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Catz > ARRT Registry exam review > Flashcards

ARRT Registry exam review Flashcards

1
Q

Most common cancer:

A

breast

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2
Q

3 Most common cancer deaths, in order:

A

Lung, breast, prostate

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3
Q

what is the lowest percentage dose error at which you notify anybody?

A

2 percent

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4
Q

at which percent dose error do you notify doctor?

A

10%

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5
Q

At which percent dose error do you notify chief tech?

A

2%

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6
Q

What is a misadministration?

A

20% dose error is misadministration

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7
Q

What is a recordable event?

A

15% dose error

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8
Q

What do you do when u have a recordable event?

A

notify Radiation Safety Committee

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9
Q

what is relationship between Z of material and photoelectric effect?

A

Probability of photoelectric effect depends on Z^3 of absorber

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10
Q

what is minimum energy needed for pair production to occur?

A

1.02 MeV

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11
Q

According to Len Stabile, what are the energy *ranges* at which Photoelectric effect, Compton scattering, Pair production, and Photodisintegration PREDOMINATE?

A

PEE =
10 keV - 1 MeV

CS =
1 MeV - 10 MeV

PP =
> 10 MeV - < 100 MeV

Photodisintegration =
> 100 MeV

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12
Q

what is relationship between Compton scattering and Z of absorbing material?

A

Probability of Compton occurring is independent of absorber

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13
Q

Probability of photoelectric effect depends on the ___ of the absorbing material

A

Z3

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14
Q

What’s the half-life of P-32?

A

14.3 days

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15
Q

What’s the half-life of au-198

A

2.7 days

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16
Q

What’s the half-life of Y-90?

A

64 hours

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17
Q

What’s the half-life of rn-222?

A

3.8 days

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18
Q

What is the *avg* platelet count?

A

250K/mm^3

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19
Q

normal platelet range is?

A

about 150K-400K per mm^3

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20
Q

normal WBC range?

A

5000 - 10,000 per mm^3

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21
Q

normal RBC range?

A

4.5 - 6 million per mm^3 for MEN; 4.3 - 5.5 million per mm^3 for women

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22
Q

What is the usefulness of measuring acid phos ?

A

Prostate ca detection

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23
Q

What is the usefulness of measuring alk phos?

A

Bone carcinoma and metastasis to bone detection, and also for liver mets

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24
Q

What is BUN, and what is it used for?

A

Blood-urea-nitrogen; used to see kidney fcn

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25
Q

What is bilirubin tested for?

A

Liver fcn

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26
Q

what else besides BUN is measured for kidney fcn?

A

Creatinine

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27
Q

what do you do if your cancer pt’s platelet count drops by half?

A

Stop RT and notify doctor, no matter how high the number still is

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28
Q

At What platelet *range* must an RT notify doctor?

A

80K-100K/mm^3

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29
Q

At what platelet count do you Stop rad tx?

A

50K/mm^3

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30
Q

At what platelet count will you bleed to death?

A

20K

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31
Q

What is the normal hemoglobin count?

A

Men = 14-16 g/dL; women = 12-14 g/dL

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32
Q

what is the normal pulse *range* for a non-geriatric adult?

A

60-100/min [for anyone over 14 y.o., from Cannon lecture]

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33
Q

Normal pulse for an old person?

A

50-60/min

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34
Q

what is a cancer of cartilage called?

A

Chondrosarcoma

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35
Q

what is a rhabdomyosarcoma?

A

Ca of striated muscle

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36
Q

what kind of ca is Hodgkin’s? [carcinoma, sarcoma, adenocarcinoma]

A

Sarcoma

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37
Q

what is a ca of smooth muscle?

A

Leiomyosarcoma

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38
Q

sarcomas usually mets via what route?

A

Hematologically

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39
Q

sarcomas usually mets via the blood. What are the exceptions to this rule?

A

Hodgkin’s, Kaposi’s, and Leukemia

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40
Q

what is telangiectasia?

A

abnormal dilation/rupturing of surface blood vessels such as capillaries. This is seen commonly in alcoholics whose blood vessels have been damaged

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41
Q

what is purpura?

A

Pinpoint purplish lesion. condition marked by purple patches on the skin. the cause is internal bleeding under the skin.

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42
Q

What are the kinds of purpura?

A

2 kinds:

Small spots are called petechiae, while large spots are called ecchymoses

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43
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

partial or complete collapse of the lung

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44
Q

What is stenosis?

A

Narrowing of the diameter of a bodily passage/vessel

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45
Q

Synonym for stenosis:

A

stricture

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46
Q

____ is seen commonly in alcoholics whose blood vessels have been damaged

A

telangiectasia

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47
Q

What is Plummer-Vinson Syndrome?

A

A condition that is marked especially by the growth of a mucous membrane across the esophageal lumen, by difficulty in swallowing, and that is usually considered to be due to an iron deficiency. (Wikipedia);

A disorder linked to severe, long-term iron deficiency anemia, which causes swallowing difficulty (dysphagia) due to web-like membranes of tissue growing in the throat (M-W.com)

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48
Q

Pinpoint purplish lesion. condition marked by purple patches on the skin. the cause is internal bleeding under the skin. Name/term for this discoloration:

A

Purpura

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49
Q

What is cachexia?

A

wasting syndrome seen in somebody who’s NOT trying to lose weight. Technically, it’s defined as “loss of body mass that cannot be reversed nutritionally”.

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50
Q

What is myelosuppression?

A

Bone marrow suppression

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51
Q

epiphora means?

A

Excessive tear production

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52
Q

T/F: Atresia is a synonym for stenosis.

A

FALSE.

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53
Q

ataxia?

A

Imbalance in walking

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54
Q

Why is myelosuppression cause for concern?

A

Bone marrow is responsible for blood cell production, so drop in leukocyte production causes increased risk of infection

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55
Q

epistaxis?

A

Nosebleed

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56
Q

WHAT are the two suffixes for pain?

A

dynia and -algia

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57
Q

T/F: Stricture is a synonym for stenosis.

A

True.

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58
Q

What is named after Karnofsky?

A

Performance scale

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59
Q

Can surgery be used for palliation, exploration, or prevention?

A

Can be used for all

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60
Q

What tx methods/modalities can be used for cancer palliation?

A

Surgery, chemo, RT

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61
Q

What cancer modalities are for systemic control?

A

Chemo

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62
Q

When the rad onc prescribes a radiation dose, what is it called?

A

Written directive

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63
Q

What does clinical staging of ca show us?

A

Extent of disease

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64
Q

What does histological grading show us?

A

Shows us the Prognosis by showing us the differentiation and thereby the degree of malignancy

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65
Q

What is new cancer staging system?

A

TNM system

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66
Q

in the TNM system, Mets is represented how?

A

M+ or M0

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67
Q

A condition that is marked especially by the growth of a mucous membrane across the esophageal lumen, by difficulty in swallowing, and that is usually considered to be due to an iron deficiency. (Wikipedia)

A disorder linked to severe, long-term iron deficiency anemia, which causes swallowing difficulty (dysphagia) due to web-like membranes of tissue growing in the throat (M-W.com)

A

Plummer-Vinson Syndrome

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68
Q

Before TNM, what was the old staging system?

A

stages 0 thru 4

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69
Q

what part of x-ray tube is made of tungsten?

A

both Cathode and anode

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70
Q

what is thermionic emission?

A

The tungsten emits electrons when it’s heated

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71
Q

Where in the X-ray tube does thermionic emission occur?

A

In the tungsten that makes up the Cathode

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72
Q

what causes electrons to fly to anode?

A

High voltage

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73
Q

What two characteristics/qualities of tungsten make it ideal for x-ray production?

A

High atomic number, and hi melting point

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74
Q

What actual phenom of physics makes the x-rays in the anode?

A

Bremsstrahlung

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75
Q

What is the relationship between bremss production and the Z of the tungsten material?

A

Probability of brems production proportional to Z^2 of material (in this case, Z^2 of tungsten)

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76
Q

When tungsten emits electrons when it’s heated, this phenomenon is called:

A

thermionic emission

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77
Q

What organs/structures are located in the RIGHT UPPER Quadrant?

A

Right kidney,

gallbladder,

HEAD of pancreas,

Hepatic flexure (bend in colon),

Right lobe of Liver

pylorus of Stomach

Parts 1-3 of duodenum
c-loop of duodenum

R suprarenal gland

Ascending colon’s top part

R half of Transverse colon

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78
Q

What’s in the Left UPPER Quadrant?

A

Body and Tail of pancreas

Left lobe of liver

spleen

Stomach (minus pylorus)

Jejunum

Proximal ILEUM

L kidney, and L Suprarenal gland

Splenic Flexure

L half of Transverse colon

Descending colon’s top part

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79
Q

In an X-ray tube, what material is anode made of?

A

tungsten

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80
Q

What’s in the LEFT LOWER Quadrant?

A

sigmoid colon

Descending colon

L ovary

L uterine (fallopian) tube

L Ureter

spermatic cord

Uterus (if enlarged)
Bladder (if enlarged)

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81
Q

What’s in the RIGHT LOWER Quadrant?

A

Cecum

Appendix

most of the ILEUM

Ascending colon

ovary

R Uterine (fallopian) Tube

(abdominal part of) R Ureter

(abdominal part of) R spermatic cord

Uterus (if enlarged);
Bladder (if enlarged)

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82
Q

In an X-ray tube, what is cathode made of?

A

tungsten

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83
Q

another name for appendix?

A

Vermiform process

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84
Q

Where does the PITUITARY GLAND get its marching orders from?

A

gets its signals from the hypothalamus

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85
Q

List all the activities of the HYPOTHALAMUS:

A

involved in many autonomic nervous system activities:

(1) regulates the secretion of most hormones of the body;

(2) maintains homeostasis of
Blood Pressure; and
fluid and Electrolytes of the body;
body Temperature;
respiration; and
digestion;
regulates Hunger and thirst

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86
Q

The “master gland” of the body is?

A

Pituitary gland

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87
Q

What is infundibulum?

A

Tract that leads from hypothalamus to pituitary.

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88
Q

what are the segments of the pituitary?

A

Anterior pituitary (AKA adenohypophysis) and posterior pituitary (AKA neurohypophysis)

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89
Q

how many hormones does the hypothalamus secrete?

A

9

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90
Q

How many hypothalamus hormones go to Posterior pit?

A

2

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91
Q

How many hypothalamus hormones go to Anterior pituitary?

A

7

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92
Q

Which part of the pituitary makes its own hormones?

A

Adenohypophysis receives 7 hormones from hypothalamus, which cause adenohypophysis to make ANOTHER 7 hormones which actually enter the bloodstream

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93
Q

List the hormones of the Adenohypophysis:

A

ACTH;
FSH
HGH
LH (f) / ICSH (m)
MSH
Prolactin
TSH

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94
Q

List the hormones of the Neurohypophysis:

A

Oxytocin and ADH

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95
Q

Which of the 9 Pituitary hormones are made in the HYPOTHALAMUS?

A

Only ADH and Oxytocin are made in the HYPOTHALAMUS.

ADH and oxytocin are released by the Posterior pituitary.

(The hormones released by the Adenohypophysis are also made in the adenohypophysis.)

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96
Q

Name 3 glands that aren’t turned on by the pituitary, but rather controlled directly by the nervous system:

A

Pancreas,

parathyroid, &

adrenal medulla

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97
Q

What triggers the Release of prolactin?

A

The sudden drop in estrogen caused by childbirth (the placenta, AKA afterbirth, produces lots of estrogen), causing release of prolactin.

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98
Q

What is the Target cell for prolactin?

A

Cuboidal epithelial cells of mammary glands

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99
Q

What is the target cell for Human Growth Hormone?

A

Every cell in the body

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100
Q

What does HGH do?

A

Stimulates epiphyseal cartilage of long bones to grow lengthwise (i.e., longitudinally); HGH also stimulates protein anabolism [anabolism means “building up”; the antonym is catabolism]

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101
Q

What does MSH stand for?

A

Melanocyte stimulating hormone

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102
Q

What is target cell for MSH?

A

Melanocytes, which produce melanin

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103
Q

Which 3 hormones target EVERY cell in body?

A

HGH, T3, and T4

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104
Q

FSH stands for?

A

Follicle stimulating hormone

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105
Q

what is a term commonly associated with epiphyseal cartilage?

A

Metaphysis

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106
Q

target cell for FSH?

A

Behaves differently in men and women. Target cell in women is Graafian follicle cells of the ovary. Target cell for men is seminiferous tubules of the testes.

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107
Q

What do Graafian follicle cells of ovary do?

A

help to mature the ovum; and produce estrogen

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108
Q

What do seminiferous tubules of the testes do?

A

Produce sperm

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109
Q

A man without FSH is:

A

sterile

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110
Q

Which two of the 7 hormones of the anterior pituitary are identical?

A

LH and ICSH

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111
Q

The pituitary secretes a hormone which is called different names for each gender.

Which hormone is for males, which one is for females?

A

LH for female, ICSH for men

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112
Q

LH stand for?

A

Luteinizing hormone

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113
Q

Target cell of LH?

A

Corpus luteum

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114
Q

what does LH do in females (2)?

A

Weakens ovarian wall to prepare for ovulation; also,

stimulates corpus luteum to produce progesterone

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115
Q

ICSH stands for?

A

Interstitial Cell Stimulating Hormone

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116
Q

ICSH’s target?

A

Interstitial cells of Leydig

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117
Q

TSH stands for?

A

Thyroid stimulating Hormone

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118
Q

TSH’s target?

A

Cuboidal epithelial cells of the thyroid gland

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119
Q

Thyroid gland produces which hormones?

A

Calcitonin, T3, and Thyroxine (T4)

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120
Q

Calcitonin’s fcn?

A

Slows down activity of osteoClasts, thus preventing bone breakdown,

by decreasing availability of calcium ions in the blood

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121
Q

T3 and T4 target?

A

Every cell in the body

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122
Q

T3 and T4 are collectively called?

A

thyroid hormone

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123
Q

fcn of T3 and T4?

A

↑↑ basal metabolic rate

↑↑ glucose catabolism; and

promote brain cell differentiation

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124
Q

ACTH stands for?

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

125
Q

ACTH secreted by?

A

Anterior pituitary

126
Q

ACTH’s target cell?

A

Adrenal CORTEX of adrenal gland

127
Q

is adrenal cortex outside or inside adrenal gland?

A

Outside

128
Q

What are the layers of the adrenal cortex, from outer layer to inner layer?

A

zona Glomerulosa, zona Fasciculata, zona Reticularis

129
Q

what do the 3 zones of the cortex produce?

A

Hormones called STEROIDS

130
Q

what does Zona Glomerulosa produce, and what is an example?

A

Mineralocorticoids, of which Aldosterone is most abundant

131
Q

what does Zona Fasciculata produce, and what is an example?

A

makes Glucocorticoids, of which Cortisol is most abundant

132
Q

synthetic version of cortisol is?

A

cortisone

133
Q

what does zona Reticularis produce, and what is an example?

A

Gonadocorticoids, of which Androgens are most important

134
Q

What causes Addison’s Disease?

A

Occurs when 3 zones of cortex don’t fcn

135
Q

result of too little ACTH?

A

Causes cortex to shut down, i.e., Addison’s Disease

136
Q

Symptoms of too little ACTH?

A

Overall muscle weakening

137
Q

Aldosterone produced where?

A

zona Glomerulosa

138
Q

target of aldosterone?

A

Kidney tubules

139
Q

fncn of aldosterone?

A

Allows exchange between blood and urine

140
Q

Aldosterone allows exchange between blood and urine. Specifically, WHAT is exchanged?

A

Na+ ion goes from urine to blood, water goes from urine to blood

and K and H+ ions from blood to urine;

141
Q

what are the general toxic effects of chemo?

A

Alopecia,

pancytopenia,

GI dysfunction,

sexual/reproductive probs, mutation of ova/sperm

142
Q

what is pancytopenia?

A

Reduction of RBC, WBC, and platelets

143
Q

why does chemotherapy cause pancytopenia?

A

Because chemo affects bone marrow

144
Q

Why does chemo cause GI dysfunction?

A

Denuding of GI tract; (Cells lining GI tract die)

145
Q

what sex/reprod probs can occur from chemo?

A

Lower libido, early menopause

146
Q

which chemo drug has potential cardiotoxicity?

A

Doxorubicin

147
Q

A brand name for Doxorubicin :

A

Adriamycin

148
Q

which chemo drug has lung toxicity?

A

Bleomycin

149
Q

Major side effects of Bleomycin:

A

Cause pulmonary fibrosis

150
Q

which chemo drug may cross blood-brain barrier?

A

nitrosureas

151
Q

what Chemo drug can cause renal problems?

A

Methotrexate and cis-platinum

152
Q

which chemo drugs cause liver impairment?

A

Doxorubicin, and

vincristine

153
Q

5-FU is used for which ca?

A

Colon,

breast,

ovarian,

pancreatic, and

gastric

154
Q

MOPP/ABVD regimens are used for which cancer?

A

Lymphoma and

Hodgkin’s

155
Q

Brand name for bleomycin?

A

Blenoxane

156
Q

what are the 5 stages of the cell life cycle?

A

G1, S, G2,

M

resting (G0)

157
Q

which drugs target the M stage?

A

Vinblastine,

vincristine,

etoposide

158
Q

which drugs target S stage?

A

5-FU,

methotrexate,

hydroxyurea

159
Q

which drugs target G2?

A

Bleomycin

160
Q

which drugs target G1?

A

L-asparaginase

161
Q

Brand name for L-asparaginase?

A

elspar

162
Q

another name for cytoxan?

A

Cyclophosphamide

163
Q

what is the MOA of the chemo drugs called alkylating agents?

A

Cause breaks and crosslinks in DNA

164
Q

Which chemo drugs are alkylating agents?

A

Cisplatin,

cytoxan,

mustargen

165
Q

another name for mustargen is:

A

Nitrogen mustard

166
Q

what are antitumor antibiotics?

A

Chemo drugs that work by preventing normal DNA synthesis, by combining directly into DNA

167
Q

examples of antitumor antibiotics are:

A

Actinomycin-D,

bleomycin,

doxorubicin, and

mitomycin-c

168
Q

what are antimetabolites?

A

Chemo drugs that prevent nitrogenous bases from forming

169
Q

are antimetabolites specific to any cell-cycle?

A

S phase

170
Q

examples of antimetabolites are:

A

Methotrexate,

5-FU

171
Q

how do the vinca alkaloids fcn?

A

Stop mitotic activity by interfering with formation of mitotic spindle

172
Q

brand name for taxol:

A

Paclitaxel

173
Q

what is the major chemo drug for treating breast cancer?

A

Tamoxifen

174
Q

taxotere is used for which cancers (wikipedia)?

A

Breast,

ovarian, and

non-small cell lung ca

175
Q

what is taxol used to treat?

A

breast cancer,

head and neck cancer,

lung,

ovarian,

advanced forms of Kaposi’s sarcoma.

176
Q

Which organs do you NEVER biopsy?

A

Kidney,

pancreas,

parotid,

testicles,

eyeball

177
Q

Define aphasia:

A

Inability to speak

178
Q

SPINAL CORD begins and ends where?

A

From

foramen magnum

to

L1-L2

179
Q

which specific brain ca is associated with kids, and

which specific ca is associated with adults?

A

Medulloblastoma = kids;

ependymoma = adults

180
Q

what is # 1 complaint for primary brain ca pts?

A

“seizure headaches”

181
Q

what is cause of the headaches that primary brain cancer pts complain about?

A

Increased intracranial pressure

182
Q

Primary brain ca pts complain of headaches. Headaches are cause by increased intracranial pressure.

What is the cause of the increased intracranial pressure?

A

caused by obstruction of the CSF that tries to leave the ventricular system

183
Q

brand name for cyclophosphamide:

A

cytoxan

184
Q

majority of primary brain tumors are what type of tumor?

A

Glioma

185
Q

what is decadron?

and What is it used for?

A

Drug to control brain imflammation/swelling brought on by RT

186
Q

what is the worst form of glioma?

What percentage of gliomas are this type?

A

Glioblastoma multiforme,

make up half of all gliomas

187
Q

which brain ca is found mostly in children?

A

Medulloblastoma

188
Q

which chemo drugs are used for medulloblastoma?

A

Cytoxan,

cisplatin,

etoposide,

vincristine

189
Q

What is the ca that is the adults’ counterpart of medulloblastoma?

A

ependymoma

190
Q

what is Collin’s Rule?

A

If pt is disease free for a period equal to their age at diagnosis, plus 9 months, then the pt is considered cured

191
Q

which ca does Collin’s Rule apply to?

A

Medulloblastoma and

Wilm’s tumor

192
Q

tx modalities for ependymoma

A

Surgery, chemo, RT

193
Q

which chemo drugs can be used for ependymoma?

A

Cyclophosphamide,

vincristine,

cisplatin,

carboplatin,

etoposide

194
Q
  • what* Is the pineal gland?
  • Where* is it located?
A

Small endocrine gland inside the brain

195
Q

what does pineal gland produce?

A

melatonin

196
Q

what is tx of choice for pituitary adenoma?

A

Surgery

197
Q

what’s the name of the surgical procedure that’s usually used for pituitary adenoma?

A

Transsphenoidal hypophysectomy

198
Q

What are “the TRUE ONCOLOGIC EMERGENCIES”?

A

SVC,

spinal cord compression, and

increased cranial pressure

199
Q

what are other (non “true”) oncologic emergencies?

A

Malignant pleural effusion;

cardiac tamponade

200
Q

what causes cardiac tamponade in cancer pts?

A

Infiltration of pericardium via mets can create effusion to cause tamponade

201
Q

for which ca do we see mets to pericardium and pericardial effusion?

A

Pericardial mets and effusion are late complications of lung and breast cancers, also seen in leukemia and **lymphoma **

202
Q

what is effusion? What are the two types of effusion fluid?

A

escape of fluid into a part (can be exudate or transudate)

203
Q

what are characteristics of transudate?

A

Transudate =

high fluidity, low protein, low specific gravity (i.e., lower s.g. than exudate)

204
Q

the most common and most aggressive malignant primary brain tumor in humans is:

A

glioblastoma multiforme

205
Q

what is exudate?

A

Fluid with high protein content and cellular debris

WIKI: any fluid that filters from the circulatory system and into lesions or areas of inflammation.

206
Q

EXudate and TRANSudate have differences in protein content and specific gravity. Also, what’s the important physiological distinction between the two?

A

Transudates are caused by disturbances of hydrostatic or colloid osmotic pressure, not by inflammation.

207
Q

what is meant by “cellular debris”?

A

fibrin,

fibrinogen,

WBC,

RBC

208
Q

what stage are malignant pleural effusions classified as?

A

4

209
Q

are pleural effusions considered oncologic emergencies?

A

to clarify: Malignant pleural effusions are oncologic emergencies. BUT, they are NOT “true oncologic emergencies”.

210
Q

Are pleural effusions considered oncologic emergencies?

A

No.

211
Q

Are pleural effusions transudate or exudate?

A

Exudate

212
Q

The mets of which cancers make up 75% of pleural effusions?

A

Breast, lung, lymphoma mets make up 75 % of pleural effusions

213
Q

what is pericardial rub?

A

Doc listening with stethoscope

214
Q

around which vertebrae is the pericardial rub done?

A

T-5

215
Q

what is the diagnostic procedure of choice to diagnose tamponade?

A

Echocardiography

216
Q

what is the procedure to cure tamponade?

A

Pericardiocentesis

217
Q

Name the 3 groups of nodes commonly involved in lung ca:

A

Ipsilateral hilar nodes, mediastinal nodes, supraclavicular nodes

218
Q

what is SGOT? What does “SGOT” stand for?

A

Liver fcn test. It stands for serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase

219
Q

Give another name for SGOT :

A

AST

220
Q

“AST” stands for:

A

Aspartate transaminase

221
Q

List the liver fcn “tests” that you check for:

A

AST,

ALT,

bilirubin

222
Q

SGPT stands for:

A

Serum Glutamic Pyruvate Transaminase

223
Q

SGPT is a.k.a. ______.

another name for SGPT:

A

ALT

224
Q

ALT stands for:

A

alanine aminotransferase

225
Q

another name for oat cell ca?

A

small cell ca of the lung

226
Q

another name for a Pancoast tumor?

A

Superior sulcus tumor

227
Q

where is the Pancoast tumor located?

A

Upper apex of lung

228
Q

what are the types of non-small cell ca?

A

Adenocarcinoma,

squamous, &

large cell

229
Q

1.02 MeV is the minimum energy required for ___ to occur.

A

pair production

230
Q

The probability of ___ depends on the Z^3 of the absorber material.

A

photoelectric effect

231
Q

A man without ____ hormone is sterile

A

FSH

232
Q

What’s the difference between oncotic pressure and colloid osmotic pressure?

A

Nothing.

The two terms refer to the same thing.

233
Q

What is colloid osmotic pressure?

A

Pressure exerted by the proteins floating in your blood vessel’s plasma

234
Q

The cells of the Graafian follicle produce [progesterone/estrogens/both/neither].

A

estrogen

235
Q

Pancoast tumors metastasize via ____.

A

Lymphatics and blood

236
Q

When a Pancoast tumor spreads, which lymph nodes are affected?

A

Hilum, mediastinum, supraclav, SVC, peribronchal, paratracheal

237
Q

what is the medical term for profuse sweating?

A

Diaphoresis

238
Q

What is Kwashiorkor?
What is its cause?

A

Type of malnutrition seen in kids with distended bellies,

caused by insufficient protein intake

239
Q

list the stages of sperm development from baby to mature.

A

Spermatogonia,

spermatocyte,

spermatid,

sperm

240
Q

break down rad/cGy into its SI components:

A

J/kg

241
Q

1 Angstrom = ____ meters

A

= 10-10 m

242
Q

what is the SI unit for Roentgens?

A

C/kg

243
Q

what are halogenated pyrimidines?

A

radiation sensitizer

244
Q

what is the MOST COMMON CA in MEN?

A

Prostate (actually, skin ca is the most common, but it’s so frequent it’s not counted)

245
Q

what is ankylosing spondylitis? (the RT definition)

A

Inflammation of spine that can be tx with RT to relieve pain

246
Q

what is the most common symptom of breast ca?

A

a palpable mass

247
Q

what is the most common bone disease?

A

bone mets

248
Q

what is the HVL of lead?

A

1.2 cm

249
Q

what is the specific route of spread for uterine ca?

A

Parametrial,
obturator,
external iliacs,
hypogastric,
sacral, to
paraaortic

250
Q

what is the hormone responsible for lactation?

A

Prolactin

251
Q

what is the route of spread for prostate ca?

A

Obturator node, to internal iliac, to external iliac, to presacral

252
Q

what is a SMAC?

A

Multi-fcn blood test to check for liver fcn, kidney, heart fcn

253
Q

what does the prefix salpingo- refer to?

A

Uterine (Fallopian) tubes

254
Q

where is Virchow’s node located?

A

It is among the supraclavicular nodes

255
Q

what are the 4 MAJOR glands that produce saliva?

A

Parotid,

submandibular,

submaxillary,

sublingual

256
Q

what drains the saliva from parotid to oral cavity?

A

Stenson’s duct

257
Q

what drains the submandibular glands?

A

Wharton’s duct

258
Q

how does hodgkin’s spread? By lymph or blood?

A

both

259
Q

what does increased levels of alk phos indicate?

A

May mean that liver or bone marrow has cancer

260
Q

what is the largest lymphatic organ?

A

spleen

261
Q

what is “Waldeyer’s ring”?

A

Anatomical term referring to the lymphoid tissue, i.e. the tonsils, in the pharynx:

2 palatine tonsils, lingual, tubal, and pharyngeal tonsils

262
Q

what is tamponade?

A

Heart beats irregularly

263
Q

what are Peyer’s patches?

WHERE are they found?

A

Lymph nodules found in ileum

264
Q

what layer of the ileum are the Peyer’s patches found in?

A

Mucosal and submucosal layers

265
Q

what is the most common malignancy of infants?

A

Neuroblastoma

266
Q

another name for Wilm’s tumor?

A

Nephroblastoma

267
Q

Which cancers are considered truly curable?

A

Larynx, cervical, and Hodgkin’s

268
Q

lower 1/3 of esophagus has what histology? Adeno or squamous?

A

Adeno

269
Q

what virus is seen in stomach cancer?

A

EBV

270
Q

what is marasmus?

Cause?

A

Form of severe malnutrition caused by deficiency of all nutrients, especially protein and calories

271
Q

Signs/Symptoms of marasmus:

A

marked by emaciated anorexic look with extensive tissue and muscle wasting

272
Q

What is the Ampulla of Vater?

What does this structure travel/pass thru?

A

Union of pancreatic duct and common bile duct.

Ampulla of Vater leads through the sphincter of Oddi into duodenum

273
Q

What, and Where is Santorini’s Duct?

A

Most people have just one pancreatic duct.

However, some have an additional accessory pancreatic duct, called the Duct of Santorini, which bypasses the Ampulla of Vater, and connects directly to the duodenum

274
Q

What ** **are acini cells, and where are they located?

A

Acini is plural for acinus.

Juice-secreting cells of an exocrine gland,

found in many organs including (but not limited to): stomach, pancreas, tongue, liver, mammary glands

275
Q

which is the most common skin cancer?

A

Basal cell

276
Q

What is parenchyma?

A

Cells characteristic of the organ

277
Q

What are the most radiosensitive cells in the body?

A

Mature lymphocytes,

erythroblasts,

some spermatogonia

278
Q

What are the most radioRESISTANT cells of the body?

A

Chondrocytes,

muscle,

neurons

279
Q

What are the 2 types of marrow?

A

red

yellow

280
Q

Which marrow contains more stem cells?

A

red

281
Q

What is the red marrow’s main job?

A

To provide mature functional cells to the circulation of blood

282
Q

Where is red marrow found?

A

Ribs,

end of long bones,

vertebrae,

sternum, and

skull bones

283
Q

What is precursor cell for RBC?

A

Erythroblast

284
Q

What is the stem cell for some WBCs?

A

Myelocyte

285
Q

What is the stem cell for platelets?

A

Megakaryocytes

286
Q

where in the cell is the water located?

A

Mostly in the cytoplasm;

almost none in nucleus

287
Q

What physically holds together a diploid chromosome?

A

CentroMERE

288
Q

What is interphase?

A

The phase between mitosis.

289
Q

What are the stages of interphase (in order)?

A

G1,

S,

G2

290
Q

What are tRNA?

What do they do?

A

Combine with individual amino acids from different areas of the cell and attach them to ribosome

291
Q

Is the nitrogenous base attached to sugar or phosphate?

A

Sugar

292
Q

How many different chromosomes in the *somatic *human cell?

A

46

293
Q

one CT scan is = how many X-ray plain films?

A

500

294
Q

What is anaphylactic shock?

A

an overblown allergic reaction

295
Q

What are COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES?

LIST them.

A

Colligative properties are DEPENDENT on the amount of the substance.

They are, namely:

elevation of boiling point and

lowering of freezing point

296
Q

How is the boiling point affected if you reduce the external air pressure?

A

Lowers the boiling point

297
Q

Define boiling point using the term ‘vapor pressure’.

A

Boiling point is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid equals the applied pressure of the atmosphere on the liquid

298
Q

What specific type of rxn takes place between a primary alkyl halide and sodium iodide, in acetone?

A

SN2

299
Q

how do we synthesize alkyl halides?

A

Convert alcohol to alkyl halide with strong hydrogen halide

300
Q

What’s the % error formula?

A

= (Theoretical – experimental / theoretical ) * 100

301
Q

In orgo, what is the lucas test?

A

Alcohol + ZnCl2 + HCl →

R-Cl + H2O

302
Q

what kind of alcohols react with lucas test?

A

Primary – never;

secondary – after 3-5 min;

tert – immediately

303
Q

Strongly nucleophilic nucleophiles favor the [SN1 / SN2] rxn.

A

SN2

304
Q

Which reaction takes place between alkyl halide and silver nitrate?

A

SN1

305
Q

What indicates a positive chromic acid test?

A

green ppt

306
Q

What do the interstitial cells of Leydig make?

A

testosterone

307
Q

Where in the body is Progesterone made?

A

in the ovaries (by the corpus luteum),

the adrenal glands, and,

during pregnancy, in the placenta.

308
Q

Where in the body is Estrogen made?

A

granulosa cells of the ovary.

Some estrogens are also produced in smaller amounts in the liver, adrenal glands, and the breasts. (These secondary sources of estrogens are especially important in postmenopausal women.) Fat cells produce estrogen as well.

Catz (7 decks)

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