MCAT Bio 2014 Flashcards
1
Q
Is ENDOpeptidase one enzyme, or a group of enzymes?
A
group
2
Q
what do ENDOpeptidases do?
A
break the peptide bonds of NONterminal amino acids
3
Q
peptidases are AKA?
A
protease,
proteinase
4
Q
proteases are AKA?
A
peptidase
5
Q
What is protease?
A
any enzyme that does proteolysis
6
Q
What is peptidase?
A
any enzyme that does proteolysis
7
Q
what’s the fancy word for the enzymatic destruction of proteins?
A
proteolysis
8
Q
ENTEROpeptidase is AKA:
A
enterokinase
9
Q
What region/part of the body MAKES Enteropeptidases?
A
cells of the Duodenal mucosa
10
Q
what gland in the body secretes ENTERopeptidase?
A
crypts of Lieberkuhn
11
Q
What does ENTERopeptidase do?
A
converts trypsinogen (a zymogen) into its active form trypsin
12
Q
How do proteases and peptidases differ?
A
they’re the same shit
13
Q
the Ampulla of Vater is formed by the merging of the ___ and the ___.
A
pancreatic duct,
common bile
14
Q
The common bile duct is formed by the merging of the ____ with the ____.
A
Common hepatic duct,
cystic duct
15
Q
The duct that goes directly into (or, “comes straight out of”) the Gallbladder is the:
A
cystic duct
16
Q
pancreatic duct merges with the common bile duct to form the:
A
Ampulla of Vater
17
Q
Common hepatic duct and cystic duct merge to form the:
A
common bile duct
18
Q
The ___ duct and cystic duct merge to form the common bile duct.
A
common hepatic
19
Q
the Alpha cells of the pancreas produce:
A
glucagon
20
Q
the Delta cells of the pancreas produce:
A
somatostatin
21
Q
the Beta cells of the pancreas produce:
A
insulin,
amylin
22
Q
the Gamma cells of the pancreas produce
A
pancreatic polypeptide
23
Q
the Epsilon cells of the pancreas produce:
A
ghrelin
24
Q
the ____ cells of the pancreas produce glucagon:
A
Alpha
25
the ____ cells of the pancreas produce **amylin** and **insulin**:
beta
26
the ____ cells of the pancreas produce somatostatin
delta
27
the ____ cells of the pancreas produce **pancreatic polypeptide **
gamma
28
the ____ cells of the pancreas produce **ghrelin**
Epsilon
29
What is a **monogenic disorder**?
an inherited disorder that is caused by a defect in only ONE gene
30
What is the # assigned to the sex chromosome?
No. **23**
31
What is an **autosome**?
any *non*-sex chromosome.
So chromosomes # 1 - 22 are all Autosomes.
32
The opposite of an autosome is:
a sex chromoxome
| (e.g., X or Y)
33
A chromosome that's not a sex chromosome is called a/n:
autosome
34
T/F:
## Footnote
All sex-chromosome linked diseases are caused by mutations on the **X** chromosome.
FALS.
Although very rare, there are some "Y-linked" disorders.
35
The term "dominant" or "recessive" is used for genetic disorders that are **[autosomal / sex-linked / either]**
either
36
List 3 well-known Eicosanoids:
leukotrienes,
prostaglandins,
thromboxanes
37
(1) What's a **missense** mutation?
(2) What is the result of a missense mutation?
alteration in a ***single*** nucleotide of an amino acid coding sequence
is a point mutation, in which a ***single* nucleotide change** results in a **different codon** that codes for a different amino acid.
Result is a possible change in that specific amino acid, thus creating a change in the *primary structure* of the protein.
38
What is a **nonsense** mutation?
what is the result of a nonsense mutation?
change in the nucleotide sequence,
## Footnote
will create a STOP codon that prematurely cuts off the polypeptide's synthesis
39
What's a frameshift mutation?
the **addition**/insertion, or **deletion**, of one or more base-pairs *in multiples **other than 3***
40
what's a **point** mutation?
a change in a ***single *nucleotide** in a double strand of DNA
41
What is a trans**ition** mutation?
changes a **purine** nucleotide to ***another purine*** (A ↔ G)
OR
a **pyrimidine** nucleotide to ***another pyrimidine*** (C ↔ T).
42
what's a trans**version** mutation?
the **substitution** of a ***purine*** for a ***pyrimidine***
OR
vice versa
43
What's a non-frameshift mutation?
the addition or deletion of **exactly 3** nucleotides to an amino acid coding sequence,
causing the addition or deletion of an amino acid
44
In virology, what is the **eclipse period**?
the time between the **injection** of viral nukes into the Host, and the **appearance** of the *first* fully formed virion
45
What is a **chylomicron**?
What is a chylomicron made of?
Large particles of lipoprotein, that consist of:
triglycerides (~ 85-90%),
phospholipids,
cholesterol,
proteins
46
What is the ***function*** of a chylomicron?
transport **dietary lipids** from the intestines to:
* liver,
* adipose,
* cardiac, and
* skeletal muscle tissue
47
List the five major groups of lipoproteins that enable fats and cholesterol to move within the watery solution of the blood.
chylomicrons,
VLDL,
IDL,
LDL,
HDL
48
Very-low-density lipoproteins are made by the \_\_\_\_
liver
49
(1) What are **Apolipoproteins**?
(2) Their ***fcn***?
proteins that bind lipids to form lipoproteins.
--They **transport** the lipids through the lymphatic and circulatory systems.
--Apolipoproteins also serve as
enzyme **cofactors**, and
**ligands** for cell-surface receptors
50
Chylomicrons are identified by a surface marker called:
apoprotein B-48
51
*Plasma lipoprotein lipase* hydrolyzes:
chylomicrons
52
Which of the major lipoproteins is synthesized by the liver?
VLDL
53
What's the fcn of VLDL?
to transport triglycerides and cholesterol from **liver** to **adipose tissue**
54
IDL, LDL, and VLDL
## Footnote
Which of the above lipoproteins is a *precursor* to the synthesis of which? Rearrange and order the above.
VLDL → IDL → LDL
55
What factors/variables can directly affect the activity of enzymes?
**pH**,
**temperature**,
and **[substrate]** *(i.e., substrate concentration)*
56
Which one of the major Lipoproteins has the lowest lipid *density*?
chylomicrons
57
Which of the major Lipoproteins has the highest lipid *content*?
chylomicrons
58
What effect do enzymes have on *activation energy*?
↓↓ energy of activation
59
What effect do enzymes have on the *rate* of a reaction?
enzymes ↑↑ the reaction's Rate
60
What effect do enzymes have on the rate of the *reverse* reaction?
enzymes ↑↑ the rate of the reverse reaction
61
T/F:
## Footnote
Enzymes ↑↑ the rate of both the forward and reverse reactions.
true
62
What effect do Enzymes have on the **Keq** of a rxn?
none
63
What effect do enzymes have on the Δ S of a reaction?
none
64
What effect do enzymes have on the Δ G of a reaction?
none
65
What effect do enzymes have on the Δ H of a reaction?
none
66
Do RBCs possess mitochondria?
No
67
T/F:
RBCs don't have any organelles.
t
68
T/F:
RBCs have Na+/K+ pumps.
t.
All cells in the human have Na/K pumps.
69
The citric acid cycle not only converts sugars, it also accepts \_\_\_\_\_.
fatty acids and
proteins
70
Acetyl CoA is made from the breakdown of these fuels:
glucose, or
fatty acids
71
What product of glucose breakdown can be converted into amino acids?
pyruvate
72
In order to be optically active, a molecule or compound must be \_\_\_\_.
assymetric
73
[T/F]:
Symmetric molecules can be optically active.
F. Only **_a_**symmetrical molcules can be optically active.
74
Can fatty acids be converted into glucose via Gluconeogenesis?
yep.
## Footnote
Only ODD-chained fatty acids (i.e., odd number of Carbons) can.
75
In order for a compound to enter into Glycolysis, that compound must contain at least **[#]** carbons.
3
76
What is an **isozyme**?
Isozymes are enzymes that differ in amino acid sequence but catalyze the same chemical reaction.
77
For a non-carbohydrate precursor to enter Gluconeogenesis, that precursor must first be converted into:
pyruvate;
oxaloacetate;
dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP)
78
Oxaloacetate requires a ____ shuttle to cross the inner mitochondrial membrane.
malate
79
Oxaloacetate requires a malate shuttle to cross the ____ membrane.
***inner*** mitochondrial
80
Gluconeogenesis can occur in the \_\_\_\_.
--Liver
--Cortex of kidney
81
What is the role of NAD+ in glycolysis?
to accept high-energy electrons during oxidation
82
What is the role of FAD in glycolysis?
to accept high-energy electrons during glycolysis
83
How many carbons does Pyruvate have?
3
84
Which reaction product in the Glycolysis chain, can isomerize into another compound?
Dihydroxyacetone phosphate ↔ glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
85
glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate is AKA
PGAL
86
PGAL is also called:
glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
87
Which reactions within the Glycolysis chain, needs ATP *input* for energy?
(1) the conversion of **glucose** to **glucose 6-phosphate**
(2) conversion of **fructose 6-phosphate** to **fructose 1,6-diphosphate**
88
How much ATP is needed for the conversion of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate?
1
89
How much ATP is needed for the conversion of **fructose 6-phosphate** to **fructose 1,6-diphosphate**.
1
90
What is pyrophosphate?
simply, 2 phosphate ions (PO4 3-) bonded together
91
Write out the ***net*** reaction for glycolysis:
**Glucose **+ 2 **ADP **+ 2 **P*i* **+ **NAD**+ →
2 **pyruvate **+ 2 **ATP** + 2 **NADH** + 2 **H**+ + 2 **H2O**
92
In what reaction(s) of the Glycolysis chain, is *new* ATP **synthesized**?
(1) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate → 3-phosphoglycerate
(2) phosphoenolpyruvate → pyruvate
93
RedOx reactions happen in pairs.
If pyruvate is *reduced* (during fermentation) into lactic acid or ethanol, then what is *oxidized*?
**NADH** is oxidized back into **NAD+**
94
What is the Cori cycle?
the reaction pathway in which **lactate** (produced by anaerobic glycolysis) in the **muscles** moves to the **liver** and is **converted to glucose**, which then returns to the muscles and is metabolized back to lactate.
95
From one glucose, we ultimately get **[#]** NADH.
(assume it's **Aerobic** respiration)
2 from glycolysis
+
2 from decarboxylation of Pyruvate into Acetyl CoA
+
6 from TCA cycle
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Total = **10** per Glucose
96
To start the TCA cycle, you react Acetyl CoA with Oxaloacetate to create \_\_\_\_\_\_.
citrate
97
To start the TCA cycle, you react Acetyl CoA with _____ to create Citrate.
Oxaloacetate
98
Which high-energy intermediates "carry" the electrons from the TCA cycle to the electron transport chain?
**NADH** and **FADH2**
99
Which reactions within the TCA cycle, generate **NADH**?
(1) isocitrate → alpha-Ketoglutarate
(2) alpha-Ketoglutarate → succinyl-CoA
(3) malate → oxaloacetate
100
Which reactions within the TCA cycle, generate **FADH2**?
succinate → fumarate
101
The final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain is:
Oxygen
102
The electron transport chain can be organized into 4 complexes. These are:
Complex 1: NADH dehydrogenase
Complex 2: succinate-Q oxidoreductase
Complex 3: b-c1 complex
Complex 4: cytochrome oxidase complex
and
Coenzyme Q10 (ubiquinone)
103
The electron transport chain begins when NADH gives its electrons directly to \_\_\_\_\_, which is a part of Complex 1.
FMN (flavin mononucleotide)
104
From Complex 1, the next step in the Electron Transport Chain are when the electrons are passed to \_\_\_\_\_.
coenzyme Q
105
In the ET Chain, **coenzyme Q** passes electrons to \_\_\_\_\_.
Complex 3
106
The last step in the ET Chain occurs when electrons from \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which is a component of Complex 4, is given to an Oxygen.
cytochrome a3
107
When arriving at the ET Chain, the **FADH2 **molecules give their electrons to \_\_\_\_\_, which in turn will give the electrons to \_\_\_\_\_.
Complex **2**
coenzyme Q
108
Why is **cyanide** deadly?
it blocks the final transfer of electrons to Oxygen
109
Why is **dinitrophenol** (DNP) deadly?
it destroys mitochondrion's ability to generate a proton gradient
110
Why do we inhale Oxygen? Why is this gas critical for us?
Oxygen's role is to be the **final electron acceptor** in the ET chain.
111
T/F:
Aldosterone is made in the adenohypophysis.
F.
Aldosterone is from the **adrenal cortex**.
112
Where in the cell, does **fermentation** take place?
cytoplasm
113
Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?
cytoplasm
114
Where in the cell does the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA, occur?
mitochondrial matrix
115
Where in the cell does the TCA cycle, occur?
mitochondrial matrix
116
Where in the cell is the ET chain, located?
**inner** mitochondrial membrane
117
What is the ***NET*** yield of ATP from **substrate-level** phosphorylation?
a *net* of **4** ATP
## Footnote
(2 from Glycolysis; and 1 from each turn of the TCA cycle = 4)
118
How many **FADH2** are generated by the TCA cycle?
Each turn of the Krebs cycle, gives you 1 FADH2.
119
In an ***an***aerobic environment, eukaryotic cells can generate \_\_**[#]**\_\_ ATP.
2
120
A **prokaryote** generates \_\_[#]\_\_ ATP from **aero**bic respiration.
38
121
A **eu**karyote generates \_\_[#]\_\_ ATP from **aero**bic respiration.
36
122
Fatty acids can be used as cellular fuel, by taking them into the mitocondrial matrix.
Then, inside the matrix, the fatty acids can be converted into \_\_\_\_.
acetyl CoA
123
Inside the mitochondrial matrix, the **reaction** to turn fatty acids into acetyl CoA is **called**:
beta-oxidation
124
A single beta-oxidation reaction, that generates 1 acetyl-CoA from a fatty acid, generates **high-energy-intermediates**.
(1) **Which **high-energy-intermediates are made?
(2) **How many** hi-energy-intermediates are made?
1 NADH,
and
1 FADH2
125
The removal of the amine moiety from an amino acid is accomplished by this enzyme:
transaminase
126
The removal of an amine moiety from an amino acid, by transaminases, results in molecules called \_\_\_\_\_.
alpha-keto acids
127
To turn a triglyceride into cellular fuel, the glycerol molecule is converted into \_\_\_\_\_, which will then enter Glycolysis.
PGAL
128
How can you tell that a molecule is aromatic?
What determines if a molecule is **aromatic**?
Aromatic compounds comply with All of the following:
* (1)* are **Planar**
* (2)* are **conjugated** - i.e., have a minimum of 2 double bonds, in a double-single-double alternating config
* (3)* HUCKEL's RULE: have **4n + 2** # of **pi** electrons (**lone-pair** electrons count)
129
In a somatic cell, how many chromosomes are present after the S phase?
46
130
T/F:
## Footnote
After the S phase, there are **96** chromosomes in a human somatic cell.
F. Somatic cells *always* have **46** (i.e., "2*n*") chromosomes. No matter what.
131
Gyrase is a type of \_\_\_\_\_ase.
topoisomerase
132
What does Gyrase do?
How does it do that?
It **relieves** the severe supercoiling that Helicase induces when Helicase unwinds DNA, by **breaking the bonds between nucleotides to relax** the DNA.
133
Deoxyribose and ribose are different at Carbon # \_\_\_\_.
2
134
(1) List the ***pro***karyotic ribosomal subunits, in Svedberg units.
(2) What is the *combined* sedimentation coefficient for ***pro***karyotes, in Svedberg units.
30S
50S
combined = 70S
135
(1) List the ***eu***karyotic ribosomal subunits, in Svedberg units.
(2) What is the combined sedimentation coefficient for **eu**karyotes, in Svedberg units.
40 S
60S
combined = 80S
136
What is SSBP?
What does it do?
*Single strand binding protein*
## Footnote
*Fcn*: to keep the replication fork open for the Primase to attach and synthesize an RNA primer.
137
Will an Enantiomer (mirror-image, but Non-superimposable) rotate light in the opposite direction of the original molecule?
Yep.
138
**(d)-molecule** is the same thing as \_\_\_\_\_\_.
**(+**)-molecule
139
**(+)-molecule** is the same thing as \_\_\_\_\_\_.
(d)-molecule
140
**(-)**-molecule is the same thing as \_\_\_\_\_\_.
**(l)**-molecule
141
**(l)**-molecule is the same thing as \_\_\_\_\_\_.
**(-)**-molecule
142
T/F:
(D)-molecule is the same thing as (d)-molecule.
F.
143
Any process that separates enantiomers is called: \_\_\_
resolution
144
An anticodon is found on a **[mRNA / tRNA / DNA]**.
**t**RNA
145
A codon is found on a **[mRNA / tRNA / DNA]**.
**m**RNA
146
The sk-loop of tRNA contains the \_\_\_\_\_.
anticodon sequence
147
The Shine-Delgarno sequence is rich in **[purines / pyrimidines]**.
purines
148
T/F:
## Footnote
In order for an organic molecule to be optically active, it must possess chiral centers.
tru
149
Can Enantiomers be separated by distillation?
No
150
Can Enantiomers be distributed by recrystallization?
no
151
The Shine-Delgarno sequence is located ***[#]*** base-pairs upstream of the 5' end of the start codon on an mRNA.
10
152
The Shine-Delgarno sequence is found on **[DNA / mRNA / tRNA]**.
mRNA
153
What reaction pathway in the body synthesizes **G**TP?
TCA (Krebs) cycle
154
Which amino acids are known as "helix breakers"?
proline
155
Which amino acids are also considered as **imino** acids?
proline
156
How many amino acids are Achiral?
1
| (glycine)
157
**Where** in the cell does post-transcriptional modification occur?
Rough ER, and
Golgi
158
In the body, oxidation of Lipids takes place in the \_\_\_\_\_.
mitochondria
159
**Protein** digestion starts in the \_\_\_.
stomach
160
Protein digestion in the stomach is made possible by an enzyme called \_\_\_.
Pepsin
161
Digestion of proteins begins in the stomach, and is completed in the \_\_\_\_\_.
small intestine
162
Phenylalanine is converted into another amino acid called \_\_\_.
tyrosine
163
Tyrosine is a precursor of \_\_\_\_.
dopamine and
norepinephrine
164
What is a **Barr body**?
a permanently inactivated X-chromosome
165
T/F:
Males have Barr bodies.
Fals. Only Females!
166
T/F:
Females have Barr bodies.
Tru
167
Females have two X chromosomes. Are both *expressed*?
**No**.
## Footnote
Normal females have XX, and **one** of these X chromosomes is *inactivated* and turned into a **Barr body**.
168
If a gene is "imprinted", that means that the gene is \_\_\_\_.
methylated.
169
A person w/ 2 Barr bodies has *how many X chromosomes*?
You always have ***1+n*** X chromosomes and ***n*** Barr bodies.
170
Give **4** High Yield facts about **autosomal dominant** inheritance.
* **Only 1** copy of the mutant gene is needed to have the disease.
* Traits **DO NOT SKIP** generations
* There's an **equal** number of Males and Females who get the disease.
* **Father's** can give the disease to their **sons**.
171
Can genetic mutations lead to abnormal carbohydrate function?
NO.
Mutations alter proteins, not carbs.
172
For sex-linked disorders, which inheritance pattern/type will show *"skipped generations"*?
X-linked *RECESSIVE*
173
T/F:
## Footnote
A man with an X-linked recessive disease can pass it on to his sons.
Fals.
## Footnote
Fathers give their sons the **Y** chromosome. So men who have an X-linked disease, got it from their MOMs.
174
Males get their Y chromosome from **[mom / dad / either]**.
***ONLY*** from Dad !!!
175
T/F:
## Footnote
DNA Polymerase *proofreads* the new DNA strand during replication/synthesis.
Tru.
DNA Polymerase **proofreads** as it synthesizes.
176
The protein, that **relaxes the tension** caused by the opening of the replication fork, is called \_\_\_.
gyrase
177
If a heterozygous man and heterozygous woman both carry an autosomal recessive gene, there is a ____ percent chance that they will have a child with the active disease.
25 %
| (draw a Punnett square to see why)
178
If a heterozygous man and heterozygous woman both carry an autosomal recessive gene, there is a ____ percent chance that they will have a healthy child with no abnormal genes.
25 %
| (draw a Punnett square to see why)
179
B cells are made in the \_\_\_\_.
Bone marrow.
180
T-cells are made in the \_\_\_\_.
bone marrow
181
T-cells go to the ____ to mature.
Thymus
182
Okazaki fragments are bonded together by \_\_\_\_ase.
DNA ligase
183
Which has a Lower affinity for oxygen:
myoglobin or hemoglobin?
Hemoglobin
184
Which has a Higher affinity for oxygen:
myoglobin or cytochrome oxidase?
cytochrome oxidase
185
Most viruses acquire their envelopes from the \_\_\_\_.
Host's **plasma** membrane
186
HSV-1 acquires its envelope from \_\_\_\_\_\_.
the Host's **nuclear** membrane.
187
All invading particles (viruses, bacteria, fungi, etc.) have ____ , AKA _____ that allow them to be detected by the Host's immune system.
surface markers, AKA anti**gen**s
188
Define "virulence".
ability to cause infection
189
T/F:
HSV-1 can be spread thru skin contact.
tru
190
How does HSV-1 get from skin to your nervous system?
HSV-1 travels from skin to a Ganglion, via **retrograde movement along the axons of afferent sensory nerve fibers**.
191
HSV-1 travels, from skin, along axons of **[afferent / efferent] [motor / sensory]** nerve fibers.
afferent;
sensory
192
During its latency period, HSV-1 "hides" in your body in \_\_\_\_.
ganglia
(usually the Trigeminal nerve's ganglion)
193
In Virology, what is **tegument**?
a cluster of proteins that is located between the virus' capsid and envelope.
194
Teguments are associated with this family of viruses:
Herpesviruses
195
Herpesviridae are a family of **[single / double]**-stranded **[DNA / RNA]** viruses.
double
DNA
196
Tyrosine is created from this amino acid:
phenylalanine
197
phenylalanine is a precursor to this amino acid:
tyrosine
198
What is the Michaelis-Menten equation for **competitive** inhibition?
Vo =
| (Vmax \* [S]) ** /** ([S] + Km )
199
A reaction has a certain Km and Vmax. If you add a ***competitive*** inhibitor to the reaction, the **Km** will **[increase / decrease / not change]**.
increase
200
A reaction has a certain Km and Vmax. If you add a **non**competitive inhibitor to the reaction, the **Vmax** will **[increase / decrease / not change]**.
decrease
## Footnote
EXPLANATION:
Non-competitive inhibition is a form of mixed inhibition where the **binding of the inhibitor** to the enzyme **reduces its activity** but does not affect the binding of substrate. As a result, the extent of inhibition depends only on the concentration of the inhibitor. **Vmax will decrease** due to the inability for the reaction to proceed as efficiently, but Km will remain the same as the actual binding of the substrate, by definition, will still function properly.
201
A reaction has a certain Km and Vmax. If you add a ***non***competitive inhibitor to the reaction, the **Km** will **[increase / decrease / not change]**.
Not change
## Footnote
EXPLANATION:
Non-competitive inhibition is a form of mixed inhibition where the binding of the inhibitor to the enzyme ***reduces*** its activity but **does *not* affect the binding** of substrate. As a result, the extent of inhibition depends only on the concentration of the inhibitor. Vmax will decrease due to the inability for the reaction to proceed as efficiently, but **Km will remain the same** as the **actual binding** of the substrate, by definition, **will still function properly**.
202
A reaction has a certain Km and Vmax. If you add a ***competitive*** inhibitor to the reaction, the **Vmax** will **[increase / decrease / not change]**.
Not change
203
Hexokinase catalyzes the reaction of _____ to \_\_\_\_\_.
turns **glucose** into **glucose-6-phosphate**
204
What reaction does **Phosphoglucomutase** catalyze?
the interconversion of **glucose 1-phosphate** and **glucose 6-phosphate**.
205
The glucose subunits within glycogen are bonded to each other through _____ linkages.
α─1,4
206
T/F:
The liver lacks glucose-6-phosphatase.
Fals
207
**Glucose-6-phosphatase** is found in ____ but is *lacking* in \_\_\_\_, although both these organs contain glycogen.
the **Liver**;
**skeletal** muscle
208
The enzyme *glycogen phosphorylase* **[creates / breaks down]** glycogen.
breaks down
209
The enzyme that catalyzes the rate-limiting step in **Glycogenolysis** is \_\_\_\_.
glycogen phosphorylase
210
**Glycogen phosphorylase** breaks down glycogen into:
glycogen, and glucose-1-phosphate
211
T/F:
Glucose-**6**-phosphate can*not* freely diffuse out of the cell.
Tru.
## Footnote
That's why glucose-6-phosphate is hydrolyzed into glucose.
212
VLDL transports \_\_\_\_\_, from _____ to \_\_\_\_.
triglycerides and cholesterol;
the liver;
adipose tissue
213
Fatty acids can be converted into glucose, via Gluconeogenesis; HOWEVER:
Only **ODD**-chained fatty acids (i.e., odd number of Carbons) can.
214
The time period, between the injection of viral nukes into the Host and the appearance of the first fully formed virion, is called the \_\_\_\_\_.
**eclipse** period
215
The "**c**" in the term **cDNA** stands for:
complementary
216
What is **cDNA**, or "**complementary DNA**"?
complementary DNA (cDNA) is DNA **synthesized from** a messenger RNA (**mRNA**) **template** in a reaction which is **catalysed by** the enzymes **reverse transcriptase** and **DNA polymerase**
217
Why do scientists or researchers use **cDNA**?
cDNA is often used to **clone *eu****karyotic* genes inside **pro**karyotes.
218
Where *in nature* is **c**DNA seen?
cDNA is produced naturally by **retroviruses** (such as HIV) and then integrated into the host's genome, where it creates a *provirus*.
219
*Introns* and *exons* are terms that refer specifically to **[tRNA / mRNA / rRNA / DNA]**.
**m**RNA
220
T/F:
Introns and exons are *not* features of **eu**karyotes.
**Fals**.
## Footnote
Introns and exons are found in organisms of **all** of the biological kingdoms. They are also found in **viruses**.
221
T/F:
## Footnote
After the virus invades the Host, **Reverse transcriptase** is synthesized by the Host cell's machinery.
Fals.
## Footnote
Reverse transcriptase is Not made by eurkaryotic cells. The Retrovirus *carries its own* reverse transcriptase and brings it into the Host cell.
222
T/F:
Retroviruses are diploid.
tru.
223
**B cells** mature in this part of the body.
Bone marrow.
224
Bacterial growth when graphed, follows a \_\_\_\_\_-shaped curve.
**S** shaped
225
The 4 **phases** of the bacterial **life cycle** are:
1. **lag** phase
2. **exponential** growth phase
3. **plateau** / stationary phase
4. bacterial **death** phase
226
The **chronological order** of events, from a virus' invasion into the Host cell, to viral replication, are:
1. **target** cell binding ("tissue tropism")
2. **Attachment** via host cell's surface surface receptors.
3. Penetration
4. Uncoating
5. Viral **synthesis**
227
What does "**tissue tropism**" mean?
each virus (species) has a specific target tissue preference
228
What is trans**location**?
the **rejoining** of broken **chromosomes**' ends
229
T/F:
Some **pro**karyotes have cell walls made of chitin.
Fals.
## Footnote
The cell walls of **pro**karyotes are made from peptidoglycan.
230
What does "**mass action**" mean?
refers to the Net movement of mass (from location to another)
231
T/F:
The process of endocytosis requires ATP.
tru
232
Insulin is a **[peptide / tyrosine / steroid]** hormone.
peptide
233
T/F:
Insulin is lipid soluble.
Fals.
Insulin is water soluble. Insulin is a peptide hormone.
234
T/F:
Prolactin is water-soluble.
tru
235
Three *physiologic* causes of a drop in Blood Pressure are:
1. arteries or arterioles **dilate**
2. heart **rate** ↓↓↓
3. a ↓↓ in blood **volume**
236
DNA tends to be **[negatively / positively / not]** charged.
negatively
237
Do histones have a charge?
If so, which?
positive
238
Histones are **[acidic / basic / neutral]**.
Basic
239
Fungi spend a lot of their time in a **[haploid / diploid]** state.
**ha**ploid
240
What happens to somebody who's given **thermogenin**?
↑↑ body temperature
241
Teichoic acids are found in **[**gram **+ /** gram-**neg /** neither**]** bacteria.
ONLY Gram Positive
242
A specific type of covalent bond found in the cell walls of gram **+** bacteria is the ______ bond.
phosphodiester
243
Two important "acids" found in the cell walls of gram **+** bacteria are:
teichoic acids; &
lipoteichoic acid
244
**N-acetyl muramic acid** is found only in this organism:
bacteria
245
*Mycoplasma* is this type of organism:
bacteria
246
*Mycoplasma* lack this organelle/component, which almost all other species of bacteria have:
cell walls
247
The release of any neurotransmitter from the axon terminal into the synaptic cleft requires an influx of \_\_\_\_\_.
Calcium ions
248
Glycosaminoglycans (**GAG**) have **[**no **//** a net **positive //** a net **negative]** charge at normal body pH.
net Negative
249
What is the difference between **PRIMARY** active transport, versus **SECONDARY** active transport?
Primary A.T. **consumes** ATP **directly**.
Secondary A.T. burns ATP to **create** a concentration **gradient**. The new concentration gradient is what "moves" the molecule across the membrane.
250
The **cells** which secrete **surfactants** are called \_\_\_\_\_.
pneumocytes
251
Where inside the cell does GLUCONEOGENESIS occur?
in **BOTH** the mitochondria and cytosol
252
Actin is a **[microfilament // microtubule]**.
micro**filament**
253
Teichoic acids are found in **[gram + / gram negative / both / neither]** bacteria.
only gram POSITIVE
254
A specific type of covalent **bond** found in the cell walls of gram positive bacteria is the \_\_\_\_\_.
phosphodiester bond
255
Two important "acids" found in the cell walls of gram POSITIVE bacteria are:
* lipoteichoic acid
* teichoic acids
256
**N-acetyl muramic acid** is found only in this organism:
bacteria
257
**Mycoplasma** is this type of Organism (fungus, bacteria, virus, etc.):
bacteria
258
*Mycoplasma* lack this component/structure, which almost all other species of bacteria have:
cell walls
259
The release of any neurotransmitter from the axon terminal into the synaptic cleft requires an influx of \_\_\_\_\_.
Ca++
260
Glycosaminoglycans (GAG) have **[a net positive / a net negative / no]** charge at normal body pH.
net **negative**
261
What is the difference between PRIMARY active transport, versus SECONDARY active transport?
Primary A.T. consumes ATP **directly**.
Secondary A.T. burns ATP to create a concentration gradient. This new concentration gradient is what "moves" the molecule across the membrane.
262
The **cells** that secrete **surfactants** are called \_\_\_\_.
pneumocytes
263
Where inside the cells does GLUCONEOGENESIS occur?
in BOTH mitochondria & cytosol
264
Actin is a **[**micro**filament /** micro**tubule]**.
micro**filament**
265
T/F:
Dendrites can Not synapse with other dendrites.
Fals.
Yea they can.
266
Which receptor is slower? Nicotinic or Muscarinic?
Muscarinic
267
What does **superoxide dismutase** do?
Catalyzes dismutation of **superoxide** radical into **hydrogen peroxide**
268
What are the major areas/surfaces of the body where **cilia** are found?
* trachea and bronchi of the resp tract
* lumen of the Small intestine
* fallopian tubes
269
Conduction of a cardiac impulse thru Purkinje fibers depend on **[sodium / ion]**-dependent channels.
sodium
270
On a **myelinated neuron** the greatest concentration of Na+ -ion channels is found on the:
Nodes of Ranvier
271
As the **radius** of an axon ↓↓ , the **speed** of an action potential:
↓↓↓
| (see Poiseuille's Eqn)
272
1. Which **organism** causes toxoplasmosis?
2. Which **species** is that pathogen?
a protozoan, named Toxoplasma gondii
273
The Electron Transport Chain accepts these 2 **substrates**/**intermediates**:
NADH,
FADH2
274
**NAD+** serves as a substrate for **[glycolysis / Krebs / ETC]**.
Glycolysis, & Krebs cycle
275
Does **tubulin** consist of 1 polypeptide, or more than 1?
Tubulin is a globular heterodimer, made of **2** peptide chains?
276
Ca 2+ must bind to *this component* of a sarcomere, to cause the actin-myosin interaction to occur:
troponin C
277
Another name for the THICK filament in a sarcomere is:
myosin
278
Another name for the THIN filament in a sarcomere is:
actin
279
Myosin is a **[microfilament / microtubule]**.
micro**filament**
280
Actin is a **[microfilament / microtubule]**.
micro**filament**
281
The neuromuscular endplate region is mediated by ions of this **element**:
Sodium
282
Define **sarcolemma**
cell membrane of ***striated*** muscle cells
283
What are **T-tubules**?
invaginations of the sarcolemma
284
Inside each skeletal muscle fiber, ions of this **element** have to be released in order for the muscle power stroke to occur:
calcium
285
Describe **labile** cells.
Labile cells, are cells that are in constant need of cell division to replace dead/damaged cells.
286
Give 3 examples of "labile" cells:
* skin
* tympanic membrane
* GI tract
287
Which of these cells can NOT divide?
* pancreatic
* liver
* nerve
* cardiac
nerve cells, and cardiac
288
***Hyper***polarization of a cell occurs when ____ exits that cell.
K + ions
289
Which muscle **types** are T-tubules found in?
skeletal
cardiac
290
Depolarization of the T-tubule membrane triggers the release of _____ from the \_\_\_\_\_, thus causing muscle contraction.
calcium**;**
sarcoplasmic reticulum
291
Which muscle ***types*** have **myosin light chain kinase**?
smooth
292
The **acquired** immune system consists of 2 categories/components:
cell-mediated; and
humoral
293
1. Which muscle **types** have troponin?
2. Tropomysin?
skeletal, and
cardiac
294
Which **hormone** inhibits the secretion of ACTH from the pituitary, via negative feedback?
cortisone
295
The 3 **functions** of T-cells are:
1. activate **B-cells**
2. stimulate **macrophage **growth
3. destroy foreign invaders and abnormal tissue
296
The part of the brain responsible for **motor coordination** and **balance** is:
cerebellum
297
The part of brain responsible for controlling **respiratory rate**, and **heart rate**:
medulla
298
**Inhibin** is secreted by these cells:
Sertoli cells
299
Sertoli cells secrete \_\_\_\_\_\_
inhibin
300
What hormone from the hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary to release FSH?
GnRH
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
301
What hormone from the hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary to release LH?
**GnRH**
gonadotropin-releasing hormone
302
GnRH (gonadotropin-releasing hormone) is secreted by the \_\_\_\_\_.
hypothalamus
303
**GnRH** (gonadotropin-releasing hormone), from the hypothalamus, tells the **pituitary** to secrete \_\_\_\_.
**FSH**,
and **LH**
304
This hormone, from the hypothalamus, stimulates the release of prolactin from the pituitary gland:
**TRH**
(Thyrotropin-releasing hormone);
also called
**TRF** (thyrotropin-releasing factor)
305
This hormone, from the hypothalamus, triggers the release of TSH from the pituitary gland:
TRH
thyroid-releasing hormone
306
This hormone, from the hypothalamus, triggers the release of ACTH from the pituitary gland:
CRF
corticotropin-releasing factor
307
What does a **trophic** hormone do?
tells *other* glands to secrete their own hormones
308
What characteristic distinguishes the **EXO**crine system?
uses **ducts** to release active compounds
309
What are the 3 major proteins found in serum/plasma?
albumin,
globulins,
fibrinogen
310
What hormone is known to suppress levels of phosphorous?
parathyroid hormone
311
What causes **hyper**polarization of a neuron?
excessive efflux of K+ out of a neuron
312
What does Vitamin **D** do in the body?
**↑↑** absorption of **Ca2+** from the intestine, thus promoting bone **formation** and **mineralization**
313
What hormone helps convert Vitamin D to its active form?
parathyroid hormone
314
Bile salts are made in the \_\_\_\_\_
liver
315
Epi and Norepi are synthesized by these cells of the adrenal medulla:
chromaffin cells
316
High levels of fat metabolism leads to ↑↑ levels of _____ in the blood
ketone bodies
317
Ketone bodies are end products of _____ metabolism
fat
318
Gap junctions are particularly abundant in the cells of these organs:
heart,
and smooth muscle
319
**Thyroid hormone** ↑↑ the basal metabolic rate by \_\_\_\_\_\_.
stimulating protein **synthesis** and ↑↑ the activity of the **Na/K-ATPase**.
320
Which hormone(s) lower blood volume?
atrial natriuretic peptide
321
What effect does **calcitonin** have on the kidneys?
**blocks** tubular reabsorption of **Calcium** and **Phosphorous**, so those minerals are lost in the urine.
322
The active form of Vitamin D is called:
Cholecalciferol
| (or **1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol**)
323
Where is the receptor for cortisol located on a cell?
on the nuclear envelope
324
After cortisol diffuses into the cell and binds to a receptor on nuclear envelope, what happens next?
the cortisol receptor complex binds to a specific DNA region to activate gene transcription
325
Where on a cell is the receptor for a lipid hormone, located?
lipid hormone = steroids
All steroids bind to receptors on the nucleus
326
Which steroid hormones activate a cell by 2nd-messenger system?
NONE of the lipid-soluble hormones need 2nd-messenger or CAMP. Steroids bind directly to receptor, on nuclear envelope, or found in cytosol.
327
Which hormone(s) require a 2nd-messenger system to move "signal" from cell membrane receptor to the nucleus?
_ALL_ peptide hormones need 2nd-messenger systems
328
What binds to alpha-2 receptors?
norepi
329
What effect does cortisol have on protein?
causes **↓↓** in **synthesis** of protein, AND
causes **↑↑** in **Catabolism** of **proteins**
330
What in a person's blood work is/are sign(s) of elevated cortisol levels?
↑↑ amino acids in bloood;
↑↑ in blood sugar
331
Which hormones released by the anterior pituitary are NOT peptide hormones?
They're ALL peptide hormones
332
Using arrows, list the **pathway** that shows how the 3 tyrosine-derivatives are made from phenylalanine:
Phenylalanine → Tyrosine → L-dopa → Dopamine → Norepinephrine → Epinephrine
333
What cells in digestive system secrete **intrinsic factor**?
the same parietal/oxyntic cells that secrete HCl
334
List all the ENDOcrine glands:
Adrenal cortex
Adrenal medulla
Hypothalamus
Islets of Langerhans
Ovaries
Parathyroid gland
Pineal gland
Pituitary
Testes
Thyroid
p. 278 of Kaplan
335
T/F:
## Footnote
Epinephrine and norepinephrine are responsible for the "fight or flight response."
Fals (partly)
*ONLY* **nor**epinephrine
336
Which neurotransmitter(s) is/are **inhibitory**?
GABA
Glycine
(Dopamine can be **Both** excitatory and inhibitory)
337
List the phases of the menstrual cycle:
* menstruation
* follicular / proliferative phase
* ovulation
* luteal / secretory phase
338
The vas deferens connects the _____ to the \_\_\_\_\_\_.
epididymis;
prostatic urethra
339
The 2 vas deferens (1 from each testicle) merge to form the \_\_\_\_.
ejaculatory duct
340
Semen is produced by the ingredients of all these **glands**:
prostate,
seminal vesicles,
bulbourethral gland
341
These glands contribute to the alkalinity of semen:
prostate;
bulbourethral gland
342
Germ cells are \_\_\_\_ploid.
**_di_**ploid
| (gametes are Haploid)
343
Where are **Sertoli** cells located?
walls of the seminiferous tubules
344
The *final* stages of sperm maturation occur in the \_\_\_\_\_.
epididymis
345
Define **interstitium**.
a *thing*, or a *region*, which is between other structures
346
Do spermato**gonia** divide by mitosis, or by meiosis?
mitosis
347
During gametogenesis, sister chromatids remain paired with each other until this stage:
until anaphase of the 2nd meiotic cell division
348
T/F:
Genetic recombination occurs between sister chromatids
Fals.
## Footnote
Gen recomb occurs between homologous chromosomes, NOT sister chromatids
349
Where do mitochondria in sperm get their energy?
from fructose
350
The fructose that feeds/energizes sperm, comes from this part of the body:
seminal vescicles
351
ACTH stimulates the adrenals to:
release glucocorticoids
352
The opposite of a "direct" hormone is a/n ____ hormone.
trophic
353
1. How are Trophic hormones similar to Direct hormones?
2. How are they different from Direct hormones?
Like "direct" hormones, "trophic" hormones also bind to receptors on organs. But rather than having an immediate effect, they *cause the release of effector hormones*.
So trophic hormones are *an intermediate*.
354
ADH is secreted in response to \_\_\_\_.
↑↑ blood **osmolarity**
↓↓ blood **volume**
355
What part of body detects changes in **blood osmolarity**?
osmoreceptors
356
What part of the body detects changes in **blood volume**?
baroreceptors
357
ADH acts on this part of the body:
collecting duct
358
In terms of physiology, what does ADH do to achieve ↑↑ blood **pressure** and **volume**?
↑↑ permeability of duct to H2O, so water is retained in the body
359
What are signs of somebody suffering from **HYPER**thyroidism?
↑ activity levels
↑ body temp
↑ respiratory rate
↑ heart rate
**↓↓ weight**
intolerance to heat
360
1. What is cretinism?
2. What is its cause?
1. metal retardation and developmental delay
2. thyroid hormone deficiency
361
Where are **C-cells** found?
thyroid
362
The _____ cells of thyroid produce thyroid hormones.
follicular
363
The _____ cells of the thyroid produce calcitonin.
C-cells
364
The effects of **cortisol**/cortisone are:
↑↑ gluconeogenesis
↓↓ protein synthesis
↓↓ inflammation
↓↓ immune response
365
Renin is secreted by ____ cells.
**granular** cells of the **juxtaglomerular apparatus **of the kidney
366
Somatostatin blocks this hormone:
Insulin; and
Glucagon
367
T/F:
LH causes (mens') interstitial cells to produce testosterone.
tru
368
Why is testosterone important for males?
* Spermatogenesis
* male embryonic differentiation
* male development during puberty
369
Testosterone provides negative feedback to these hormone(s):
FSH;
GnRH;
LH
370
What is **androgen insensitivity syndrome**?
a genetic male (XY) has secondary female sexual characteristics
371
What is the etiology for androgen insensitivity syndrome?
receptors for testosterone are absent
372
Type ____ Diabetes is an autoimmune disorder
1
373
**Insulin-dependent** diabetes mellitus is AKA \_\_\_\_.
type **1** diabetes
374
Birth control pills work by blocking this hormone(s):
FSH;
LH
375
What happens in the **follicular phase** of the menstrual cycle?
* menstrual **flow** begins (i.e., menstruation from the *previous* cycle
* **GnRH** secretion from hypothalamus → an ↑↑ in **FSH** and ↑↑ in **LH**
* FSH and LH cause development of *several* ovarian **follicles**
* Follicles secrete **estrogen**
* Estrogen stimulates **endometrium**'s growth, revascularization, and glandularization of the decidua
376
During which phase of the menstrual cycle does estrogen *peak*?
in both the **proliferative/follicular** phase and the **luteal/secretory** phase
377
During which phase does progesterone *spike*?
secretory/luteal
378
What happens during the **secretory phase**?
* LH turns ruptured follicle into **corpus luteum**
* corpus lutem secretes **progesterone**, which maintains the uterine lining, thus **facilitating emplantation** of embryo
* both estrogen and progesterone reach high levels, which give **negative feedback** to GnRH, FSH, and LH
379
Erythropoietin is secreted by ______ in response \_\_\_\_\_.
kidney;
low levels of oxygen in the blood
380
Why can the heart be considered an endocrine gland?
heart secretes atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
381
Why can thymus be considered an endocrine gland?
thymus releases thymosin
382
What is the function/action of **glucocorticoids**?
↑↑ blood glucose leel;
↓↓ protein synthesis
383
What is the function/action of mineralocorticoids?
↑↑ water reabsorption in the kidneys
384
What is the function/action of norepinephrine?
↑↑ blood glucose level;
↑↑ heart rate
385
What is the function/action of **somatostatin**?
suppress the secretion of glucagon and insulin
386
What is the function/action of erythropoietin?
stimulates the bone marrow to ↑↑ production of red blood cells
387
What is the function/action of ANP?
involved in **osmo**regulation (helps regulate salt and water balance)
388
What is the function/action of thymosin?
stimulates T-lymphocyte development
389
The primary oocytes of a female infant are stuck in the **\_\_\_\_** phase of Meiosis **[#]** until time for ovulation.
Prophase 1;
1
390
When does a **secondary** oocyte complete Meiosis 1?
Trick question!
## Footnote
PRIMARY oocytes do Meiosis 1 (to turn into secondary oocytes). So **_secondary_ oocytes do Meiosis _2_**, not Meiosis 1.
391
When does an oocyte complete Meiosis **1**?
*Primary* occytes are stuck in Prophase 1 of Meiosis 1, **until hormonal signals during a menstrual cycle stimulate several primary oocytes**, in the ovary, to compete among themselves **to finish Meiosis 1** and become ***secondary*** oocytes.
392
When does a secondary oocyte complete Meiosis 2?
only after fertilization
393
T/F:
## Footnote
All primary oocytes are formed while a female is still an embryo in her mother's womb.
tru
394
When fertilization occurs, the nuclei of the sperm and the egg do not fuse, until:
until the egg extrudes the 2nd polar body, and matures into an ovum
395
What is an ootid?
a zygote-precursor cell that contains the separate nuclei of both the sperm and the egg.
396
When menstruation occurs, a woman loses not a mature ovum, but rather a \_\_\_\_\_.
secondary oocyte that's frozen in meiosis
397
When talking about ovaries, what is a **follicle**?
a primary oocyte surrounded by granulosa cells
398
The female equivalent of the interstitial cells of Leydig is:
the thecal cells
399
Define **corona radiata**.
the name given to the granulosa cells, surrounding the ovum and the ovum's zona pellucida, ***after* ovulation.**
400
During the first half of the menstrual cycle, estrogen is made and secreted by the ____ cells.
granulosa cells in the ovarian follicle
401
The corpus luteum makes this hormone(s):
* progesterone, and
* estrogen
402
Where, in the effector cell, is the **receptor** for **estrogen** located?
in the cytoplasm
403
*In terms of the endocrine system* physiology, why does menstruation occur?
because when corpus luteum degenrates, it no longer secretes progesterone nor estrogen. *The drop in these 2 hormones* leads to shedding of the endometrial lining.
404
T/F:
## Footnote
high levels of estrogen inhibit the secretion of LH and FSH.
tru
405
What causes the **LH surge** that will trigger ovulation?
the *gradual* ↑↑ in estrogen levels during the follicular phase
406
*How* does the birth control pill do its job?
pill contains **estrogen**, which forces estrogen levels in the blood to remain high.
High estrogen levels block ovulation b/c **constantly high estrogen levels** inhibit the secretion of LH, FSH, and GnRH
407
**Ovulation** occurs at around Day # \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of the menstrual cycle.
14
408
Menstruation begins at around Day # ____ of the menstrual cycle.
1
409
After the blastocyst implants into the endometrium, ____ acts as a substitute for LH.
hCG
410
hCG acts as a substitute for this hormone:
LH
411
1. What is the role/action of hCG?
2. How does it achieve that function?
1. Maintains endometrium, by **keeping up the supply** of estrogen **and** progesterone
2. acts as a substitute for LH by **stimulating corpus luteum** to make estrogen and progesterone
412
During pregnancy, **corpus luteum** is necessary during **[**1st trimester **/** 1st *and* second trimester **/** 3rd trimester only **/** during ALL of pregnancy **/** is NOT necessary during pregnancy**]**.
1st trimester
413
Why is corpus luteum not necessary after 1st trimester?
placenta will secrete enough estrogen and progesterone to maintain the endometrium
414
Why is the **yolk sac** important in human embryology?
first red blood cells are formed there
415
Approx _____ % of filtered Na+ is reabsorbed in the prox convoluted tubule.
67
416
Approx 67 % of Na is reabsorbed in the ____ of the kidney.
prox. convoluted tubule
417
**cholecystokinin** is released into the alimentary canal by cells which are *located* in the \_\_\_\_\_.
duodenum, and
prox jejunum
418
1. What is the **macula densa**?
2. What does it do?
a receptor within the juxtaglomerular apparatus that *responds to low NaCl levels* in the fluid entering the *distal* nephron
419
Where in the body are **podocytes** located?
In the Bowman's capsule
420
The kidney **filtration barrier** is made of these 3 structures:
1. capillary endothelium
2. basement membrane
3. filtration slits
421
When talking about the heart, what is **preload**?
the end-diastolic *pressure* that stretches the right or left ventricle of the heart, as measured by the *volume of blood in the ventricle* at the end of diastole ("dub")
422
What is Starling's first law?
an ↑↑ in venous blood returning to the heart, causes an ↑↑ in cardiac output.
An ↑↑ in Preload, causes an ↑↑ in total blood volume ejected by the heart.
423
What is **cardiac output**?
amount of blood pumped out by the heart
424
Define **afterload**.
the resistance, to blood flow, created by the Aorta
425
What is Starling's second law?
An ↑↑ in afterload causes an ↓↓ in the amount of blood ejected by the heart, and ↑↑ the total blood volume in the ventricle for the next heart contraction ("lub").
B/c the blood volume inside the ventricle is ↑ , the ventricle will contract with greater force on the *next* contraction.
426
The part of the brain responsible for **_in_**voluntary breathing is located in the \_\_\_\_\_\_.
the medulla, and
pons
427
What is the normal expected **hematocrit** for a healthy person?
~ **45** percent
428
Macrophages are derived from ___ cells.
monocytes
429
Monocytes are synthesized in the ____ and are precursors to ____ cells.
1. bone marrow
2. macrophage
430
**Epi**mysium is the connective tissue sheath that covers the \_\_\_\_\_.
entire muscle
431
\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the connective tissue sheath that covers the *entire muscle*, and it is continuous with the tendon.
epimysium
432
T/F:
Epimysium is continuous with the tendon.
tru
433
What is a fascicle?
a *bundle* of muscle cells
434
1. What is a **peri**mysium?
2. What does it do?
connective tissue sheat that **surrounds a fascicle**
435
1. What is **endo**mysium?
2. What does it ensheath?
connective tissue that surrounds *a single muscle cell/fiber*
436
Endomysium is created by ___ cells.
fibroblast
437
**Actin** is the _____ filament, while **myosin** is the ____ filament.
1. thin;
2. thick
(mnemonic: "tough actin' THIN-Actin")
438
What's a **proprioceptor**?
a receptor that provides info about the movement or position of a body part
439
The **Golgi tendon organ**, and the **muscle spindle** are types of \_\_\_\_\_.
proprioceptors
440
The Golgi tendon organ lies in **[**series **/** parallel**]** with the muscle and it is sensitive to changes in \_\_\_\_\_.
1. series
2. tension
441
The muscle spindle lies in **[**series **/ **parallel**]** with the muscle and it is sensitive to changes in \_\_\_\_\_.
parallel;
length
442
These specific types of tissue can generate action potentials:
1. (some) cardiac myocytes
2. neurons, and
3. skeletal muscle
443
**Cardiac myocytes** that can generate action potentials have channels that are selective for this/these ions:
Na,
Cl,
Ca,
K
444
What induces the heart to release ANP?
distention of the atrial chamber (i.e., high blood volume)
445
How does ANF/**ANP** affect the body?
it stimulates the kidneys to **eliminate Na** and **H2O**.
446
The amount of **[**actin **/** myosin **/** tropomyosin**]** is the same in both smooth and skeletal muscles.
actin; and
tropomyosin
447
What are the 2 types of **ossification**?
1. Endochondral;
2. Intramembraneous
448
What is *intramembraneous* ossification?
the condensation of mesenchymal tissue into intramembraneous bone
449
What is endochondral ossification?
the indirect conversion of an intermediate **cartilage** model into endochondral bone
450
The holes, in bones, which are created by osteo**clast**s are called:
Howship's lacunae
451
The *nonspecific* immune system is AKA the ____ immune system.
innate
452
The immune system can be divided into the ____ immunity and ______ immunity.
1. innate / nonspecific
2. acquired / adaptive
453
What is interferon?
a protein that prevents viral replication and dispersion
454
Is **interferon** part of innate immunity or adaptive immunity?
innate
455
Which cells are part of *innate* immunity?
macrophage;
mast cells;
granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils);
dendritic cells;
NK cells
456
Which cell(s) are part of adaptive immunity?
B-cell;
T-cell
457
What are the 4 deviations / exceptions from Mendelian genetics?
1. incomplete dominance
2. codominance
3. penetrance and expressivity
4. inherited disorders
458
What is the numerical **ratio** that we see with (Mendelian) *mono*hybrid crosses?
3 : 1
459
What is the **ratio** that we see with Mendelian **di**hybrid crosses?
9 : 3 : 3 : 1
460
What is the ratio that we see with *incomplete* dominance?
1 : 2 : 1
dominant : mixed : recessive
461
In genetics, what does **penetrance** mean?
Penetrance of a genotype is the # of ppl in a population carrying an allele, who actually express that allele's phenotype.
462
In genetics, what is **expressivity**?
the **varying severity** of the expression of the phenotype (eg, disease symptoms), among ppl who have the *same* genotype
463
The *ovulation* period lasts about ___ days
24 hours
464
Which hormone(s)/neurotransmitter(s) can ↑↑ **blood glucose** levels?
1. ACTH
2. cortisol
3. norepi / epinephrine
4. glucagon
5. growth hormone
6. thyroxine
465
The 2 main tasks of the colon are:
1. water reabsorption;
2. K+ secretion
466
The fcn of **aldosterone**:
reabsorb **Na** and **H2O**
467
What organ(s) does aldosterone target?
Distal convoluted tubule; and
Collecting duct;
Large intestine / Colon
468
What is reabsorbed in the **Proximal** Convoluted Tubule?
The
* glucose
* ions
* H2O
* almost all the amino acids
which enter the nephron
469
1. What is reabsorbed in the glomerulus?
2. What is reabsorbed in the Bowman's capsule?
nothing
470
ADH (and its analogs) stimulate the production of _____ in the *nephron's collecting ducts*.
aquaporin channels
471
**Aquaporin**s in the kidney allow for the :
**reabsorption of H2O** during the concentration of urine
472
**Aldosterone** is produced by the adrenals in response to:
↑↑ potassium levels;
OR
↓↓ Na levels
473
The mnemonic for the *path* the sperm takes until ejaculation:
**SEVE**N **UP**:
**S**eminiferous tubules;
**E**pididymis;
**V**as def;
**E**jaculatory Duct;
[*nothing*]
**U**rethra;
**P**enis
474
Which neurotransmitter(s) or hormone(s) can stimulate the parietal/oxyntic cells to secrete HCl:
acetylcholine
gastrin
histamine
475
S-cells are found in the \_\_\_\_. They secrete \_\_\_\_.
1. duodenum;
2. secretin
476
What does **secretin** do?
it's an antacid that neutralizes duodenal contents
477
The **ductus arteriosus** shunts blood from the ____ to the \_\_\_\_.
pulmonary artery;
aorta
478
Which sites on the nephron can allow for water to pass through?
* **PCT** (reabsorbs 2/3 of all water in the nephron)
* **descending** loop (passive reabsorption)
* **DCT** (*ONLY *when stimulated by aldosterone)
* **Collecting Duct** (*ONLY* when stimulated by ADH)
479
When does **D**CT reabsorb water?
when stimulated by aldosterone
480
When does the nephron's collecting tubule reabsorb H2O?
When stimulated by **ADH**
481
What effect does **secretin** have in the body? What does it target?
stimulates the **pancreas** to release **bicarbonate**
482
In nephrology, what does "filter", "secrete", and "reabsorb" mean?
**_filtered_**: *passively* pushed from **blood to urine**
**_secreted_**: *actively* pushed out **from blood to urine**
**_reabsorbed_**: pulled **from urine** back **into blood**.
483
Where in the nephron is **glucose** *reabsorbed*?
PC Tubule
484
What is the difference between proteins made by free **ribosomes** versus proteins made by **Rough** ER?
**free** ribosomes made proteins needed *within the cell*.
**Rough ER** ribosomes make proteins that *will leave* the cell.
485
The **macula densa** is a receptor that is stimulated to release ____ when it detects:
1. renin
2. low Na levels entering the distal nephron
486
The most selective part of the kidney's *filtration barrier* is the ______ , which has ______ charge at physiological pH.
1. basement membrane;
2. negative
487
B/c the basement membrane of the kidney's **filtration barrier** is negatively charged, only positively-charged and neutral particles will enter the \_\_\_\_\_.
nephron
488
ADH acts as receptors of the \_\_\_\_\_.
collecting tubule or collecting duct
489
Approx. 10 percent of the filtered ____ and 25 percent of the filtered ______ are reabsorbed by the loop of Henle.
1. water;
2. Na and Cl
490
Normally, the descending loop of Henle is permeable to ____ and is impermeable to \_\_\_\_\_.
water;
ions
491
Normally, the *ascending* loop of Henle is impermeable to ____ but allows the transport of \_\_\_\_\_.
1. water;
2. Na, K, and Cl
492
The first amino acid found in every eukaryotic protein:
methionine
493
The bicuspid (**mitral**) valve is located on the **[**right **/** left**]** side.
left
494
Function of the **thymus** is to:
replenish the T-cell population
495
T/F:
Both ventricles pump the same amount of blood.
tru
496
*Central* chemoreceptors respond to changes in **[**O2 **/** CO2 **/** both**]**.
CO2 in arteries
497
The **bronchial arteries**, which feed the lungs, branch off of the \_\_\_\_.
aorta
498
The **[**Left **/** Right**]** lung has 2 lobes.
left
499
Platelets are synthesized by _____ cells.
megakaryocyte
500
Antibodies are made by a ____ cell, which is a specific type of B-cell.
plasma cell
501
A plasma cell is a specific type of ____ cell.
B-cell
502
B-cells are made in the \_\_\_\_\_.
bone marrow
503
T/F:
Cartilage is *vascular* tissue.
fals. cartilage is **_A_**vascular.
504
Cells of the ____ immune system are not specific, and will go after anything that appears foreign.
innate
505
A macrophage synthesizes an MHC **[** one **/** two **]** receptor, which is used to attach to a T-cell.
TWO
506
A T-cell can have 2 attachments to a macrophage.
The T-cell's "t-cell receptor" will bind to the \_\_\_\_\_, while the T-cell's ____ arm will bind to the macrophage's ____ receptor.
1. antigen presented by the macrophage
2. CD4+ peptide arm
3. MHC-**2**
507
The acquired/adaptive immune system has these subdivisions:
1. cell - mediated;
2. humoral
508
During muscle contraction, which **bands** and **lines** in a **sarcomere** will *shorten*? Which *lengthen*? Which remain *the same*?
UNALTERED: **A** band
SHORTENS: **H** and **I** bands
MOVES CLOSER: **Z** line
See chart on Question # 792 on page 277 of EK Bio 1001.
509
\_\_\_\_\_\_ cells synthesizes muscle tissue.
Fibroblasts
510
Name the thin myo*filaments*.
F-actin;
tropomyosin; and
Troponin C
511
**T-tubules** are found in _____ cells.
skeletal muscle; and
cardiac muscle
512
The first heart sound is actually made by the closing of the :
mitral and tricuspid valves
513
The 2nd heart sound is actually caused by:
the closing of the aortic semilunar and pulmonary semilunar valves
514
Which hormone(s) stimulate the kidney to reabsorb **Na**?
**aldosterone**
[ADH only reabsorbs water.]
515
In cardiac muscle cells, **gap junctions** are called \_\_\_\_\_.
intercalated discs
516
The 5 assumptions of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are:
1. infinitely large population
2. random mating (free love!)
3. No mutations (NO TMNJ)
4. No migration (xenophobia)
5. No natural selection (jerry falwell)
517
MCAT Rules for **X**-linked *Recessive* Inheritance are:
1. Disease more common in **males**
2. **Males** with the mutant gene **WILL get the disease**
3. Disease can **skip generations**
4. If **mother** is a **heterozygous** carrier, her kids have **50% chance of getting **the **disease**
5. **Males** with disease will give it to **all** of his **daughters **
6. **Males** CAN**NOT** pass it to their **sons**.
See # 900, page 290 of EK BIo 1001
518
The MCAT Rules for **Autosomal** *Recessive* Inheritance:
1. 2 **hetero**zygous (i.e., disease-free) parents can have a child with the disease
2. Every time 2 **hetero**zygous carrier parents mate:
1. 25 % chance of having **homo**zygous disease-free **normal** child
2. 25 % risk of having **homo**zygous child **with disease**
3. 50 % chance of having a **hetero**zygous disease-**free** kid who is a **carrier**
3. **Half** of *all* kids ***appear*** to be disease-free
See Question # 905, page 210 of EK Bio 1001
519
The most common blood type :
**O +**
| (oh positive)
520
What is pleiotropism?
When the *alteration of one gene* results in *changing many, seemingly unrelated phenotypes.*
E.g., mutation of 1 gene is pleiotropic if it alters development of heart, bone, and inner ears
521
What is polygenism?
A phenotype/trait is polygenic if it is *influenced by many different genes*.
E.g., height is polygenic b/c it relies on genes for growth factors, receptors, hormones, bone deposition, muscle development, energy utilization, etc.
522
What is epista**s**is?
A situation where the expression of alleles for one particular gene, depends on a different gene
E.g, a gene for curly hair cannot be expressed if a different gene causes baldness.
523
If an individual's blood becomes hyp**o**tonic with respect to the (kidney) filtrate, would ADH secretion increase or decrease?
↓↓
524
The reabsorption of water from the kidney filtrate ↑↑ as the concentration of the interstitial fluid **[**increases **/** decreases**]**.
increases
525
Interstitial fluid is **[**hypo- **/** hyper-**]**tonic to kidney filtrate.
hypERtonic
526
Kidney **filtrate** is **[**hypo- **/** hyper-**]**tonic to **interstitial fluid**.
hyp**O**tonic
527
Fatty acids can be converted into glucose via Gluconeogenesis, HOWEVER:
Only **ODD-chained** fatty acids (i.e., odd number of Carbons) can.
528
In fetal blood circulation, *where* is the fetal blood *oxygenated*?
placenta
529
How many **shunts** exist in fetal blood circulation?
3
530
A fetus' **umbilical vein** carries *oxygenated* blood from the _____ to the \_\_\_\_.
placenta;
inf vena cava
531
A fetus' **umbilical vein **carries **[de**oxygenated **/** oxygenated**]** blood.
oxygenated
532
The ductus venosus connects the ____ with the \_\_\_\_.
umbilical vein
inf vena cava
533
The ductus **arteriosus** connects the ____ with the \_\_\_\_.
pulmonary **artery**;
aorta
534
What triggers the inhibition of **gastrin**'s *secretion*?
when chyme reaches a pH of **3** and **moves into the duodenum**
535
What are the types of **dead spaces** in the body?
**anatomical** dead space; and
## Footnote
**alveolar**
536
**Anatomical** dead space refers to:
air that remains in the **mouth** and **trachea** after inspiraton, and thus will not contact alveoli
537
**Alveolar** dead space refers to:
alveoli that contact air, but do not do any gas exchange
538
What is NF-κB?
a **protein** complex that controls **transcription of DNA**.
539
What can cause the oxygen dissociation curve to shift to the ***left***?
* ↓↓ the partial pressure of **CO2**
* ↑↑ the **pH**
* ↓↓ the **temperature**
540
What is the Bohr effect?
the shifting of the oxygen dissociation curve to the RIGHT
541
What shape does a normal oxygen dissociation curve have?
sigmoidal
542
How does fetal oxygen dissociation curve differ from an adult's oxygen dissociation curve?
Fetal hemoglobin has a greater affinity for O2 than adult hemoglobin, so the **fetal curve is shifted to the *left*** of an adult's curve.
543
T/F:
Lymphatic vessels have smooth muscle.
fals
544
Lymph rejoins the blood circulation where the thoracic duct joins with the \_\_\_\_\_.
brachiocephalic vein
545
How do lymphatic vessels differ from blood vessels?
lymph vessels lack:
* smooth muscle
* tight jcns between the endothelial cells
546
What is special/important about the **fovea** of the eye?
it contains the greatest concentration of **cones** in the eye, & thus has the sharpest vision
547
List the **Starling forces**.
* **capillary hydrostatic** pressure (Pc)
* **oncotic pressure** (AKA colloid osmotic pressure) from blood **plasma** proteins (πc)
* **hydrostatic** pressure of the **interstitial** fluid (Pi)
* **oncotic** pressure of the **interstitial** fluid's proteins (πi)
548
When talking about circulation, what does **Pc** stand for?
capillary's hydrostatic pressure
549
When talking about circulation, what does πc stand for?
oncotic pressure of plasma proteins
550
When talking about circulation, what does **P**i stand for?
**hydrostatic** pressure of the **interstitial** fluid
551
The effect of **ANP** on the body is the exact *opposite* of this hormone(s):
aldosterone
552
**Renin** is secreted by juxtaglomerular cells, in response to:
1. A ↓↓ in **arterial** blood **pressure** as detected by **baro**receptors (pressure-sensitive cells).
2. A ↓↓ in **sodium chloride** levels in the **ultrafiltrate** of the nephron. (This flow is measured by the **macula densa** of the juxtaglomerular apparatus.)
3. **Sympathetic** nervous system activity, which also controls blood pressure (acting through the **ß - 1** adrenergic receptors).
553
Which specific type of cell lines the **Bowman's space** or **Bowman's capsule** which shelters the glomerulus?
simple squamous epithelium
554
Define **glomerular filtration rate**:
* the rate at which liquid (and dissolved compounds) are pushed out **from** the glomerulus capillaries, in**to** the kidney's tubules.
* from **blood** to **urine**
555
Define **renal corpuscle**:
* part of the nephron
* renal corpuscle consists of: **Bowman's capsule** + **glomerulus**
556
What does **Tm** stand for? I.e., what is the full term?
**tubular transport maximum** of any given substance
557
What is the **tubular transport maximum**?
the highest rate at which a given substance can be **reabsorbed** by the kidney
558
What force causes the **filtration** of liquid from the glomerulus, to the Bowman's capsule?
blood pressure
| (filtration is *passive*)
559
Ducklings will follow any large object they encounter during a critical period after hatching. This type of behavior is called:
imprinting
560
Is **ammonia** a Lewis **acid**, or is it a Lewis **base**?
Lewis **base**!
561
The optimal operating pH of **trypsin** is:
8
562
**Trypsin** does its job inside the **[**stomach**/**duodenum**]**.
duodenum
563
T/F:
## Footnote
**Mitochondrial** genes are inherited in a Mendelian pattern of inheritance.
Fals.
## Footnote
Mitochondrial genes are passed by moms to all their sons and daughters.
564
Micro**filaments** are actually **[**actin **/** myosin **/** neither**]** filaments.
actin
565
Which has a *greater* probability of **hydrogen bonding**:
**carboxylic acids**, or **alcohols**?
carboxylic acid
566
Proteins are synthesized by *starting* from the **[**amino **/** carboxy**]**-terminal.
amino-terminal
567
In mammals, lipid-soluble toxins are metabolized by membrane-bound heme proteins called \_\_\_\_.
cytochrome P-450
568
In Michaelis-Menten kinetics, which of these is the **Vmax** is dependent on:
* total enzyme concentration
* substrate concentration
* the concentration of inhibitor that reversibly binds to the enzyme's active site
Vmax is dependent on total **enzyme concentration**
569
In Michaelis-Menten kinetics, what fraction of active sites of the enyme are filled by substrate when **[S] = 2\*Km**??
2/3
570
A more popular name for **prolactin inhibitory factor** is \_\_\_.
dopamine
