantly?

A

In the membranes of myelinated cells of nervous system

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25
Q

what are steroids?

A

4-ringed structures

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26
Q

what is the major purpose/function of steroids?

A

To regulate metabolic activities

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27
Q

what are eicosanoids?

A

20-carbon-length fatty acids

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28
Q

what is the purpose/function of eicosanoids?

A

Local hormones

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29
Q

give examples of steroids.

A

Some hormones,

vitamin D,

cholesterol

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30
Q

what are terpenes?

A

Class of lipids

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31
Q

example of terpenes includes _______

A

vitamin A

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32
Q

In bio, what does the word “essential” mean?

A

Means cannot be produced by the body, so it must be ingested

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33
Q

how many, if any, of the 20 most common amino acids are ‘essential’?

A

between 8 to 11

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34
Q

What’s the ‘primary structure’ of a polypeptide?

A

The sequence and number of amino acids that form the polypeptide chain

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35
Q

what’s the ‘secondary structure’ of a polypeptide?

A

alpha-helix, or beta-pleated sheet

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36
Q

why does the helix, or the pleated sheet, form?

A

Forms from H-bonding

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37
Q

What does the suffux –PHAGE refer to?

A

Cells that “eat” (e.g., Macrophages)

The suffix can also refer to viruses.

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38
Q

What atoms/molecules specifically H-bonds in the secondary structures?

A

H-bonding between the carboxyl oxygen of one amino acid, and the hydrogen on the amino group (–NH2) of the other amino acid

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39
Q

True/False – 2nd-ary structures are created by interactions between the side chains of adjacent amino acids

A

False.

Created by interaction between atoms of the peptides’ backbone

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40
Q

What’s the tertiary structure?

A

Overall 3-dimensional structure of a single polypeptide chain

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41
Q

how is the tertiary structure created?

A

By variety of interactions among R-groups, or

between the R-groups and the peptide backbone

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42
Q

What types of chemical bonds make tertiary structures possible?

A

Disulfide bonds,

H-bonds,

ionic interactions between acidic and hydrophobic side chains;

van der Waals

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43
Q

What’s the quaternary structure of proteins?

A

Two or more polypeptide chains binding together

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44
Q

two broad types/categories of proteins are ____ and ____

A

globular and structural

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45
Q

What’s the difference between globular and structural proteins?

A

Structural proteins made from long polymers; they add strength to cellular and matrix structures

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46
Q

When you see nitrogen on the MCAT, think [nucleic acids/ some lipids / some carbs / proteins]

A

all of the above have nitrogen, but for the MCAT think PROTEIN

(EK Bio 6)

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47
Q

glucose is a #-carbon sugar

A

6

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48
Q

if glucose needs to be stored, it is converted by the body to _____

A

glycogen, or into fat

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49
Q

what is glycogen. Describe it.

A

Branched glucose polymer

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50
Q

Does glycogen have alpha or beta linkages?

A

alpha linkages

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51
Q

glycogen is stored mainly in ______?

A

stored in mainly the liver and muscles as glycogen. (wiki article on glucose)

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52
Q

The polysaccharides formed from glucose by plants are _______.

A

starch and cellulose

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53
Q

Given:
glycogen, cellulose, and starch.

Which of these have alpha linkages, which beta?

A

Glycogen and starch have alpha

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54
Q

the basic monomer of a DNA strand is ____

A

a nucleotide

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55
Q

Name the 3 components of nucleotides.

A

a 5-carbon sugar,

nitrogenous base,

phosphate group

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56
Q

what specific bond joins together individual nucleotides?

A

The phosphodiester bond

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57
Q

what bonding joins together the two strands of a DNA molecule?

A

The ‘rungs’ of the DNA spiral ‘ladder’ are held together by hydrogen bonding

(EK bio 8)

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58
Q

name the nucleotides that make up DNA

A

adenine,

thymine,

cytosine, and

guanine

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59
Q

how is RNA different from the above list of nucleotides?

A

RNA lacks thymine; instead has uracil

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60
Q

List other very important nucleotides, besides A T C G and U.

A

ATP;

GMP

cyclic AMP;

NADH; &

FADH2

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61
Q

What are ‘minerals’ when talking about them in biology?

A

The dissolved inorganic ions inside and outside the cell

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62
Q

[true/false] :

Enzymes alter the equilibrium of a rxn

A

false.

Enzymes are catalysts. Like any catalyst, enzymes don’t alter eq of a rxn

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63
Q

The reactant or reactants upon which the enzyme works, is called a _____

A

substrate

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64
Q

the part of the enzyme to which the substrate binds, is called _____

A

the active site

(EK bio 11)

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65
Q

Besides the lock-and-key model, there’s also the _______ theory/model

A

induced fit

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66
Q

explain ‘saturation kinetics’

A

as the concentration of substrate increases, the rate of rxn also increases, but

it’s diminishing returns until a Vmax is reached (horizontal asymptote)

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67
Q

What are coenzymes?

A

Organic molecule that serves as a type of cofactor

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68
Q

what are cofactors?

A

A non-protein component that many enzymes require to reach optimal activity

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69
Q

are vitamins related to coenzymes? If so, how?

A

Many vitamins or vitamin-derivatives are coenzymes

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70
Q

list the mechanisms by which enzyme activity can be blocked.

A

Competitive inhibition;

noncompetitive inhibition; and

irreversible inhibition

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71
Q

Competitive inhibition;

noncompetitive inhibition; and

irreversible inhibition

Which of the above 3 mechanisms is highly toxic?

A

irreversible

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72
Q

How do irreversible inhibitors work?

A

They bind covalently to enzymes (a few bond noncovalently)

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73
Q

describe non-competitive inhibition

A

the inhibitor bonds to an enzyme at a spot OTHER than the active site, and changes the conformation of the enzyme

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74
Q

The inactive form of an enzyme is called a/n?

A

zymogen, or

proenzyme

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75
Q

The shutdown mechanism for enzyme activity is called ____

A

negative feedback

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76
Q

Metabolism consists of ____bolism and ___bolism

A

catabolism,

anabolism

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77
Q

which –bolism means “building up”?

A

anabolism is molecular synthesis

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78
Q

The first stage of aerobic respiration is ___

A

glycolysis

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79
Q

The first stage of anaerobic respiration is____

A

glycolysis

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80
Q

briefly summarize/explain/define glycolysis

A

the series of rxns that break glucose molecule into two 3-carbon molecules of pyruvate

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81
Q

is pyruvate related to pyruvic acid?

A

yes

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82
Q

how is pyruvate related to pyruvic acid?

A

Pyruvate is the conjugate base of pyruvic acid

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83
Q

glycolysis produces a net of ____ ATP molecules

A

2

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84
Q

true/false:

glycolysis will not occur w/o oxygen

A

false.

It can occur with and w/o oxygen

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85
Q

anaerobic respiration is also called?

A

fermentation

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86
Q

in fermentation, pyruvate is turned into _____ in human muscle cells

A

lactic acid

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87
Q

yeast turns pyruvate into ____ during fermentation

A

ethanol

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88
Q

after glycolysis, what happens next with Aerobic respiration?

A

Pyruvate and NADH move into mitochondrion, where the pyruvate is converted into acetyl CoA

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89
Q

What’s the next step after pyruvate is converted to Acetyl CoA?

A

Krebs cycle

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90
Q

Krebs cycle is aka?

A

Citric acid cycle

and

Tricarboxylic acid cycle (TCA)

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91
Q

1 glucose molecule produces ___ turns of the Krebs cycle

A

2

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92
Q

Each turn of the Krebs cycle produces ___ ATP, ____ NADH, & ___ FADH2.

A

1 ATP,

3 NADH, &

1 FADH2

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93
Q

AERObic respiration, including glycolysis, produces a net ____ ATP molecules

A

36

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94
Q
  1. What is the electron transport chain?
  2. Where is it located?
A

Series of proteins called cytochromes in the inner membrane of the mitochondrion

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95
Q

In MCAT’s Newtonian physics, the two types of friction are:

A

static friction and kinetic friction

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96
Q

which of the two types of Newtonian friction is usually larger?

A

Static

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97
Q

What’s the temp of the human body, in Celsius?

A

37

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98
Q

What’s the molar mass of water?

A

18 grams per mole

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99
Q

What are the 4 broad groups for the 20 amino acids?

A

Nonpolar; polar; acidic, and basic

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100
Q

How do you remember the** basic** amino acids? [mnemonic device]

A

The basic acids with basic R groups are H-A-L

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101
Q

How do you remember the acidic amino acids?

A

They’re aspartic acid; and glutamic acid.

Just memorize them.

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102
Q

what chemical is the intermediate between pyruvate and the Krebs cycle?

A

Acetyl CoA

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103
Q

What does the electron transport chain really do? What is its purpose/function?

A

Pass down electrons from 1 protein to next. They pump protons into the inter-membrane space so that the inter-membrane space will have low pH.

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104
Q

What’s ATP synthase?

A

Integral protein of the inner membrane of Mitochondria

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105
Q

What does ATP synthase do?

A

allows protons to flow thru the membrane back into mitochondrial matrix;

The overall reaction sequence is:

ATP synthase + ADP + Pi → ATP Synthase + ATP

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106
Q

How does the body break down fat for energy?

[answer has several steps]

A

Triglycerides broken into glycerol and fatty acids;

glycerol enters glycolysis.

Fatty acids taken to mitochondrial matrix and turned into Acetyl CoA

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107
Q

How does the body break down proteins for energy? Specifically, where in the energy cycle do the proteins enter?

A

amino acids enter the production processes at different points, depending on the type of amino acid involved

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108
Q

where in the body is pyruvate converted to Acetyl CoA?

A

Inside the mitochondrial matrix

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109
Q

In aerobic organisms, when/why would fermentation occur?

A

If O2 were not present

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110
Q

Describe the fermentation process.

A

NADH oxidized back to NAD+;

(this process produces CO2 and ethanol (in yeast), or lactic acid in other organisms.)

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111
Q

What are the net products of glycolysis?

A

the net products of glycolysis:

2 atp; 2 nadh; 2 pyruvates

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112
Q

What’s substrate level phosphorylation?

A

Refers to the process of ATP production in the Krebs cycle

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113
Q

What’s oxidative phosphorylation?

A

The production of ATP using ATP synthase

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114
Q

What is helicase?

A

A motor protein

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115
Q

What does helicase do?

A

They move directionally along a nucleic acid phosphodiester backbone, separating two annealed nucleic acid strands by breaking the H-bonds between annealed nucleotide bases

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116
Q

What powers helicase?

A

the energy from ATP hydrolysis

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117
Q

True/False:

Helicase is just one protein that’s the same, no matter which organism it’s found in.

A

False.

There are many helicases (14 confirmed in E. coli, 24 in human cells) resulting from the great variety of processes in which strand separation must be catalyzed

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118
Q

How does helicase “move”?

A

move incrementally along one nucleic acid strand of the duplex with a directionality and processivity specific to each particular enzyme.

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119
Q

What’s the replication fork?

A

Structure that forms during DNA replication when the double helix unwinds and is partially unzipped

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120
Q

What is the function of DNA polymerase?

A

Adds nucleotides to a new strand of DNA

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121
Q

Can DNA polymerases start a new strand of DNA?

A

No.

They can only add new nucleotides to an existing strand of DNA.

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122
Q

DNA Polymerases can only add new nucleotides to an existing strand of DNA.

So then, what can start a new DNA strand?

A

a primer

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123
Q

What is a primer?

What is it made of, and

what is its function?

A

A primer is a strand of nucleic acid (most of the time it’s RNA) that serves as a starting point for DNA synthesis.

They are required for DNA replication because the enzymes that catalyze this process, DNA polymerases, can only add new nucleotides to an existing strand of DNA.

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124
Q

Where on the DNA strand does the polymerase start its replication?

A

The polymerase starts replication at the 3’-end of the primer, and copies the opposite strand.

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125
Q

what’s meant by the “fluid mosaic model”?

A

means that the phospholipids that make up the bilayer of a membrane can float around, but can’t separate from the bilayer

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126
Q

in eukaryotic molecules, ________ regulates membrane fluidity

A

cholesterol

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127
Q

What’s a lagging strand?

A

The lagging strand is that strand of the DNA double helix that is orientated in a 5’ to 3’ manner

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128
Q

All DNA synthesis occurs [5’-3’ / 3’-5’].

A

5’-3’

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129
Q

To produce a complementary strand, the original DNA strand must be read [5’-3’ / 3’-5’] to produce a new 5’-3’ strand.

A

The original DNA strand must be read 3’-5’ to produce a 5’-3’ nascent strand.

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130
Q

T/F:

Both strands, leading and lagging, are replicated in long, continuous strands.

A

false

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131
Q

“Both strands, leading and lagging, are replicated in long, continuous strands.”

Correct the above statement.

A

One strand is made continuously; the other strand is made in discontinuous fragments

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132
Q

What is the leading strand?

A

the strand of DNA that is being replicated continuously. It is the strand that is being continuously polymerized towards the replication fork.

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133
Q

What direction does the lagging strand grow in?

A

opposite to the unzipping of the replication fork

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134
Q

The lagging strand is made in fragments.

What are these fragments called?

A

Okazaki fragments

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135
Q

Why is the lagging strand made in fragments?

A

Because the strand is growing away from the replication fork, it needs to be replicated in fragments because the Primase (that adds the RNA primer) has to wait until the fork opens further to be able to put the primer.

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136
Q

What are bacteriophages?

A

virus that infects bacteria

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137
Q

What is capsid?

A

protein coat containing nucleic acids of virus

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138
Q

Which viruses often have an eicosehedral capsid?

A

Bacteriophages and

most animal viruses

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139
Q

most viruses that infect eukaryotes are engulfed by an _____ process

A

endocytotic

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140
Q

What are the 2 possible life cycles of the virus?

A

lytic cycle and lysogenic cycle.

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141
Q

How are viruses different from living things?

A

VIRUS not living cuz:

  • -do not contain both DNA and RNA
  • -have either DNA OR RNA
  • -don’t make their own ATP, instead use the host cell’s ATP
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142
Q

Why is there a species barrier against many viral infections?

A

virus needs specific glycoprotein on host’s cell membrane, in order to enter Host cell.

Different species have different cell membranes with different glycoproteins. This is why there’s the species barrier against viral infections.

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143
Q

What’s a Virulent virus?

A

virus that follows the lytic life cycle

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144
Q

What’s the other category of virus, other than virulent viruses?

A

Temperate viruses

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145
Q

What is a temperate virus?

A

virus in a lysogenic life cycle

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146
Q

What does a virus do after attaching to a cell membrane?

A

After attaching to cell membrane, virus either

injects nukes directly into cell, or

for animal viruses, is taken into cell through endocytosis

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147
Q

Describe briefly the lytic cycle.

Summarize the lytic life cycle.

A

Lytic cycle – the viral nucleic acids and enzymes immediately take over the reproductive functions of the cell, start making virions. Cell swells with virions and bursts, releasing virions into external environment.

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148
Q

Summarize the lysogenic cycle.

A

Lysogenic cycle – the virus’ nukes are incorporated into host cell genome. Host cell makes copies of the viral nukes as it naturally reproduces.

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149
Q

What’s a provirus?

A

Provirus – name of viral DNA that is embedded in host DNA

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150
Q

Can a virus have single stranded DNA?

Can a virus have double-stranded RNA?

A

Virus classified by type of nuke it produces.

It can have either single, or double-stranded DNA. Or

it can have either single- or double-stranded RNA.

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151
Q

What is meant by ‘Plus-strand RNA’ or ‘positive-sense’ RNA’?

A

some viruses have plus-strand RNA, meaning the RNA can be directly translated into protein

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152
Q

What is meant by MINUS-strand (negative sense)** **RNA?

A

has to be transcribed into positive-sense RNA (by an RNA polymerase) before it can be translated.

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153
Q

What is Reverse transcriptase?

A

enzyme carried by Retroviruses to create DNA from its RNA, by reverse-transcribing RNA into DNA for incorporation into host-cell’s genome

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154
Q

What is the most famous retrovirus?

A

HIV

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155
Q

what happens to the DNA created by a retrovirus?

A

DNA is incorporated into genome of host cell

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156
Q

measles, rabies, flu, are all [plus/minus]-strand RNA viruses

A

MINUS

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157
Q

what is Positive-sense (plus-strand RNA) analogous to?

A

viral mRNA

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158
Q

What are Viroids?

A

infectious pieces of naked RNA in ring form; infect only plants

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159
Q

What are Prions?

A

naked proteins that cause infections in animals; CAN REPRODUCE themselves w/o DNA or RNA

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160
Q

What is Monera?

A

a now-obsolete taxonomic group in biological classification originally understood as one of five biological Kingdoms.

The kingdom Monera included most organisms with a prokaryotic cell organization (that is, no nucleus). For this reason, the kingdom was sometimes called Prokaryota or Prokaryotae.

Under the three-domain system of taxonomy established in 1990, the organisms formerly within Monera have been divided into two Domains, Archaea and Bacteria (with Eukaryote as the third domain).

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161
Q

What makes Prokaryotes distinct from eukaryotes?

A

no membrane-bound nucleus

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162
Q

What are the 2 domains that now make up the old-fashioned grouping called Prokaryotes?

A

bacteria and

archaea

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163
Q

What is the difference between archaea and prokaryotes?

A

archaea cell walls not made of peptidoglycan

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164
Q

the 2 domains that now make up the old-fashioned grouping called Prokaryotes, are bacteria and archaea.

What is the difference between archaea and bacteria?

A

archaea cell walls not made of peptidoglycan

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165
Q

What are Virions?

A

metabolically inactive form of the virus

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166
Q

What are the names of the major shapes of bacteria?

A

The major shapes of bacteria are coccus Cocci (round) or bacillus bacilli (rod shape)

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167
Q

Besides cocci and bacilli, what are other bacterial shapes?

A

Other bacteria shapes are

  • spirilla (twists like a spiral),
  • vibrio (a curved rod shape or “comma” shape), and
  • spirochetes
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168
Q

what are the main components of a phospholipid?

A

A phosphate group,

2 fatty acid chains, and a

glycerol backbone

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169
Q

T/F: Phospholipids are amphipathic

A

true

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170
Q

which part of the phospholipids is polar, and which nonpolar?

A

Phosphate group = polar;

fatty acid chain = nonpolar

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171
Q

proteins that punch through both bilayers are called _______

A

Integral proteins, or intrinsic proteins

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172
Q

proteins that pierce only one layer of the phospholipids bilayer are called _____

A

Peripheral or extrinsic proteins

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173
Q

the carbohydrate portion of a glycoprotein always protrudes towards the [inside/outside] of the cell.

A

outside

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174
Q

each layer of the bilayer is called a _____

A

leaflet

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175
Q

what’s passive diffusion?

A

something moves across the membrane in the direction of its electrochemical gradient

w/o use of a specific protein channel,

w/o expenditure of additional energy

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176
Q

The more charge a molecule has, the [harder/easier] it is to passively diffuse across membrane

A

harder

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177
Q

Can facilitative diffusion be in any particular direction?

A

Facilitative diffusion – must be in direction of electrochemical gradient of the molecule being transported

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178
Q

______ transport = against electrochemical gradient

A

active transport goes against the electrochemical gradient

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179
Q

Is the Sodium-potassium pump an example of active or facilitative transport?

A

active

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180
Q

What does the sodium-potassium pump do?

A

3 Na out of cell,

2 K into cell

(1 ATP expended)

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181
Q

What is Peptidoglycan / murein?

A

Peptidoglycan, also known as murein, is a polymer consisting of sugars and amino acids that forms a mesh-like layer outside the plasma membrane of bacteria (but not Archaea), forming the cell wall.

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182
Q

When saying ‘gram positive’, what part of the bacteria gets stained?

A

Staining the peptidoglycan cell walls

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183
Q

what color is a Gram positive stain?

A

dark purple

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184
Q

What color is a gram negative stain?

A

pink

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185
Q

What are Fimbria?

[microbiology]

A

short tentacles possessed by many gram-negative bacteria.

Not involved in motility.

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186
Q

Flagella is made from a protein called _____

A

flagellin

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187
Q

in bacteria, flagella are powered by ______

A

proton pump

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188
Q

What’s Chemotaxis?

A

Chemotaxis is the phenomenon in which somatic cells, bacteria, and other single-cell or multicellular organisms direct their movements according to certain chemicals in their environment.

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189
Q

what’s a plasmid?

A

Small circles of DNA that exist and replicate independently of the bacterial chromosome

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190
Q

what is the method employed by Bacteria to reproduce?

A

Bacteria reproduce by Binary fission

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191
Q

what are the methods by which bacteria recombine their genes?

A

Recombine their genes through conjugation, transformation, transduction

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192
Q

conjugation, transformation, transduction

in which of the above 3 methods is f-plasmid involved?

A

conjugation

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193
Q

What is bacterial conjugation?

A

Bacterial conjugation is the transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells by direct cell-to-cell contact or by a bridge-like connection between two cells.

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194
Q

What is an F plasmid?

A

A type of fertility factor or F-factor

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195
Q

what’s a fertility factor?

A

Fertility factor (also known as the F factor, or sex factor) is a bacterial DNA sequence that allows a bacterium to produce a sex pilus necessary for conjugation.

A common form of F-factor is an F-plasmid

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196
Q

In bacteriology, What’s transformation?

A

pick up naked DNA from outside environment

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197
Q

What’s transduction?

A

transfer of genetic information thru vector, such as virus

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198
Q

what’s an Endospore?

A

a dormant, tough, and temporarily non-reproductive structure produced by certain bacteria;

Endospores enable bacteria to lay dormant for extended periods, even centuries.

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199
Q

What are autotrophs?

A

can fix CO2 and use it as carbon source

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200
Q

What are the opposite of autotrophs?

A

Heterotrophs

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201
Q

What are chemotrophs?

A

use oxidation of organic or inorganic matter as energy source

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202
Q

What are Lithotrophs?

A

Some types of bacteria that use inorganic matter source for electrons

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203
Q

What are organotrophs?

A

type of chemotroph that gets electrons from organic matter

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204
Q

What does it mean to say that all fungi are exodigestors?

A

All fungi are exodigestors – spit on food, lie in it, and absorb nutrients

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205
Q

what does Saprophytic mean?

A

eats dead stuff

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206
Q

Fungus have Cell walls made from a polysaccharide called _____

A

chitin

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207
Q

Do fungus do asexual or sexual reproduction?

A

Can do asexual and sexual reproduction

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208
Q

Each turn of the Krebs cycle produces these molecules:

A

ATP;

FADH2

NADH

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209
Q

A glycolysis reaction produces these molecules:

A

ATP

NADH

Pyruvate

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210
Q

Minus-strand (i.e., negative-sense) RNA is transcribed into plus-strand RNA by this protein:

A

an RNA polymerase

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211
Q

most fungi are [unicellular/multicellular]

A

multicellular

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212
Q

What is hyphae?

A

A hypha (plural hyphae) is a long, branching filamentous structure of a fungus.

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213
Q

In most fungi, ___ are the main mode of vegetative growth

A

hyphae

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214
Q

Hyphae are collectively called :

A

mycelium

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215
Q

nuclear pores allow ___ to pass freely to and from cytosol

A

RNA

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216
Q

what happens inside a nucleolus

A

ribosomal subunits assembled;

rRNA transcribed

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217
Q

What are the 3 types of endocytosis?

A

phagocytosis,

receptor-mediated endocytosis,

pinocytosis

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218
Q

The bag that forms as a result of phagocytosis is called _________

A

phagosome

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219
Q

what are mitotic spindle fibers made from?

A

Tubulin

(EK bio 77)

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220
Q

in vertebrates, phagocytosis is seen more with ____.

A

WBC

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221
Q

What’s the word associated in pinocytosis?

A

invagination

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222
Q

Which cells can do pinocytosis?

A

most cells do pinocytosis

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223
Q

What is receptor mediated endocytosis?

A

R-M endocytosis refers specifically to uptake of macromolecules,

e.g. hormones and nutrients

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224
Q

Cholesterol is taken in to cell, by what type of endocytosis?

A

R-M endocytosis

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225
Q

rough ER is also called _______

A

granular ER

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226
Q

A series of flattened, membrane bound sacs in the cell are called ____

A

Golgi complex

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227
Q

What role does the Rough ER play?

A

The ribosomes on the rough ER translates proteins;

mRNA of proteins binds to free ribosomes

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228
Q

ribosome-mRNA complex is commonly attached to:

A

Rough ER

229
Q

What happens to proteins after they are made on the ER?

A

proteins carried from ER to golgi apparatus

230
Q

Each layer or compartment of the golgi apparatus is called a _______

A

cisterna

231
Q

What does the Golgi do?

A

Organizes and concentrates the proteins;

golgi also makes lysosomes

232
Q

What does the smooth ER do?

A

smooth ER – Lipid synthesis, including steroids;
packages proteins;

smooth ER in liver – detoxes many poisons;
assists in controlling calcium ion concentration

233
Q

What does the smooth ER in liver do?

A

detoxes many poisons;
assists in controlling calcium ion concentration

234
Q

What is cytoskeleton?

What’s it made of?

A

A cellular scaffolding or skeleton contained within a cell’s cytoplasm.

It consists of a Network of filaments and tubules

235
Q

What do microfilaments do?

A

They squeeze membrane together in phagocytosis and cytokinesis;

They produce the contracting force in muscles;

involved in cytoplasmic streaming (amoeba movement)

236
Q

What do microfilaments do in muscles?

A

They produce the contracting force in muscles

237
Q

What is the important role of microfilaments in amoeba?

A

involved in cytoplasmic streaming (amoeba movement)

238
Q

Which are larger: microtubules or microfilaments?

A

Microtubules

239
Q

What are microtubules?

A

Rigid hollow tubes involved in flagella and cilia construction

240
Q

What protein makes up microtubules?

A

Tubulin

241
Q

what’s an axoneme?

A

The cytoskeletal structure of eukaryotic flagella

242
Q

what arrangement does the axoneme consist of, specifically?

A

9 + 2 arrangement

243
Q

Describe the 9 + 2 arrangement.

A

Nine pairs of microtubules forming a circle around 2 long microtubules

244
Q

What is dynein?

A

Protein in flagella that that acts as a bridge that connects the 9 microtubules (of an axoneme) to each other

245
Q

T/F:

the 9 + 2 arrangement is seen with both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

A

False.

Only with eukaryotic flagella

246
Q

What is prokaryotic flagella made of?

A

A protein called flagellin

247
Q

what’s a centrosome?

What is its function?

A

an organelle that serves as the main microtubule organizing center (MTOC) of the animal cell

248
Q

what’s a centrosomes made of?

A

Centrosomes are composed of two orthogonally arranged centrioles.

249
Q

what do centrioles do?

A

Make mitotic spindle fibers

Involved in production of flagella and cilia

250
Q

what protein makes up microfilaments?

A

Actin

251
Q

The three types of cellular jcns that connect animal cells are:

A

tight jcns,

desmosomes, and

gap jcns

252
Q

what are tight jcns?

A

Form watertight seal from cell to cell; blocks water ions and other molecules and fluids.

253
Q

the part of a cell facing the lumen of a cavity is called the ____ surface

A

apical

254
Q

the opposite side of the apical surface is the ______ surface.

A

Basolateral

255
Q

What are desmosomes?

A

Like welds holding the cell together

256
Q

what are gap jcns?

A

Tunnels between cells

257
Q

do mitochondria have RNA?

A

Yes

258
Q

Mitochondrial DNA comes from the [father / ** mother / both]**

A

mother

259
Q

Mitochondria have [1 / 2] phospholipids layers.

A

2 phospholipid bilayers

260
Q

What is basal lamina?

What is its function?

A

Thin sheet of extracellular matrix that separates epithelial cells from support tissue.

261
Q

What does basement membrane refer to?

A

Same thing as basal lamina

262
Q

what is collagen?

A

Structural protein found in extracellular matrix; gives cartilage and bone their strength

263
Q

(1) what’s a glycocalyx?
(2) Where is it located?
(3) What pathology is it involved in?

A

–Animal analogy to plants’ cell wall;

–separates cell membrane from extracellular matrix.

–Cancer cells have abnormal glycocalyx

264
Q

What are the 4 tissue types?

A

epithelial,

nervous,

muscle,

connective

265
Q

What 3 body systems allow for intercellular communication?

A

nervous, paracrine, endocrine

266
Q

nervous, paracrine, endocrine

which of the above 3 has the most limited reach?

A

Paracrine

267
Q

what is the typical reach of the paracrine system?

A

A few millimeters

268
Q

what are the messengers that travel through the nervous system?

A

Neurotransmitters

269
Q

what are the messengers that travel through the paracrine system?

A

Hormones like prostaglandins

270
Q

What types of tissue are connective?

A

Blood, lymph, bone, cartilage, adipose, tendons, ligaments

271
Q

what are the messengers that travel through the endocrine system?

A

hormones that travel all over the body

272
Q

The parts of a neuron are:

A

dendrites,

cell body soma,

axon,

axon terminal

273
Q

What do the dendrites do?

A

Receive signal to be transmitted

274
Q

what’s an axon?

A

The long, slender “tunnel” part of a neuron

275
Q

What’s an axon hillock?

A

The part of a nerve cell that connects the soma with the axon

276
Q

what’s a soma (when talking about neurons)?

A

The part of the neuron that has the nucleus, and from which the dendrites branch out.

277
Q

The nerve signal travels a neuron from its _______ to its _______

A

from the dendrites to the axon hillock, where an action potential is generated and moves down the axon to the axon terminal synapse

278
Q

What’s the action potential of neuron?

A

Disturbance in the electric field across the membrane of a neuron

279
Q

What’s resting potential?

A

b/c of the work of the Na/K pump (among others), the neuron has a positive charge on the outside; and a negative charge on the inside of the cell membrane. So there’s an electric potential difference (voltage) across the cell membrane

280
Q

What causes the resting potential in neurons?

A

b/c of the work of the Na/K pump (among others)

281
Q

Where is the positive charge on a neuron?

Where is the negative charge on a neuron?

A

Positive charge is outside the cell

Negative charge is Inside.

282
Q

What kind of genetic material do measles, rabies, and flu viruses have?

A

minus-strand RNA

283
Q

in the neuron, an action potential begins at the _____

A

axon hillock

284
Q

in neurons, what does all-or-nothing mean?

A

Action potentials are all-or-nothing. Meaning, the neuron’s cell membrane completely depolarizes, or ELSE no action potential is generated at all.

285
Q

threshold potential is AKA:

A

threshold stimulus

286
Q

What’s threshold potential?

A

the minimum stimulus needed, to generate an action potential

287
Q

what’s Brownian motion?

A

Random motion of molecules

288
Q

what are the types of synapses?

A

Chemical and electrical

289
Q

which synapse is faster?

A

electrical

290
Q

what is an electrical synapse?

A

Gap jcns between cells.

291
Q

which cells have electrical synapses?

A

Cardiac muscle,

visceral smooth muscle,

very few neurons in the CNS

292
Q

which synapse(s) are unidirectional?

A

Chemical synapse

293
Q

the slowest step in the transfer of a nervous signal from one neuron to another is:

A

at the synapse

294
Q

what other nervous cells exist other than neurons?

A

Glial cells, or

neuroglia

295
Q

which are more abundant in humans, glial cells or neurons?

A

Glial cells

296
Q

what is myelin?

A

Electrically insulating sheaths

297
Q

what cells produce the myelin for the PNS?

A

Schwann cells

298
Q

what advantage does myelin give to neurons?

A

Increases speed at which an axon can transmit signals

299
Q

Do all living things have myelinated axons?

A

Only vertebrates

300
Q

explain what white matter and gray matter refers to.

A

Myelinated axons appear white; nervous system cell bodies appear gray

301
Q

on an axon, the gaps between myelin sheaths are called _____

A

nodes of Ranvier

302
Q

What is noteworthy about the nodes of Ranvier?

A

the action potential jumps from one node to the next; this is called saltatory conduction

303
Q

For the MCAT, what does “sympathetic” and “parasympathetic” mean?

A

sympathetic → fight or flight

parasympathetic → rest and digest

304
Q

What specific branch of the nervous system are sympathetic and parasympathetic a part of?

A

They are under the autonomic branch of the NS

305
Q

What is the other branch of the PNS, besides autonomic?

A

Somatic

306
Q

under what branch of the PNS is “sensory” and “motor” seen?

A

both the autonomic branch AND the somatic branch

307
Q

where are rod cells and cone cells found?

A

On the retina

308
Q

the pigment on rod cells is called ____

A

rhodopsin

309
Q

which cell distinguishes colors?

A

cones

310
Q

what part of the ear is responsible for balance?

A

Semicircular canals

311
Q

what part of the ear turns sound waves into neural signals that are sent thru the nerves into the brain?

A

Organ of Corti

312
Q

CNS refers to:

A

brain and spinal cord

313
Q

Another NAME for the somatic nervous system:

A

voluntary

314
Q

the involuntary nervous system is AKA:

A

autonomic

visceral

315
Q

the voluntary nervous system is AKA:

A

somatic

316
Q

[exocrine/endocrine] glands release hormones into external environment thru ducts

A

exocrine

317
Q

[endocrine/exocrine] glands release hormones directly into bloodstream in the capillaries

A

endocrine

318
Q

sweat, oil, mucous, and digestive glands are all examples of [endocrine/exocrine] glands

A

eXocrine

319
Q

All hormones work by binding to proteins called ______

A

receptors

320
Q

What is the endocrine system responsible for?

A

endocrine system regulates:

metabolism,

growth and development, and

reproduction

321
Q

What are the 3 basic classes of hormones?

A

peptide hormones,

steroid hormones, and

tyrosine derivatives

322
Q

where inside the cell, are peptide hormones made?

A

made in rough ER; then sent to Golgi

323
Q

In its initial stages, when a hormone is just made by the ER, what is it called? What form is it in?

A

preprohormone

324
Q

how does a cell that manufactured a hormone, release it?

A

cell is stimulated by other hormone OR by nervous system,

cell releases hormone thru exocytosis of secretory vesicle

325
Q

T/F:

peptide hormones are water soluble, so they dissolve in blood and blood carries them to destination

A

TRU

326
Q

What’s an effector?

A

The target cell of a hormone; the cell that the hormone is intended to affect

327
Q

when a peptide hormone arrives at a target cell, how does it enter the cell? Or does it enter the cell at all?

A

Hormone doesn’t diffuse thru membrane;

instead, binds to receptor on the membrane

328
Q

what’s an intracellular second messenger?

What does it do?

A

Chemicals that respond to hormone (the 1st messenger) by activating/deactivating enzymes and/or ion channels to create a series (“cascade”) of chemical reactions

329
Q

Common second messengers include:

A

cAMP;

cGMP; and

calmodulin

330
Q

steroid hormones are often derived from and are chemically similar to ______

A

cholesterol

331
Q

Steroid hormones are [carbohydrates/lipids/proteins]

A

lipids!

332
Q

T/F:

steroid hormones are water soluble, so they dissolve in blood and blood carries them to destination

A

usually false.

Steroids are lipids, so they require a protein transport molecule to be able to travel thru blood stream

333
Q

T/F:

steroids diffuse thru the cell membrane of the effector.

A

tru

334
Q

the 3 stuctures or organs within the body, that produce steroid hormones are :

A

placenta,

gonads,

adrenal cortex

335
Q

What are the 2 tyrosine hormone groups that we have to know?

A

thyroid hormones, and

catecholamines

336
Q

name the thyroid hormones.

A

Thriiodothyronine; and

thyroxine

337
Q

name the catecholamines.

A

epinephrine,

norepinephrine,

and

dopamine

338
Q

What’s another name for thyroxine?

A

T4

339
Q

What are the groups of peptide hormones we have to know for the MCAT?

A

4 large groups:

Anterior pituitary hormones (8 hormones);

Posterior pituitary (2 hormones);

the parathyroid hormone PTH (1);

the pancreatic hormones (2)

340
Q

What are the important Steroid hormones we must know for the MCAT?

A

2 major groups:

Adrenal cortex hormones (glucocorticoids and mineral corticoids)

[the specific mineralocorticoid we should know is aldosterone];
[the major glucocorticoid we should know is cortisol];

and the gonadal hormones

341
Q

Where are the catecholamines formed?

A

Adrenal medulla

342
Q

What type of hormone are the catecholamines? Steroid, peptide, tyrosine?

A

They’re tyrosine derivatives

343
Q

epinephrine and norepinephrine are [water/lipid] soluble

A

water

344
Q

the thyroid hormones (T3 & T4) are {water/lipid} -soluble

A

lipid

345
Q

what does the mnemonic device FLAT PG help you memorize?

A

The hormones of the anterior pituitary

346
Q

another name for the anterior pit is _______

A

adenohypophysis

347
Q

the adrenal cortex produces {steroid / peptide / tyrosine} hormones

A

steroid

348
Q

the thyroid produces {steroid / peptide / tyrosine} hormones.

A

tyrosine (e.g. T3 & T4) and peptide (calcitonin) hormones

349
Q

the adrenal medulla produces [steroid / peptide / tyrosine] hormones

A

catecholamines, which are tyrosine derivatives

350
Q

How does the hypothalamus control the anterior pituitary?

A

It controls the pituitary by releasing hormones of its own that it sends to the pituitary.

351
Q

what blood supply connects the hypothalamus with the pit gland?

A

Hypophyseal portal system – blood vessels from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary

352
Q

How many hormone are made and released by the anterior pituitary?

A

8

353
Q

List the 8 anterior pituitary hormones.

A

FLAT PEG =

FSH – follicle-stimulating hormone
LH – leutinizing hormone
ACTH - adrenocorticotropin
TSH – thyroid-stimulating hormone
Prolactin
beta-Endorphins
hGH – human Growth hormone

& MSH - melanocyte stimulating hormone

354
Q

the pituitary releases [peptide / lipid /tyrosine-derivative] hormones.

A

Pit makes peptide hormones

355
Q

Another name for human growth hormone is ______.

A

somatotropin

356
Q

What does hGH do?

A

Stimulates growth of almost all cells of body.

Increases mitosis, Increases transcription and translation.

357
Q

how is hGH unique among the hormones of the ant pit?

A

It doesn’t have a specific target tissue, unlike the other ant pit hormones

358
Q

What does the ACTH do?

A

stimulates adrenal cortex to release glucocorticoids

359
Q

what mechanism does ACTH use to stimulate the adrenal cortex?

A

Stimulates the adrenal cortex via the 2nd messenger system using cAMP

360
Q

What does the TSH do, specifically?

A

stimulates thyroid to release thyroxin and triiodothyronine

361
Q

How does the TSH stimulate the thyroid?

A

Using the 2nd messenger system using cAMP

362
Q

What does prolactin do?

A

Promotes milk production (NOT release of milk)

363
Q

What is another name for vasopressin?

A

ADH

364
Q

Why is the post. pit. called the neurohypophysis?

A

it is largely a collection of axonal projections from the hypothalamus that terminate behind the anterior pituitary gland.

365
Q

T/F:

the post pit makes hormones.

A

False:

Post pituitary hormones made in hypothalamus, but released from post pit

366
Q

What hormones does the post pit release?

A

ADH and

oxytocin

367
Q

What’s somatotropin?

A

hGH

368
Q

What does oxytocin do?

A

uterine contraction during pregnancy and

milk LETDOWN/ejection

369
Q

What does ADH do?

A

↑↑ blood pressure; &

affects water absorption by kidney

370
Q

aldosterone is a _____corticoid

A

mineralocorticoid

371
Q

What does aldosterone do?

A

Acts in the kidneys to:

↓↓ Na excretion;

↑↑ K excretion

↓↓ Water excretion

372
Q

What does cortisol do?

A

↑↑ blood glucose levels (by stimulating gluconeogenesis in the liver);

↓↓ bone formation;

↓↓ the immune system’s B-cell mediated response to inflammation

373
Q

What’s gluconeogenesis?

A

Creation of glucose and glycogen in the liver

374
Q

What is the fcn of the thyroid hormones?

A

Increase BASAL METABOLIC rate.

375
Q

what’s basal metabolic rate?

A

The resting metabolic rate

376
Q

What are the Islets of Langerhans?

A

The islets of Langerhans are the regions of the pancreas that contain its endocrine (i.e., hormone-producing) cells

377
Q

What does calcitonin do?

A

Lowers blood calcium

378
Q

Is the pancreas an endo- or exocrine gland?

A

Both

379
Q

what two important hormones are released by the pancreas?

A

Insulin and

glucagon

380
Q

what cells of the pancreas release insulin?

A

Beta cells

381
Q

What does insulin do?

A

Promotes entry of glucose into cells; thereby ↓↓ blood glucose level

382
Q

what hormone has nearly the opposite effect of insulin?

A

glucagon

383
Q

What cells of the pancreas release glucagon?

A

Alpha cells

384
Q

what does glucagon do?

A

↑↑ gluconeogenesis and Glycogenolysis;

↑↑ blood glucose level

385
Q

How many parathyroid glands exist?

A

4

386
Q

what hormone does the parathyroid gland release?

A

PTH

387
Q

What does PTH do?

A

↑↑↑ concentration of Ca ions in blood

388
Q

what hormone has the opposite effect of parathyroid hormone?

A

calcitonin

389
Q

where does sperm production occur?

A

Seminiferous tubules

390
Q

In response to FSH, what occurs in the body?

(DESCRIBE specific)

A

Growth of ovarian follicles in females;

Males: FSH stimulates **primary spermatocytes** to undergo the first division of meiosis, to form secondary spermatocytes.

391
Q

FSH acts synergistically with ___ hormone

A

LH

392
Q

what does LH do?

A

Luteinizing hormone causes ovulation;

In females, an acute rise of LH called the LH surge triggers ovulation and development of the corpus luteum.

In males, where LH had also been called interstitial cell-stimulating hormone (ICSH), it stimulates Leydig cell production of testosterone.

393
Q

what is estradiol?

A

A sex hormone, a type of estrogen

394
Q

What does estradiol do?

A

Prepares the uterine wall for pregnancy

395
Q

most estradiol in women is produced by the ___ cells.

A

the granulosa cells of the ovaries

396
Q

the luteal surge is an example of ____ feedback

A

positive feedback

397
Q

What’s the zona pellucida?

A

The zona pellucida (plural zonae pellucidae) is a glycoprotein membrane surrounding the plasma membrane of an oocyte.

398
Q

what’s an oocyte?

A

An immature ovum

399
Q

When an egg is released from the ovary, the follicle surrounding it becomes the ______

A

corpus luteum

400
Q

What does the corpus luteum do?

A

Secretes hormones thru pregnancy

401
Q

if there is no pregnancy, what happens to corpus luteum?

A

Degrades into corpus albicans

402
Q

what are the Leydig cells?

Where are they found?

What are they AKA?

And what is their fcn?

A

Leydig cells, also known as interstitial cells of Leydig, are found adjacent to the seminiferous tubules in the testicle.

They produce testosterone in the presence of luteinizing hormone (LH)

403
Q

where in the body is sperm made?

A

Seminiferous tubules

404
Q

what does androgen mean?

A

Any natural or synthetic compound stimulates or controls the development and maintenance of male characteristics

405
Q

what are the organs that contribute to seminal fluid?

A

Seminal vesicles;

prostate; and

bulbourethral gland

406
Q

what are the Cowper’s glands AKA?

A

AKA bulbourethral gland

407
Q

what is the function of prolactin?

A

PROlactin – milk PROduction

408
Q

what are the 3 stages of the menstrual cycle?

A

Follicular phase;

luteal phase; and

flow

409
Q

when does the follicular phase begin?

When does it end?

A

Begins with the development of the follicle and ends at ovulation

410
Q

describe the luteal phase.

Luteal phase begins with ___ and ends with ___.

A

Begins with ovulation and

ends with degeneration of corpus luteum into corpus albicans

411
Q

describe flow phase

A

3 days of shedding of uterine lining

412
Q

where in the body does fertilization take place?

A

Fallopian tubes

413
Q

what’s the acrosome?

A

Bag of enzymes on the head of sperm

414
Q

when the nuclei of the sperm and ovum unite, the new cell is called a ______.

A

zygote

415
Q

what’s a morula?

A

When zygote is composed of 8 or more cells

416
Q

what’s a blastocyst?

A

The zygote turns into a blastocyst, a Hollow ball filled with fluid.

417
Q

by the time the baby attaches to the mother’s uterus, it’s called a :

A

blastocyst

418
Q

what hormone does the fertilized egg secrete after it implants in mother?

A

HCG

419
Q

what does HCG stand for?

A

Human chorionic gonadotropin

420
Q

what is the function of HCG?

A

Prevents degeneration of corpus luteum

421
Q

why is the corpus luteum maintained?

A

So that the corpus can continue secreting estrogen and progesterone

422
Q

what does a pregnancy test, test for?

A

for HCG in the urine and blood of the mother

423
Q

what’s physically in the way of the sperm getting into the oocyte?

A

The granulosa cells and

the zona pellucida

424
Q

what does the blastocyst turn into?

A

Gastrula

425
Q

what happens during gastrulation?

A

Cells begin to move around. In mammals, a primitive streak is formed. The 3 primary germ layers are formed

426
Q

what’s a primitive streak?

Why is it important?

A

[The primitive streak is a structure that forms during the early stages of avian, reptilian and mammalian embryonic development.]

During the early stages of development, the primitive streak is the structure that will establish bilateral symmetry, determine the site of gastrulation and initiate germ layer formation.

427
Q

name the 3 primary germ layers:

A

ectoderm;

endoderm;

mesoderm

428
Q

what does the ectoderm give rise to?

A

Over coverings of body, like:

skin (epidermis),

nails,

tooth enamel, AND

nervous system

the eye,

inner ear, and,

as neural crest cells, to many connective tissues of the head

429
Q

what does the endoderm turn into?

A

bladder

Liver,

Lungs,

pancreas, and

Lining of digestive tract/ alimentary canal

430
Q

what does mesoderm turn into?

A

“the stuff between the inner and outer covering of body:

muscle, bone, and the rest”**

**these are guidelines for the MCAT, NOT fixed rules

431
Q

what does the gastrula turn into?

And what is that process of turning, called?

A

Gastrula undergoes neurulation to become neurula

432
Q

(1) what is the notochord?
(2) From what embryonic layer does it arise?
(3) What is its purpose?

A

The notochord is a flexible, rod-shaped body found in embryos of all chordates.

It is composed of cells derived from the mesoderm and defines the primitive axis of the embryo.

433
Q

When does the neural plate form?

A

In human embryology, formation of neural plate is the first step of neurulation. It is created by a flat thickening opposite to the primitive streak of the ectoderm.

434
Q

Does sound have the same speed through monoatomic gases, diatomic gases, and polyatomic gases?

A

Given the same pressure and gas density, monoatomic gases permit sound to travel thru at greater speed than diatomic and polyatomic gases.

435
Q

Does sound have the same speed through a gas, regardless of its temperature?

A

Sound travels faster through hotter air than colder air

(TBR Physics Book 2, page 5)

436
Q

When we talk about sound, what does pitch mean?

A

The frequency of that sound

437
Q

where does the digestion of protein begin in the body?

A

Stomach

438
Q

Where are the crypts of Lieberkühn found?

A

Small intestine and

colon

439
Q

where does the digestion of carbs begin in the body?

A

mouth

440
Q

what is digested in the esophagus?

A

Nothing

441
Q

the 3 sections of the Small intestine are:

A

duodenum, jejunum, ileum

442
Q

what’s chyme?

A

The fluid that the stomach turns food into

443
Q

what’s the pH of a full stomach?

A

2

444
Q

the 4 major cell types in the stomach are :

A

mucous cells;

chief cells;

parietal cells; and

G cells

445
Q

chief cells are AKA?

A

Peptic cells

446
Q

parietal cells are AKA?

A

Oxyntic cells

447
Q

what does the G cell do?

A

Secretes gastrin

448
Q

where in the digestive system are goblet cells found?

A

Small intestines and

colon

449
Q

what is gastrin?

A

a peptide hormone

450
Q

what does gastrin do?

A

Stimulate secretion of HCl in stomach

451
Q

what nutrients are absorbed in the stomach?

A

No absorption occurs in the stomach

452
Q

what are chief cells AKA?

A

Peptic cells

453
Q

what do chief cells do?

A

releases pepsinogen and

gastric lipase

454
Q

what is pepsinogen?

A

The precursor to pepsin

455
Q

what is pepsin?

A

Enzyme that breaks down protein

456
Q

what do parietal cells do?

A

Secrete HCl

457
Q

where does most of the digestion take place in the digestive system?

A

Small intestine

458
Q

what’s a lacteal?

Where is it found

A

The lymphatic vessel inside each villus of the small intestine

459
Q

what does the lacteal do?

A

Absorb fat

460
Q

what do goblet cells do?

A

Secrete the precursor to mucus

461
Q

what do the crypts of Lieberkühn secrete?

A

secrete various enzymes, including

peptidases,

sucrase, maltase, lactase and

intestinal lipase

462
Q

what thing prevents food from entering the lungs?

A

Epiglottis

463
Q

why is the pH of the duodenum different from the stomach?

A

Presence of bicarbonate ion

464
Q

where does the bicarbonate ion in the duodenum, come from?

A

Secreted by pancreas

465
Q

what is the pH of the duodenum?

A

6

466
Q

what are the enzymes released by the pancreas into the small intestine?

A

Trypsin(ogen),

chymotripsin(ogen),

elastase,

carboxypeptidase,

pancreatic amylase,

lipase,

phospholipase,

ribonuclease, and deoxyribonuclease

467
Q

what does trypsin do?

A

Degrade proteins into polypeptides

468
Q

what does chymotripsin do?

A

cleaves peptide bonds where the carboxyl side of the bond (the P1 position) is a hydrophobic amino acid (tyrosine, tryptophan, or phenylalanine)

469
Q

where is bile stored?

A

Gall bladder

470
Q

where is bile made?

A

Liver

471
Q

through what opening/path does the gall bladder release bile?

A

Cystic duct

472
Q

What pathway connects the pancreas to duodenum?

A

Pancreatic duct

473
Q

what is the healthy bacteria in the colon?

A

E. coli

474
Q

what food that we eat contains chitin?

A

mushrooms

475
Q

is sucrose a mono- or disaccharide?

A

di-

476
Q

what 2 monos make up sucrose?

A

glucose and

fructose

477
Q

what 2 monos make up lactose?

A

glucose and

galactose

478
Q

when the liver metabolizes fat or protein for energy, blood acidity [increases/decreases/stays the same]

A

increases

479
Q

the major osmoregulatory protein in the blood is ___

A

albumin

480
Q

the Bowman’s capsule and the glomerulus together are called the ____.

A

renal corpuscle

481
Q

the fcn of the renal corpuscle is ___.

A

filtration

482
Q

the fcn of the distal tubule is to ____.

The net effect of this is to:

A

to reabsorb Na and Ca but secrete K, H, and bicarb anion.

Net effect: to ↓↓ filtrate osmolarity

483
Q

fcn of the proximal tubule is ____.

A

reabsorption

484
Q

trace the step by step PATHway of liquid thru a nephron.

A

Glomerulus → Bowman’s capsule → proximal convoluted tubule → descending part/limb of the loop of Henle → thin ascending limb of the loop of Henle → thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle → Distal convoluted tubule → collecting duct → renal calyx → renal pelvis

485
Q

what does the juxtaglomerular apparatus do?

A

Monitors filtrate pressure in the distal tubule

486
Q

the fcn of the loop of Henle is _____.

A

to ↑↑ the solute concentration and thus:

creates a concentration gradient in the renal medulla

↑↑ osmotic pressure of the renal medulla

487
Q

List 8 fcns of the liver.

A

blood storage,

filtration,

detoxification,

RBC destruction,

bile production,

metabolism of carb and protein and fat

488
Q

what are the fcns of the kidney?

A

filtration/excretion,

homeostasis,

control of plasma pH

489
Q

what hormones act on the distal tubule?

A

ADH and

aldosterone

490
Q

where is fluid pressure (hydrostatic) the greatest in the blood circulatory system?

A

Straight out of the left ventricle

491
Q

(1) where in the body is fluid (hydrostatic) pressure the weakest?
(2) Why is it the weakest at that location??

A

As blood enters vena cava.

Reason: hydrostatic pressure ↓↓ from aorta to vena cava. Pressure goes ↓↓ the farther away from the ventricles.

492
Q

where is blood flow the slowest?

A

Speed of blood lowest at capillaries

493
Q

trace the PATHway of blood thru the blood vessels as it enters the heart as deoxygenated blood.

A

Vena cava empty into right atrium →

tricuspid valve →

rt vent →

pulmonary semilunar valve →

pul arteries → arterioles (in lung) → caps (@ alveoli) →

venules (in lung) → veins (in lung) → pulmonary veins →

left atrium → bicuspid valve → left ventricle →

aortic semilunar valve

494
Q

What specific part within the heart triggers heart contraction?

A

SA node

495
Q

where is the SA node located?

A

in right atrium

496
Q

What nerve triggers the SA node?

A

SA node innervated by vagus nerve; BUT, SA node contracts all by itself!

497
Q

what does vagus nerve do to SA node?

A

Slows the contractions of the SA node

498
Q

is the vagus nerve part of the symp or parasymp nervous system?

A

a parasympathetic nerve

499
Q

if you sever the connection between the vagus nerve and the heart, will the heart rate [increase/decrease/no effect]?

A

Cut vagus nerve, and heart rate will increase

500
Q

trace the PATH of an action potential from the SA node thru the rest of the heart:

A

SA node → AV node → bundle of His → Purkinje fibers → cardiac muscles

501
Q

where’s the bundle of His located?

A

In the wall separating the ventricles

502
Q

where’s the location of Purkinje fibers?

A

located in the inner ventricular walls of the heart,

just beneath the endocardium.

503
Q

What are Purkinje fibers?

Their fcn?

A

These fibers are specialized myocardial fibers that conduct an electrical stimulus or impulse that enables the heart to contract in a coordinated fashion.

504
Q

a ______ carries blood away from the heart.

A

Artery

505
Q

what part of the brain controls the diaphragm?

A

Medulla oblongata

506
Q

how many polypeptide units make up hemoglobin?

A

4

507
Q

how many heme cofactors does each polypeptide subunit of hemoglobin have?

A

1 per polypeptide

508
Q

what’s a heme cofactor?

A

Organic molecule with iron atom at its center

509
Q

how many heme cofactors does hemoglobin have?

A

4

510
Q

what does an oxygen dissociation curve graph basically show you?

A

The oxygen saturation of hemoglobin

511
Q

What can affect an oxygen dissociation curve?

A

CO2 pressure,

pH, and

blood temp

512
Q

What does ↑↑ the CO2 do to the oxygen dissociation curve?

A

Curve shifts to the right

513
Q

What does ↑↑ the pH do to the oxygen dissociation curve?

A

Curve shifts to the left

514
Q

What does ↑↑ the temperature do to the oxygen dissociation curve?

A

Curve shifts to the right

515
Q

What does a shift to the right, in the oxygen dissociation curve, signify?

A

↓↓ of hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen

516
Q

If CO2 leaves the body, how is blood pH affected?

A

pH increases ↑↑

(CO2 + water → bicarb anion + proton)

517
Q

what is hematocrit?

A

Percentage by volume of red blood cells

518
Q

what is albumin? Its fcn?

A

Protein found in blood plasma, that

regulates osmotic pressure of blood; and

transports fatty acids and steroids

519
Q

what’s serum?

A

blood Plasma from which fibrinogen was removed

520
Q

what lives longer:

granulo- or agranulocytes?

A

Agranulocytes live very long time,

granulocytes very short time

521
Q

which are the granular leukocytes?

A

B.E.N.

522
Q

what is the most abundant of the 5 leukocytes?

A

Neutrophils

523
Q

What’s the 2nd most abundant leukocyte?

A

Lymphocytes

524
Q

What’s an antigen?

A

ANTIbody GENerator

Foreign particle in body

525
Q

list the agranulocytes:

A

lymphocytes and monocytes

526
Q

What are the 4 possible functions of muscle?

A

Body movement;

stabilization of body position;

movement of stuff thru body; and

generating heat to maintain body temperature

527
Q

what does tendon do?

A

Connects muscle to bone

528
Q

what is a ligament?

A

Connects bone to bone

529
Q

what is an agonist?

A

Muscle responsible for the movement

530
Q

what is an antagonist?

A

Muscle that works against the agonist

531
Q

what’s a sarcomere?

A

Smallest func’nal unit of skeletal muscle

532
Q

starting from a muscle, what are the parts of a muscle, right down to the individual sarcomere’s components?

(ignore the sheats, like perimysium and epimysium)

A

Muscle → muscle fasciculus → muscle cell → myofibril → sarcomere → thick and thin filament

533
Q

what’s a sarcolemma?

A

the cell membrane of a striated muscle “fiber” (i.e., muscle cell)

534
Q

[T/F] a muscle fiber and myofibril are the same thing.

A

F.

Several myofibrils (bound together by the sarcolemma) form a muscle cell. Muscle cell is the same thing as muscle fiber.

535
Q

How many nuclei do cardiac muscle cells contain?

A

1

536
Q

How many nuclei do skeletal muscle contain?

A

multiple

537
Q

How many nuclei does smooth contain?

A

1

538
Q

What are the functions of bones?

A

Support of soft tissue;

protection of internal organs;

movement;

mineral storage;

blood cell production;

energy storage

539
Q

What do osteblasts do?

A

Secrete collagen and organic compounds on which bone is formed.

540
Q

can osteblasts do mitosis?

A

no

541
Q

from what cells do osteoblasts develop from?

A

Osteogenic/osteoprogenitor cells

542
Q

what do osteocytes do?

A

Exchange nutrients and waste materials with blood

543
Q

what are osteoclasts?

A

Reabsorb bone matrix

544
Q

the long shaft of a long bone is called?

A

Diaphysis

545
Q

what marrow does spongy bone contain?

A

red

546
Q

in adults, what bone marrow does the compact bone house?

A

Yellow bone marrow

547
Q

what are the 4 types of bones?

A

Long, short, flat, or irregular

548
Q

list the fcns of the skin.

A

Blood reservoir;

Environmental sensory input;

excretion;

immunity;

Protection;

Thermoregulation;

vitamin D synthesis

549
Q

what does phenotype mean?

A

phenotype is an organism’s observable characteristics or traits.

550
Q

Give examples of phenotype

A

an organism’s morphology, development, biochemical or physiological properties, behavior, and products of behavior (such as a bird’s nest).

551
Q

what does genotype mean?

A

genotype is the genetic makeup of a cell, an organism, or an individual (i.e. the specific allele makeup of the individual) usually with reference to a specific character under consideration.

552
Q

what does homologous mean?

A

Homologous chromosomes are chromosome pairs of the same:

length,

centromere position, and

staining pattern,

and have genes for the same characteristics located at corresponding loci.

553
Q

How are homologous chromosomes inherited?

A

One homologous chromosome is inherited from the organism’s mother; the other from the organism’s father.

554
Q

what is a diploid?

A

Diploid (indicated by 2n = 2x) cells have two homologous copies of each chromosome (i.e., a homologous pair), usually one of the homologues coming from the mother and the other homologue chromosome from the father.

So for any 1 trait, a diploid individual will have 2 chromosomes, each containing a separate gene that codes for that specific trait.

[these 2 chromosomes are called HOMOLOGOUS]

555
Q

what does “complete dominance” mean for diploids?

A

Complete dominance occurs when the phenotype of a heterozygote is completely indistinguishable from the phenotype of a dominant homozygote.

556
Q

what’s an allele?

A

2 or more forms of a particular gene.

Diploid organisms have one copy of each gene (and therefore one allele) on each chromosome.

If both alleles are the same, they are homozygotes. If the alleles are different, they are heterozygotes.

557
Q

What is a homozygote?

A

Organism with homozygous alleles

558
Q

What does homozygous and heterozygous mean?

A

A cell is said to be homozygous for a particular gene when identical alleles of the gene are present on both homologous chromosomes.

A diploid organism is heterozygous at a gene locus when its cells contain two different alleles of a gene.

Heterozygous genotypes are represented by a capital letter (representing the dominant allele) and a lowercase letter (representing the recessive allele), such as “Rr” or “Ss”.

559
Q

What does karyotype mean?

A

A karyotype is the number and appearance of chromosomes in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell.

Karyotypes describe the number of chromosomes, and what they look like under a light microscope.

Attention is paid to their length, the position of the centromeres, banding pattern, any differences between the sex chromosomes, and any other physical characteristics.

560
Q

Under the new taxonomical classification system, what are the new superkingdoms called?

A

Domains

561
Q

list the domains.

A

Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya

562
Q

which former ‘kingdoms’ are under the new domain eukarya?

A

Protista, fungi, plantae, animalia

563
Q

which former kingdom is considered outdated by the new domain system?

A

Monera. Monera is now split into bacteria and archaea

564
Q

What hormone stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver?

A

Cortisol

565
Q

ADH [raises / lowers] blood pressure.

A

raises

566
Q

Vasopressin causes your body to increase its:

A

↑↑ peripheral vascular resistance; and

↑↑ arterial blood pressure, and

↑↑ water absorption

567
Q

Membrane that wraps several myofibrils together to form a muscle cell is called: ?

A

sarcolemma

568
Q

What does TCA stand for?

A

Tricarboxylic acid cycle

Catz (7 decks)

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