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Catz > MCAT Bio 2014 > Flashcards

MCAT Bio 2014 Flashcards

1
Q

Is ENDOpeptidase one enzyme, or a group of enzymes?

A

group

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2
Q

what do ENDOpeptidases do?

A

break the peptide bonds of NONterminal amino acids

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3
Q

peptidases are AKA?

A

protease,
proteinase

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4
Q

proteases are AKA?

A

peptidase

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5
Q

What is protease?

A

any enzyme that does proteolysis

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6
Q

What is peptidase?

A

any enzyme that does proteolysis

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7
Q

what’s the fancy word for the enzymatic destruction of proteins?

A

proteolysis

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8
Q

ENTEROpeptidase is AKA:

A

enterokinase

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9
Q

What region/part of the body MAKES Enteropeptidases?

A

cells of the Duodenal mucosa

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10
Q

what gland in the body secretes ENTERopeptidase?

A

crypts of Lieberkuhn

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11
Q

What does ENTERopeptidase do?

A

converts trypsinogen (a zymogen) into its active form trypsin

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12
Q

How do proteases and peptidases differ?

A

they’re the same shit

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13
Q

the Ampulla of Vater is formed by the merging of the ___ and the ___.

A

pancreatic duct,

common bile

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14
Q

The common bile duct is formed by the merging of the ____ with the ____.

A

Common hepatic duct,

cystic duct

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15
Q

The duct that goes directly into (or, “comes straight out of”) the Gallbladder is the:

A

cystic duct

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16
Q

pancreatic duct merges with the common bile duct to form the:

A

Ampulla of Vater

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17
Q

Common hepatic duct and cystic duct merge to form the:

A

common bile duct

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18
Q

The ___ duct and cystic duct merge to form the common bile duct.

A

common hepatic

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19
Q

the Alpha cells of the pancreas produce:

A

glucagon

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20
Q

the Delta cells of the pancreas produce:

A

somatostatin

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21
Q

the Beta cells of the pancreas produce:

A

insulin,

amylin

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22
Q

the Gamma cells of the pancreas produce

A

pancreatic polypeptide

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23
Q

the Epsilon cells of the pancreas produce:

A

ghrelin

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24
Q

the ____ cells of the pancreas produce glucagon:

A

Alpha

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25
Q

the ____ cells of the pancreas produce amylin and insulin:

A

beta

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26
Q

the ____ cells of the pancreas produce somatostatin

A

delta

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27
Q

the ____ cells of the pancreas produce **pancreatic polypeptide **

A

gamma

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28
Q

the ____ cells of the pancreas produce ghrelin

A

Epsilon

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29
Q

What is a monogenic disorder?

A

an inherited disorder that is caused by a defect in only ONE gene

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30
Q

What is the # assigned to the sex chromosome?

A

No. 23

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31
Q

What is an autosome?

A

any non-sex chromosome.

So chromosomes # 1 - 22 are all Autosomes.

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32
Q

The opposite of an autosome is:

A

a sex chromoxome

(e.g., X or Y)

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33
Q

A chromosome that’s not a sex chromosome is called a/n:

A

autosome

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34
Q

T/F:

All sex-chromosome linked diseases are caused by mutations on the X chromosome.

A

FALS.

Although very rare, there are some “Y-linked” disorders.

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35
Q

The term “dominant” or “recessive” is used for genetic disorders that are [autosomal / sex-linked / either]

A

either

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36
Q

List 3 well-known Eicosanoids:

A

leukotrienes,

prostaglandins,

thromboxanes

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37
Q

(1) What’s a missense mutation?
(2) What is the result of a missense mutation?

A

alteration in a single nucleotide of an amino acid coding sequence

is a point mutation, in which a single nucleotide change results in a different codon that codes for a different amino acid.

Result is a possible change in that specific amino acid, thus creating a change in the primary structure of the protein.

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38
Q

What is a nonsense mutation?

what is the result of a nonsense mutation?

A

change in the nucleotide sequence,

will create a STOP codon that prematurely cuts off the polypeptide’s synthesis

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39
Q

What’s a frameshift mutation?

A

the addition/insertion, or deletion, of one or more base-pairs in multiples other than 3

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40
Q

what’s a point mutation?

A

a change in a *single *nucleotide in a double strand of DNA

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41
Q

What is a transition mutation?

A

changes a purine nucleotide to another purine (A ↔ G)

OR

a pyrimidine nucleotide to another pyrimidine (C ↔ T).

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42
Q

what’s a transversion mutation?

A

the substitution of a purine for a pyrimidine

OR

vice versa

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43
Q

What’s a non-frameshift mutation?

A

the addition or deletion of exactly 3 nucleotides to an amino acid coding sequence,

causing the addition or deletion of an amino acid

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44
Q

In virology, what is the eclipse period?

A

the time between the injection of viral nukes into the Host, and the appearance of the first fully formed virion

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45
Q

What is a chylomicron?

What is a chylomicron made of?

A

Large particles of lipoprotein, that consist of:

triglycerides (~ 85-90%),

phospholipids,

cholesterol,

proteins

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46
Q

What is the function of a chylomicron?

A

transport dietary lipids from the intestines to:

  • liver,
  • adipose,
  • cardiac, and
  • skeletal muscle tissue
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47
Q

List the five major groups of lipoproteins that enable fats and cholesterol to move within the watery solution of the blood.

A

chylomicrons,

VLDL,

IDL,

LDL,

HDL

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48
Q

Very-low-density lipoproteins are made by the ____

A

liver

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49
Q

(1) What are Apolipoproteins?
(2) Their fcn?

A

proteins that bind lipids to form lipoproteins.

–They transport the lipids through the lymphatic and circulatory systems.

–Apolipoproteins also serve as
enzyme cofactors, and
ligands for cell-surface receptors

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50
Q

Chylomicrons are identified by a surface marker called:

A

apoprotein B-48

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51
Q

Plasma lipoprotein lipase hydrolyzes:

A

chylomicrons

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52
Q

Which of the major lipoproteins is synthesized by the liver?

A

VLDL

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53
Q

What’s the fcn of VLDL?

A

to transport triglycerides and cholesterol from liver to adipose tissue

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54
Q

IDL, LDL, and VLDL

Which of the above lipoproteins is a precursor to the synthesis of which? Rearrange and order the above.

A

VLDL → IDL → LDL

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55
Q

What factors/variables can directly affect the activity of enzymes?

A

pH,

temperature,

and [substrate] (i.e., substrate concentration)

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56
Q

Which one of the major Lipoproteins has the lowest lipid density?

A

chylomicrons

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57
Q

Which of the major Lipoproteins has the highest lipid content?

A

chylomicrons

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58
Q

What effect do enzymes have on activation energy?

A

↓↓ energy of activation

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59
Q

What effect do enzymes have on the rate of a reaction?

A

enzymes ↑↑ the reaction’s Rate

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60
Q

What effect do enzymes have on the rate of the reverse reaction?

A

enzymes ↑↑ the rate of the reverse reaction

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61
Q

T/F:

Enzymes ↑↑ the rate of both the forward and reverse reactions.

A

true

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62
Q

What effect do Enzymes have on the Keq of a rxn?

A

none

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63
Q

What effect do enzymes have on the Δ S of a reaction?

A

none

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64
Q

What effect do enzymes have on the Δ G of a reaction?

A

none

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65
Q

What effect do enzymes have on the Δ H of a reaction?

A

none

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66
Q

Do RBCs possess mitochondria?

A

No

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67
Q

T/F:

RBCs don’t have any organelles.

A

t

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68
Q

T/F:

RBCs have Na+/K+ pumps.

A

t.

All cells in the human have Na/K pumps.

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69
Q

The citric acid cycle not only converts sugars, it also accepts _____.

A

fatty acids and

proteins

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70
Q

Acetyl CoA is made from the breakdown of these fuels:

A

glucose, or

fatty acids

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71
Q

What product of glucose breakdown can be converted into amino acids?

A

pyruvate

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72
Q

In order to be optically active, a molecule or compound must be ____.

A

assymetric

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73
Q

[T/F]:

Symmetric molecules can be optically active.

A

F. Only asymmetrical molcules can be optically active.

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74
Q

Can fatty acids be converted into glucose via Gluconeogenesis?

A

yep.

Only ODD-chained fatty acids (i.e., odd number of Carbons) can.

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75
Q

In order for a compound to enter into Glycolysis, that compound must contain at least [#] carbons.

A

3

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76
Q

What is an isozyme?

A

Isozymes are enzymes that differ in amino acid sequence but catalyze the same chemical reaction.

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77
Q

For a non-carbohydrate precursor to enter Gluconeogenesis, that precursor must first be converted into:

A

pyruvate;

oxaloacetate;

dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP)

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78
Q

Oxaloacetate requires a ____ shuttle to cross the inner mitochondrial membrane.

A

malate

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79
Q

Oxaloacetate requires a malate shuttle to cross the ____ membrane.

A

inner mitochondrial

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80
Q

Gluconeogenesis can occur in the ____.

A

–Liver

–Cortex of kidney

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81
Q

What is the role of NAD+ in glycolysis?

A

to accept high-energy electrons during oxidation

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82
Q

What is the role of FAD in glycolysis?

A

to accept high-energy electrons during glycolysis

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83
Q

How many carbons does Pyruvate have?

A

3

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84
Q

Which reaction product in the Glycolysis chain, can isomerize into another compound?

A

Dihydroxyacetone phosphate ↔ glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate

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85
Q

glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate is AKA

A

PGAL

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86
Q

PGAL is also called:

A

glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate

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87
Q

Which reactions within the Glycolysis chain, needs ATP input for energy?

A

(1) the conversion of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate
(2) conversion of fructose 6-phosphate to fructose 1,6-diphosphate

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88
Q

How much ATP is needed for the conversion of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate?

A

1

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89
Q

How much ATP is needed for the conversion of fructose 6-phosphate to fructose 1,6-diphosphate.

A

1

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90
Q

What is pyrophosphate?

A

simply, 2 phosphate ions (PO4 3-) bonded together

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91
Q

Write out the net reaction for glycolysis:

A

**Glucose **+ 2 **ADP **+ 2 Pi<em> </em>+ NAD+ →

2 **pyruvate **+ 2 ATP + 2 NADH + 2 H+ + 2 H2O

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92
Q

In what reaction(s) of the Glycolysis chain, is new ATP synthesized?

A

(1) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate → 3-phosphoglycerate
(2) phosphoenolpyruvate → pyruvate

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93
Q

RedOx reactions happen in pairs.

If pyruvate is reduced (during fermentation) into lactic acid or ethanol, then what is oxidized?

A

NADH is oxidized back into NAD+

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94
Q

What is the Cori cycle?

A

the reaction pathway in which lactate (produced by anaerobic glycolysis) in the muscles moves to the liver and is converted to glucose, which then returns to the muscles and is metabolized back to lactate.

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95
Q

From one glucose, we ultimately get [#] NADH.

(assume it’s Aerobic respiration)

A

2 from glycolysis

+

2 from decarboxylation of Pyruvate into Acetyl CoA

+

6 from TCA cycle

____________________

Total = 10 per Glucose

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96
Q

To start the TCA cycle, you react Acetyl CoA with Oxaloacetate to create ______.

A

citrate

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97
Q

To start the TCA cycle, you react Acetyl CoA with _____ to create Citrate.

A

Oxaloacetate

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98
Q

Which high-energy intermediates “carry” the electrons from the TCA cycle to the electron transport chain?

A

NADH and FADH2

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99
Q

Which reactions within the TCA cycle, generate NADH?

A

(1) isocitrate → alpha-Ketoglutarate
(2) alpha-Ketoglutarate → succinyl-CoA
(3) malate → oxaloacetate

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100
Q

Which reactions within the TCA cycle, generate FADH2?

A

succinate → fumarate

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101
Q

The final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain is:

A

Oxygen

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102
Q

The electron transport chain can be organized into 4 complexes. These are:

A

Complex 1: NADH dehydrogenase

Complex 2: succinate-Q oxidoreductase

Complex 3: b-c1 complex

Complex 4: cytochrome oxidase complex

and

Coenzyme Q10 (ubiquinone)

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103
Q

The electron transport chain begins when NADH gives its electrons directly to _____, which is a part of Complex 1.

A

FMN (flavin mononucleotide)

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104
Q

From Complex 1, the next step in the Electron Transport Chain are when the electrons are passed to _____.

A

coenzyme Q

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105
Q

In the ET Chain, coenzyme Q passes electrons to _____.

A

Complex 3

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106
Q

The last step in the ET Chain occurs when electrons from _______, which is a component of Complex 4, is given to an Oxygen.

A

cytochrome a3

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107
Q

When arriving at the ET Chain, the FADH2 molecules give their electrons to _____, which in turn will give the electrons to _____.

A

Complex 2

coenzyme Q

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108
Q

Why is cyanide deadly?

A

it blocks the final transfer of electrons to Oxygen

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109
Q

Why is dinitrophenol (DNP) deadly?

A

it destroys mitochondrion’s ability to generate a proton gradient

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110
Q

Why do we inhale Oxygen? Why is this gas critical for us?

A

Oxygen’s role is to be the final electron acceptor in the ET chain.

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111
Q

T/F:

Aldosterone is made in the adenohypophysis.

A

F.

Aldosterone is from the adrenal cortex.

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112
Q

Where in the cell, does fermentation take place?

A

cytoplasm

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113
Q

Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?

A

cytoplasm

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114
Q

Where in the cell does the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA, occur?

A

mitochondrial matrix

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115
Q

Where in the cell does the TCA cycle, occur?

A

mitochondrial matrix

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116
Q

Where in the cell is the ET chain, located?

A

inner mitochondrial membrane

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117
Q

What is the NET yield of ATP from substrate-level phosphorylation?

A

a net of 4 ATP

(2 from Glycolysis; and 1 from each turn of the TCA cycle = 4)

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118
Q

How many FADH2 are generated by the TCA cycle?

A

Each turn of the Krebs cycle, gives you 1 FADH2.

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119
Q

In an anaerobic environment, eukaryotic cells can generate __[#]__ ATP.

A

2

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120
Q

A prokaryote generates __[#]__ ATP from aerobic respiration.

A

38

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121
Q

A eukaryote generates __[#]__ ATP from aerobic respiration.

A

36

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122
Q

Fatty acids can be used as cellular fuel, by taking them into the mitocondrial matrix.

Then, inside the matrix, the fatty acids can be converted into ____.

A

acetyl CoA

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123
Q

Inside the mitochondrial matrix, the reaction to turn fatty acids into acetyl CoA is called:

A

beta-oxidation

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124
Q

A single beta-oxidation reaction, that generates 1 acetyl-CoA from a fatty acid, generates high-energy-intermediates.

(1) **Which **high-energy-intermediates are made?
(2) How many hi-energy-intermediates are made?

A

1 NADH,

and

1 FADH2

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125
Q

The removal of the amine moiety from an amino acid is accomplished by this enzyme:

A

transaminase

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126
Q

The removal of an amine moiety from an amino acid, by transaminases, results in molecules called _____.

A

alpha-keto acids

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127
Q

To turn a triglyceride into cellular fuel, the glycerol molecule is converted into _____, which will then enter Glycolysis.

A

PGAL

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128
Q

How can you tell that a molecule is aromatic?

What determines if a molecule is aromatic?

A

Aromatic compounds comply with All of the following:

  • (1)* are Planar
  • (2)* are conjugated - i.e., have a minimum of 2 double bonds, in a double-single-double alternating config
  • (3)* HUCKEL’s RULE: have 4n + 2 # of pi electrons (lone-pair electrons count)
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129
Q

In a somatic cell, how many chromosomes are present after the S phase?

A

46

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130
Q

T/F:

After the S phase, there are 96 chromosomes in a human somatic cell.

A

F. Somatic cells always have 46 (i.e., “2n”) chromosomes. No matter what.

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131
Q

Gyrase is a type of _____ase.

A

topoisomerase

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132
Q

What does Gyrase do?

How does it do that?

A

It relieves the severe supercoiling that Helicase induces when Helicase unwinds DNA, by breaking the bonds between nucleotides to relax the DNA.

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133
Q

Deoxyribose and ribose are different at Carbon # ____.

A

2

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134
Q

(1) List the prokaryotic ribosomal subunits, in Svedberg units.
(2) What is the combined sedimentation coefficient for prokaryotes, in Svedberg units.

A

30S

50S

combined = 70S

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135
Q

(1) List the eukaryotic ribosomal subunits, in Svedberg units.
(2) What is the combined sedimentation coefficient for eukaryotes, in Svedberg units.

A

40 S

60S

combined = 80S

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136
Q

What is SSBP?

What does it do?

A

Single strand binding protein

Fcn: to keep the replication fork open for the Primase to attach and synthesize an RNA primer.

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137
Q

Will an Enantiomer (mirror-image, but Non-superimposable) rotate light in the opposite direction of the original molecule?

A

Yep.

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138
Q

(d)-molecule is the same thing as ______.

A

(+)-molecule

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139
Q

(+)-molecule is the same thing as ______.

A

(d)-molecule

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140
Q

(-)-molecule is the same thing as ______.

A

(l)-molecule

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141
Q

(l)-molecule is the same thing as ______.

A

(-)-molecule

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142
Q

T/F:

(D)-molecule is the same thing as (d)-molecule.

A

F.

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143
Q

Any process that separates enantiomers is called: ___

A

resolution

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144
Q

An anticodon is found on a [mRNA / tRNA / DNA].

A

tRNA

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145
Q

A codon is found on a [mRNA / tRNA / DNA].

A

mRNA

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146
Q

The sk-loop of tRNA contains the _____.

A

anticodon sequence

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147
Q

The Shine-Delgarno sequence is rich in [purines / pyrimidines].

A

purines

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148
Q

T/F:

In order for an organic molecule to be optically active, it must possess chiral centers.

A

tru

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149
Q

Can Enantiomers be separated by distillation?

A

No

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150
Q

Can Enantiomers be distributed by recrystallization?

A

no

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151
Q

The Shine-Delgarno sequence is located [#] base-pairs upstream of the 5’ end of the start codon on an mRNA.

A

10

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152
Q

The Shine-Delgarno sequence is found on [DNA / mRNA / tRNA].

A

mRNA

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153
Q

What reaction pathway in the body synthesizes GTP?

A

TCA (Krebs) cycle

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154
Q

Which amino acids are known as “helix breakers”?

A

proline

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155
Q

Which amino acids are also considered as imino acids?

A

proline

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156
Q

How many amino acids are Achiral?

A

1

(glycine)

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157
Q

Where in the cell does post-transcriptional modification occur?

A

Rough ER, and

Golgi

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158
Q

In the body, oxidation of Lipids takes place in the _____.

A

mitochondria

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159
Q

Protein digestion starts in the ___.

A

stomach

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160
Q

Protein digestion in the stomach is made possible by an enzyme called ___.

A

Pepsin

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161
Q

Digestion of proteins begins in the stomach, and is completed in the _____.

A

small intestine

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162
Q

Phenylalanine is converted into another amino acid called ___.

A

tyrosine

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163
Q

Tyrosine is a precursor of ____.

A

dopamine and

norepinephrine

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164
Q

What is a Barr body?

A

a permanently inactivated X-chromosome

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165
Q

T/F:

Males have Barr bodies.

A

Fals. Only Females!

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166
Q

T/F:

Females have Barr bodies.

A

Tru

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167
Q

Females have two X chromosomes. Are both expressed?

A

No.

Normal females have XX, and one of these X chromosomes is inactivated and turned into a Barr body.

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168
Q

If a gene is “imprinted”, that means that the gene is ____.

A

methylated.

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169
Q

A person w/ 2 Barr bodies has how many X chromosomes?

A

You always have 1+n X chromosomes and n Barr bodies.

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170
Q

Give 4 High Yield facts about autosomal dominant inheritance.

A
  • Only 1 copy of the mutant gene is needed to have the disease.
  • Traits DO NOT SKIP generations
  • There’s an equal number of Males and Females who get the disease.
  • Father’s can give the disease to their sons.
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171
Q

Can genetic mutations lead to abnormal carbohydrate function?

A

NO.

Mutations alter proteins, not carbs.

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172
Q

For sex-linked disorders, which inheritance pattern/type will show “skipped generations”?

A

X-linked RECESSIVE

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173
Q

T/F:

A man with an X-linked recessive disease can pass it on to his sons.

A

Fals.

Fathers give their sons the Y chromosome. So men who have an X-linked disease, got it from their MOMs.

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174
Q

Males get their Y chromosome from [mom / dad / either].

A

ONLY from Dad !!!

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175
Q

T/F:

DNA Polymerase proofreads the new DNA strand during replication/synthesis.

A

Tru.

DNA Polymerase proofreads as it synthesizes.

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176
Q

The protein, that relaxes the tension caused by the opening of the replication fork, is called ___.

A

gyrase

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177
Q

If a heterozygous man and heterozygous woman both carry an autosomal recessive gene, there is a ____ percent chance that they will have a child with the active disease.

A

25 %

(draw a Punnett square to see why)

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178
Q

If a heterozygous man and heterozygous woman both carry an autosomal recessive gene, there is a ____ percent chance that they will have a healthy child with no abnormal genes.

A

25 %

(draw a Punnett square to see why)

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179
Q

B cells are made in the ____.

A

Bone marrow.

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180
Q

T-cells are made in the ____.

A

bone marrow

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181
Q

T-cells go to the ____ to mature.

A

Thymus

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182
Q

Okazaki fragments are bonded together by ____ase.

A

DNA ligase

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183
Q

Which has a Lower affinity for oxygen:

myoglobin or hemoglobin?

A

Hemoglobin

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184
Q

Which has a Higher affinity for oxygen:

myoglobin or cytochrome oxidase?

A

cytochrome oxidase

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185
Q

Most viruses acquire their envelopes from the ____.

A

Host’s plasma membrane

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186
Q

HSV-1 acquires its envelope from ______.

A

the Host’s nuclear membrane.

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187
Q

All invading particles (viruses, bacteria, fungi, etc.) have ____ , AKA _____ that allow them to be detected by the Host’s immune system.

A

surface markers, AKA antigens

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188
Q

Define “virulence”.

A

ability to cause infection

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189
Q

T/F:

HSV-1 can be spread thru skin contact.

A

tru

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190
Q

How does HSV-1 get from skin to your nervous system?

A

HSV-1 travels from skin to a Ganglion, via retrograde movement along the axons of afferent sensory nerve fibers.

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191
Q

HSV-1 travels, from skin, along axons of [afferent / efferent] [motor / sensory] nerve fibers.

A

afferent;

sensory

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192
Q

During its latency period, HSV-1 “hides” in your body in ____.

A

ganglia

(usually the Trigeminal nerve’s ganglion)

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193
Q

In Virology, what is tegument?

A

a cluster of proteins that is located between the virus’ capsid and envelope.

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194
Q

Teguments are associated with this family of viruses:

A

Herpesviruses

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195
Q

Herpesviridae are a family of [single / double]-stranded [DNA / RNA] viruses.

A

double

DNA

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196
Q

Tyrosine is created from this amino acid:

A

phenylalanine

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197
Q

phenylalanine is a precursor to this amino acid:

A

tyrosine

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198
Q

What is the Michaelis-Menten equation for competitive inhibition?

A

Vo =

(Vmax* [S]) ** /** ([S] + Km )

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199
Q

A reaction has a certain Km and Vmax. If you add a competitive inhibitor to the reaction, the Km will [increase / decrease / not change].

A

increase

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200
Q

A reaction has a certain Km and Vmax. If you add a noncompetitive inhibitor to the reaction, the Vmax will [increase / decrease / not change].

A

decrease

EXPLANATION:
Non-competitive inhibition is a form of mixed inhibition where the binding of the inhibitor to the enzyme reduces its activity but does not affect the binding of substrate. As a result, the extent of inhibition depends only on the concentration of the inhibitor. Vmax will decrease due to the inability for the reaction to proceed as efficiently, but Km will remain the same as the actual binding of the substrate, by definition, will still function properly.

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201
Q

A reaction has a certain Km and Vmax. If you add a noncompetitive inhibitor to the reaction, the Km will [increase / decrease / not change].

A

Not change

EXPLANATION:
Non-competitive inhibition is a form of mixed inhibition where the binding of the inhibitor to the enzyme reduces its activity but does not affect the binding of substrate. As a result, the extent of inhibition depends only on the concentration of the inhibitor. Vmax will decrease due to the inability for the reaction to proceed as efficiently, but Km will remain the same as the actual binding of the substrate, by definition, will still function properly.

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202
Q

A reaction has a certain Km and Vmax. If you add a competitive inhibitor to the reaction, the Vmax will [increase / decrease / not change].

A

Not change

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203
Q

Hexokinase catalyzes the reaction of _____ to _____.

A

turns glucose into glucose-6-phosphate

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204
Q

What reaction does Phosphoglucomutase catalyze?

A

the interconversion of glucose 1-phosphate and glucose 6-phosphate.

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205
Q

The glucose subunits within glycogen are bonded to each other through _____ linkages.

A

α─1,4

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206
Q

T/F:

The liver lacks glucose-6-phosphatase.

A

Fals

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207
Q

Glucose-6-phosphatase is found in ____ but is lacking in ____, although both these organs contain glycogen.

A

the Liver;

skeletal muscle

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208
Q

The enzyme glycogen phosphorylase [creates / breaks down] glycogen.

A

breaks down

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209
Q

The enzyme that catalyzes the rate-limiting step in Glycogenolysis is ____.

A

glycogen phosphorylase

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210
Q

Glycogen phosphorylase breaks down glycogen into:

A

glycogen, and glucose-1-phosphate

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211
Q

T/F:

Glucose-6-phosphate cannot freely diffuse out of the cell.

A

Tru.

That’s why glucose-6-phosphate is hydrolyzed into glucose.

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212
Q

VLDL transports _____, from _____ to ____.

A

triglycerides and cholesterol;

the liver;

adipose tissue

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213
Q

Fatty acids can be converted into glucose, via Gluconeogenesis; HOWEVER:

A

Only ODD-chained fatty acids (i.e., odd number of Carbons) can.

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214
Q

The time period, between the injection of viral nukes into the Host and the appearance of the first fully formed virion, is called the _____.

A

eclipse period

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215
Q

The “c” in the term cDNA stands for:

A

complementary

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216
Q

What is cDNA, or “complementary DNA”?

A

complementary DNA (cDNA) is DNA synthesized from a messenger RNA (mRNA) template in a reaction which is catalysed by the enzymes reverse transcriptase and DNA polymerase

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217
Q

Why do scientists or researchers use cDNA?

A

cDNA is often used to clone eukaryotic genes inside prokaryotes.

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218
Q

Where in nature is cDNA seen?

A

cDNA is produced naturally by retroviruses (such as HIV) and then integrated into the host’s genome, where it creates a provirus.

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219
Q

Introns and exons are terms that refer specifically to [tRNA / mRNA / rRNA / DNA].

A

mRNA

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220
Q

T/F:

Introns and exons are not features of eukaryotes.

A

Fals.

Introns and exons are found in organisms of all of the biological kingdoms. They are also found in viruses.

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221
Q

T/F:

After the virus invades the Host, Reverse transcriptase is synthesized by the Host cell’s machinery.

A

Fals.

Reverse transcriptase is Not made by eurkaryotic cells. The Retrovirus carries its own reverse transcriptase and brings it into the Host cell.

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222
Q

T/F:

Retroviruses are diploid.

A

tru.

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223
Q

B cells mature in this part of the body.

A

Bone marrow.

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224
Q

Bacterial growth when graphed, follows a _____-shaped curve.

A

S shaped

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225
Q

The 4 phases of the bacterial life cycle are:

A
  1. lag phase
  2. exponential growth phase
  3. plateau / stationary phase
  4. bacterial death phase
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4
5
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226
Q

The chronological order of events, from a virus’ invasion into the Host cell, to viral replication, are:

A
  1. target cell binding (“tissue tropism”)
  2. Attachment via host cell’s surface surface receptors.
  3. Penetration
  4. Uncoating
  5. Viral synthesis
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227
Q

What does “tissue tropism” mean?

A

each virus (species) has a specific target tissue preference

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228
Q

What is translocation?

A

the rejoining of broken chromosomes’ ends

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229
Q

T/F:

Some prokaryotes have cell walls made of chitin.

A

Fals.

The cell walls of prokaryotes are made from peptidoglycan.

230
Q

What does “mass action” mean?

A

refers to the Net movement of mass (from location to another)

231
Q

T/F:

The process of endocytosis requires ATP.

A

tru

232
Q

Insulin is a [peptide / tyrosine / steroid] hormone.

A

peptide

233
Q

T/F:

Insulin is lipid soluble.

A

Fals.

Insulin is water soluble. Insulin is a peptide hormone.

234
Q

T/F:

Prolactin is water-soluble.

A

tru

235
Q

Three physiologic causes of a drop in Blood Pressure are:

A
  1. arteries or arterioles dilate
  2. heart rate ↓↓↓
  3. a ↓↓ in blood volume
236
Q

DNA tends to be [negatively / positively / not] charged.

A

negatively

237
Q

Do histones have a charge?

If so, which?

A

positive

238
Q

Histones are [acidic / basic / neutral].

A

Basic

239
Q

Fungi spend a lot of their time in a [haploid / diploid] state.

A

haploid

240
Q

What happens to somebody who’s given thermogenin?

A

↑↑ body temperature

241
Q

Teichoic acids are found in [gram + / gram-neg / neither] bacteria.

A

ONLY Gram Positive

242
Q

A specific type of covalent bond found in the cell walls of gram + bacteria is the ______ bond.

A

phosphodiester

243
Q

Two important “acids” found in the cell walls of gram + bacteria are:

A

teichoic acids; &

lipoteichoic acid

244
Q

N-acetyl muramic acid is found only in this organism:

A

bacteria

245
Q

Mycoplasma is this type of organism:

A

bacteria

246
Q

Mycoplasma lack this organelle/component, which almost all other species of bacteria have:

A

cell walls

247
Q

The release of any neurotransmitter from the axon terminal into the synaptic cleft requires an influx of _____.

A

Calcium ions

248
Q

Glycosaminoglycans (GAG) have [no // a net positive // a net negative] charge at normal body pH.

A

net Negative

249
Q

What is the difference between PRIMARY active transport, versus SECONDARY active transport?

A

Primary A.T. consumes ATP directly.

Secondary A.T. burns ATP to create a concentration gradient. The new concentration gradient is what “moves” the molecule across the membrane.

250
Q

The cells which secrete surfactants are called _____.

A

pneumocytes

251
Q

Where inside the cell does GLUCONEOGENESIS occur?

A

in BOTH the mitochondria and cytosol

252
Q

Actin is a [microfilament // microtubule].

A

microfilament

253
Q

Teichoic acids are found in [gram + / gram negative / both / neither] bacteria.

A

only gram POSITIVE

254
Q

A specific type of covalent bond found in the cell walls of gram positive bacteria is the _____.

A

phosphodiester bond

255
Q

Two important “acids” found in the cell walls of gram POSITIVE bacteria are:

A
  • lipoteichoic acid
  • teichoic acids
256
Q

N-acetyl muramic acid is found only in this organism:

A

bacteria

257
Q

Mycoplasma is this type of Organism (fungus, bacteria, virus, etc.):

A

bacteria

258
Q

Mycoplasma lack this component/structure, which almost all other species of bacteria have:

A

cell walls

259
Q

The release of any neurotransmitter from the axon terminal into the synaptic cleft requires an influx of _____.

A

Ca++

260
Q

Glycosaminoglycans (GAG) have [a net positive / a net negative / no] charge at normal body pH.

A

net negative

261
Q

What is the difference between PRIMARY active transport, versus SECONDARY active transport?

A

Primary A.T. consumes ATP directly.

Secondary A.T. burns ATP to create a concentration gradient. This new concentration gradient is what “moves” the molecule across the membrane.

262
Q

The cells that secrete surfactants are called ____.

A

pneumocytes

263
Q

Where inside the cells does GLUCONEOGENESIS occur?

A

in BOTH mitochondria & cytosol

264
Q

Actin is a [microfilament / microtubule].

A

microfilament

265
Q

T/F:

Dendrites can Not synapse with other dendrites.

A

Fals.

Yea they can.

266
Q

Which receptor is slower? Nicotinic or Muscarinic?

A

Muscarinic

267
Q

What does superoxide dismutase do?

A

Catalyzes dismutation of superoxide radical into hydrogen peroxide

268
Q

What are the major areas/surfaces of the body where cilia are found?

A
  • trachea and bronchi of the resp tract
  • lumen of the Small intestine
  • fallopian tubes
269
Q

Conduction of a cardiac impulse thru Purkinje fibers depend on [sodium / ion]-dependent channels.

A

sodium

270
Q

On a myelinated neuron the greatest concentration of Na+ -ion channels is found on the:

A

Nodes of Ranvier

271
Q

As the radius of an axon ↓↓ , the speed of an action potential:

A

↓↓↓

(see Poiseuille’s Eqn)

272
Q
  1. Which organism causes toxoplasmosis?
  2. Which species is that pathogen?
A

a protozoan, named Toxoplasma gondii

273
Q

The Electron Transport Chain accepts these 2 substrates/intermediates:

A

NADH,

FADH2

274
Q

NAD+ serves as a substrate for [glycolysis / Krebs / ETC].

A

Glycolysis, & Krebs cycle

275
Q

Does tubulin consist of 1 polypeptide, or more than 1?

A

Tubulin is a globular heterodimer, made of 2 peptide chains?

276
Q

Ca 2+ must bind to this component of a sarcomere, to cause the actin-myosin interaction to occur:

A

troponin C

277
Q

Another name for the THICK filament in a sarcomere is:

A

myosin

278
Q

Another name for the THIN filament in a sarcomere is:

A

actin

279
Q

Myosin is a [microfilament / microtubule].

A

microfilament

280
Q

Actin is a [microfilament / microtubule].

A

microfilament

281
Q

The neuromuscular endplate region is mediated by ions of this element:

A

Sodium

282
Q

Define sarcolemma

A

cell membrane of striated muscle cells

283
Q

What are T-tubules?

A

invaginations of the sarcolemma

284
Q

Inside each skeletal muscle fiber, ions of this element have to be released in order for the muscle power stroke to occur:

A

calcium

285
Q

Describe labile cells.

A

Labile cells, are cells that are in constant need of cell division to replace dead/damaged cells.

286
Q

Give 3 examples of “labile” cells:

A
  • skin
  • tympanic membrane
  • GI tract
287
Q

Which of these cells can NOT divide?

  • pancreatic
  • liver
  • nerve
  • cardiac
A

nerve cells, and cardiac

288
Q

Hyperpolarization of a cell occurs when ____ exits that cell.

A

K + ions

289
Q

Which muscle types are T-tubules found in?

A

skeletal

cardiac

290
Q

Depolarization of the T-tubule membrane triggers the release of _____ from the _____, thus causing muscle contraction.

A

calcium;

sarcoplasmic reticulum

291
Q

Which muscle types have myosin light chain kinase?

A

smooth

292
Q

The acquired immune system consists of 2 categories/components:

A

cell-mediated; and

humoral

293
Q
  1. Which muscle types have troponin?
  2. Tropomysin?
A

skeletal, and

cardiac

294
Q

Which hormone inhibits the secretion of ACTH from the pituitary, via negative feedback?

A

cortisone

295
Q

The 3 functions of T-cells are:

A
  1. activate B-cells
  2. stimulate **macrophage **growth
  3. destroy foreign invaders and abnormal tissue
296
Q

The part of the brain responsible for motor coordination and balance is:

A

cerebellum

297
Q

The part of brain responsible for controlling respiratory rate, and heart rate:

A

medulla

298
Q

Inhibin is secreted by these cells:

A

Sertoli cells

299
Q

Sertoli cells secrete ______

A

inhibin

300
Q

What hormone from the hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary to release FSH?

A

GnRH

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone

301
Q

What hormone from the hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary to release LH?

A

GnRH

gonadotropin-releasing hormone

302
Q

GnRH (gonadotropin-releasing hormone) is secreted by the _____.

A

hypothalamus

303
Q

GnRH (gonadotropin-releasing hormone), from the hypothalamus, tells the pituitary to secrete ____.

A

FSH,

and LH

304
Q

This hormone, from the hypothalamus, stimulates the release of prolactin from the pituitary gland:

A

TRH

(Thyrotropin-releasing hormone);

also called

TRF (thyrotropin-releasing factor)

305
Q

This hormone, from the hypothalamus, triggers the release of TSH from the pituitary gland:

A

TRH

thyroid-releasing hormone

306
Q

This hormone, from the hypothalamus, triggers the release of ACTH from the pituitary gland:

A

CRF

corticotropin-releasing factor

307
Q

What does a trophic hormone do?

A

tells other glands to secrete their own hormones

308
Q

What characteristic distinguishes the EXOcrine system?

A

uses ducts to release active compounds

309
Q

What are the 3 major proteins found in serum/plasma?

A

albumin,

globulins,

fibrinogen

310
Q

What hormone is known to suppress levels of phosphorous?

A

parathyroid hormone

311
Q

What causes hyperpolarization of a neuron?

A

excessive efflux of K+ out of a neuron

312
Q

What does Vitamin D do in the body?

A

↑↑ absorption of Ca2+ from the intestine, thus promoting bone formation and mineralization

313
Q

What hormone helps convert Vitamin D to its active form?

A

parathyroid hormone

314
Q

Bile salts are made in the _____

A

liver

315
Q

Epi and Norepi are synthesized by these cells of the adrenal medulla:

A

chromaffin cells

316
Q

High levels of fat metabolism leads to ↑↑ levels of _____ in the blood

A

ketone bodies

317
Q

Ketone bodies are end products of _____ metabolism

A

fat

318
Q

Gap junctions are particularly abundant in the cells of these organs:

A

heart,

and smooth muscle

319
Q

Thyroid hormone ↑↑ the basal metabolic rate by ______.

A

stimulating protein synthesis and ↑↑ the activity of the Na/K-ATPase.

320
Q

Which hormone(s) lower blood volume?

A

atrial natriuretic peptide

321
Q

What effect does calcitonin have on the kidneys?

A

blocks tubular reabsorption of Calcium and Phosphorous, so those minerals are lost in the urine.

322
Q

The active form of Vitamin D is called:

A

Cholecalciferol

(or 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol)

323
Q

Where is the receptor for cortisol located on a cell?

A

on the nuclear envelope

324
Q

After cortisol diffuses into the cell and binds to a receptor on nuclear envelope, what happens next?

A

the cortisol receptor complex binds to a specific DNA region to activate gene transcription

325
Q

Where on a cell is the receptor for a lipid hormone, located?

A

lipid hormone = steroids

All steroids bind to receptors on the nucleus

326
Q

Which steroid hormones activate a cell by 2nd-messenger system?

A

NONE of the lipid-soluble hormones need 2nd-messenger or CAMP. Steroids bind directly to receptor, on nuclear envelope, or found in cytosol.

327
Q

Which hormone(s) require a 2nd-messenger system to move “signal” from cell membrane receptor to the nucleus?

A

ALL peptide hormones need 2nd-messenger systems

328
Q

What binds to alpha-2 receptors?

A

norepi

329
Q

What effect does cortisol have on protein?

A

causes ↓↓ in synthesis of protein, AND

causes ↑↑ in Catabolism of proteins

330
Q

What in a person’s blood work is/are sign(s) of elevated cortisol levels?

A

↑↑ amino acids in bloood;

↑↑ in blood sugar

331
Q

Which hormones released by the anterior pituitary are NOT peptide hormones?

A

They’re ALL peptide hormones

332
Q

Using arrows, list the pathway that shows how the 3 tyrosine-derivatives are made from phenylalanine:

A

Phenylalanine → Tyrosine → L-dopa → Dopamine → Norepinephrine → Epinephrine

333
Q

What cells in digestive system secrete intrinsic factor?

A

the same parietal/oxyntic cells that secrete HCl

334
Q

List all the ENDOcrine glands:

A

Adrenal cortex

Adrenal medulla

Hypothalamus

Islets of Langerhans

Ovaries

Parathyroid gland

Pineal gland

Pituitary

Testes

Thyroid

p. 278 of Kaplan

335
Q

T/F:

Epinephrine and norepinephrine are responsible for the “fight or flight response.”

A

Fals (partly)

ONLY norepinephrine

336
Q

Which neurotransmitter(s) is/are inhibitory?

A

GABA

Glycine

(Dopamine can be Both excitatory and inhibitory)

337
Q

List the phases of the menstrual cycle:

A
  • menstruation
  • follicular / proliferative phase
  • ovulation
  • luteal / secretory phase
338
Q

The vas deferens connects the _____ to the ______.

A

epididymis;

prostatic urethra

339
Q

The 2 vas deferens (1 from each testicle) merge to form the ____.

A

ejaculatory duct

340
Q

Semen is produced by the ingredients of all these glands:

A

prostate,

seminal vesicles,

bulbourethral gland

341
Q

These glands contribute to the alkalinity of semen:

A

prostate;

bulbourethral gland

342
Q

Germ cells are ____ploid.

A

diploid

(gametes are Haploid)

343
Q

Where are Sertoli cells located?

A

walls of the seminiferous tubules

344
Q

The final stages of sperm maturation occur in the _____.

A

epididymis

345
Q

Define interstitium.

A

a thing, or a region, which is between other structures

346
Q

Do spermatogonia divide by mitosis, or by meiosis?

A

mitosis

347
Q

During gametogenesis, sister chromatids remain paired with each other until this stage:

A

until anaphase of the 2nd meiotic cell division

348
Q

T/F:

Genetic recombination occurs between sister chromatids

A

Fals.

Gen recomb occurs between homologous chromosomes, NOT sister chromatids

349
Q

Where do mitochondria in sperm get their energy?

A

from fructose

350
Q

The fructose that feeds/energizes sperm, comes from this part of the body:

A

seminal vescicles

351
Q

ACTH stimulates the adrenals to:

A

release glucocorticoids

352
Q

The opposite of a “direct” hormone is a/n ____ hormone.

A

trophic

353
Q
  1. How are Trophic hormones similar to Direct hormones?
  2. How are they different from Direct hormones?
A

Like “direct” hormones, “trophic” hormones also bind to receptors on organs. But rather than having an immediate effect, they cause the release of effector hormones.

So trophic hormones are an intermediate.

354
Q

ADH is secreted in response to ____.

A

↑↑ blood osmolarity
↓↓ blood volume

355
Q

What part of body detects changes in blood osmolarity?

A

osmoreceptors

356
Q

What part of the body detects changes in blood volume?

A

baroreceptors

357
Q

ADH acts on this part of the body:

A

collecting duct

358
Q

In terms of physiology, what does ADH do to achieve ↑↑ blood pressure and volume?

A

↑↑ permeability of duct to H2O, so water is retained in the body

359
Q

What are signs of somebody suffering from HYPERthyroidism?

A

↑ activity levels

↑ body temp

↑ respiratory rate

↑ heart rate

↓↓ weight

intolerance to heat

360
Q
  1. What is cretinism?
  2. What is its cause?
A
  1. metal retardation and developmental delay
  2. thyroid hormone deficiency
361
Q

Where are C-cells found?

A

thyroid

362
Q

The _____ cells of thyroid produce thyroid hormones.

A

follicular

363
Q

The _____ cells of the thyroid produce calcitonin.

A

C-cells

364
Q

The effects of cortisol/cortisone are:

A

↑↑ gluconeogenesis

↓↓ protein synthesis

↓↓ inflammation

↓↓ immune response

365
Q

Renin is secreted by ____ cells.

A

granular cells of the **juxtaglomerular apparatus **of the kidney

366
Q

Somatostatin blocks this hormone:

A

Insulin; and

Glucagon

367
Q

T/F:

LH causes (mens’) interstitial cells to produce testosterone.

A

tru

368
Q

Why is testosterone important for males?

A
  • Spermatogenesis
  • male embryonic differentiation
  • male development during puberty
369
Q

Testosterone provides negative feedback to these hormone(s):

A

FSH;

GnRH;

LH

370
Q

What is androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

a genetic male (XY) has secondary female sexual characteristics

371
Q

What is the etiology for androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

receptors for testosterone are absent

372
Q

Type ____ Diabetes is an autoimmune disorder

A

1

373
Q

Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is AKA ____.

A

type 1 diabetes

374
Q

Birth control pills work by blocking this hormone(s):

A

FSH;

LH

375
Q

What happens in the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle?

A
  • menstrual flow begins (i.e., menstruation from the previous cycle
  • GnRH secretion from hypothalamus → an ↑↑ in FSH and ↑↑ in LH
  • FSH and LH cause development of several ovarian follicles
    • Follicles secrete estrogen
      • Estrogen stimulates endometrium’s growth, revascularization, and glandularization of the decidua
376
Q

During which phase of the menstrual cycle does estrogen peak?

A

in both the proliferative/follicular phase and the luteal/secretory phase

377
Q

During which phase does progesterone spike?

A

secretory/luteal

378
Q

What happens during the secretory phase?

A
  • LH turns ruptured follicle into corpus luteum
  • corpus lutem secretes progesterone, which maintains the uterine lining, thus facilitating emplantation of embryo
  • both estrogen and progesterone reach high levels, which give negative feedback to GnRH, FSH, and LH
379
Q

Erythropoietin is secreted by ______ in response _____.

A

kidney;

low levels of oxygen in the blood

380
Q

Why can the heart be considered an endocrine gland?

A

heart secretes atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

381
Q

Why can thymus be considered an endocrine gland?

A

thymus releases thymosin

382
Q

What is the function/action of glucocorticoids?

A

↑↑ blood glucose leel;

↓↓ protein synthesis

383
Q

What is the function/action of mineralocorticoids?

A

↑↑ water reabsorption in the kidneys

384
Q

What is the function/action of norepinephrine?

A

↑↑ blood glucose level;

↑↑ heart rate

385
Q

What is the function/action of somatostatin?

A

suppress the secretion of glucagon and insulin

386
Q

What is the function/action of erythropoietin?

A

stimulates the bone marrow to ↑↑ production of red blood cells

387
Q

What is the function/action of ANP?

A

involved in osmoregulation (helps regulate salt and water balance)

388
Q

What is the function/action of thymosin?

A

stimulates T-lymphocyte development

389
Q

The primary oocytes of a female infant are stuck in the ____ phase of Meiosis [#] until time for ovulation.

A

Prophase 1;

1

390
Q

When does a secondary oocyte complete Meiosis 1?

A

Trick question!

PRIMARY oocytes do Meiosis 1 (to turn into secondary oocytes). So secondary oocytes do Meiosis 2, not Meiosis 1.

391
Q

When does an oocyte complete Meiosis 1?

A

Primary occytes are stuck in Prophase 1 of Meiosis 1, until hormonal signals during a menstrual cycle stimulate several primary oocytes, in the ovary, to compete among themselves to finish Meiosis 1 and become secondary oocytes.

392
Q

When does a secondary oocyte complete Meiosis 2?

A

only after fertilization

393
Q

T/F:

All primary oocytes are formed while a female is still an embryo in her mother’s womb.

A

tru

394
Q

When fertilization occurs, the nuclei of the sperm and the egg do not fuse, until:

A

until the egg extrudes the 2nd polar body, and matures into an ovum

395
Q

What is an ootid?

A

a zygote-precursor cell that contains the separate nuclei of both the sperm and the egg.

396
Q

When menstruation occurs, a woman loses not a mature ovum, but rather a _____.

A

secondary oocyte that’s frozen in meiosis

397
Q

When talking about ovaries, what is a follicle?

A

a primary oocyte surrounded by granulosa cells

398
Q

The female equivalent of the interstitial cells of Leydig is:

A

the thecal cells

399
Q

Define corona radiata.

A

the name given to the granulosa cells, surrounding the ovum and the ovum’s zona pellucida, after ovulation.

400
Q

During the first half of the menstrual cycle, estrogen is made and secreted by the ____ cells.

A

granulosa cells in the ovarian follicle

401
Q

The corpus luteum makes this hormone(s):

A
  • progesterone, and
  • estrogen
402
Q

Where, in the effector cell, is the receptor for estrogen located?

A

in the cytoplasm

403
Q

In terms of the endocrine system physiology, why does menstruation occur?

A

because when corpus luteum degenrates, it no longer secretes progesterone nor estrogen. The drop in these 2 hormones leads to shedding of the endometrial lining.

404
Q

T/F:

high levels of estrogen inhibit the secretion of LH and FSH.

A

tru

405
Q

What causes the LH surge that will trigger ovulation?

A

the gradual ↑↑ in estrogen levels during the follicular phase

406
Q

How does the birth control pill do its job?

A

pill contains estrogen, which forces estrogen levels in the blood to remain high.

High estrogen levels block ovulation b/c constantly high estrogen levels inhibit the secretion of LH, FSH, and GnRH

407
Q

Ovulation occurs at around Day # ________ of the menstrual cycle.

A

14

408
Q

Menstruation begins at around Day # ____ of the menstrual cycle.

A

1

409
Q

After the blastocyst implants into the endometrium, ____ acts as a substitute for LH.

A

hCG

410
Q

hCG acts as a substitute for this hormone:

A

LH

411
Q
  1. What is the role/action of hCG?
  2. How does it achieve that function?
A
  1. Maintains endometrium, by keeping up the supply of estrogen and progesterone
  2. acts as a substitute for LH by stimulating corpus luteum to make estrogen and progesterone
412
Q

During pregnancy, corpus luteum is necessary during [1st trimester / 1st and second trimester / 3rd trimester only / during ALL of pregnancy / is NOT necessary during pregnancy].

A

1st trimester

413
Q

Why is corpus luteum not necessary after 1st trimester?

A

placenta will secrete enough estrogen and progesterone to maintain the endometrium

414
Q

Why is the yolk sac important in human embryology?

A

first red blood cells are formed there

415
Q

Approx _____ % of filtered Na+ is reabsorbed in the prox convoluted tubule.

A

67

416
Q

Approx 67 % of Na is reabsorbed in the ____ of the kidney.

A

prox. convoluted tubule

417
Q

cholecystokinin is released into the alimentary canal by cells which are located in the _____.

A

duodenum, and

prox jejunum

418
Q
  1. What is the macula densa?
  2. What does it do?
A

a receptor within the juxtaglomerular apparatus that responds to low NaCl levels in the fluid entering the distal nephron

419
Q

Where in the body are podocytes located?

A

In the Bowman’s capsule

420
Q

The kidney filtration barrier is made of these 3 structures:

A
  1. capillary endothelium
  2. basement membrane
  3. filtration slits
421
Q

When talking about the heart, what is preload?

A

the end-diastolic pressure that stretches the right or left ventricle of the heart, as measured by the volume of blood in the ventricle at the end of diastole (“dub”)

422
Q

What is Starling’s first law?

A

an ↑↑ in venous blood returning to the heart, causes an ↑↑ in cardiac output.

An ↑↑ in Preload, causes an ↑↑ in total blood volume ejected by the heart.

423
Q

What is cardiac output?

A

amount of blood pumped out by the heart

424
Q

Define afterload.

A

the resistance, to blood flow, created by the Aorta

425
Q

What is Starling’s second law?

A

An ↑↑ in afterload causes an ↓↓ in the amount of blood ejected by the heart, and ↑↑ the total blood volume in the ventricle for the next heart contraction (“lub”).

B/c the blood volume inside the ventricle is ↑ , the ventricle will contract with greater force on the next contraction.

426
Q

The part of the brain responsible for involuntary breathing is located in the ______.

A

the medulla, and

pons

427
Q

What is the normal expected hematocrit for a healthy person?

A

~ 45 percent

428
Q

Macrophages are derived from ___ cells.

A

monocytes

429
Q

Monocytes are synthesized in the ____ and are precursors to ____ cells.

A
  1. bone marrow
  2. macrophage
430
Q

Epimysium is the connective tissue sheath that covers the _____.

A

entire muscle

431
Q

______ is the connective tissue sheath that covers the entire muscle, and it is continuous with the tendon.

A

epimysium

432
Q

T/F:

Epimysium is continuous with the tendon.

A

tru

433
Q

What is a fascicle?

A

a bundle of muscle cells

434
Q
  1. What is a perimysium?
  2. What does it do?
    ​
A

connective tissue sheat that surrounds a fascicle

435
Q
  1. What is endomysium?
  2. What does it ensheath?
A

connective tissue that surrounds a single muscle cell/fiber

436
Q

Endomysium is created by ___ cells.

A

fibroblast

437
Q

Actin is the _____ filament, while myosin is the ____ filament.

A
  1. thin;
  2. thick

(mnemonic: “tough actin’ THIN-Actin”)

438
Q

What’s a proprioceptor?

A

a receptor that provides info about the movement or position of a body part

439
Q

The Golgi tendon organ, and the muscle spindle are types of _____.

A

proprioceptors

440
Q

The Golgi tendon organ lies in [series / parallel] with the muscle and it is sensitive to changes in _____.

A
  1. series
  2. tension
441
Q

The muscle spindle lies in [series / parallel] with the muscle and it is sensitive to changes in _____.

A

parallel;

length

442
Q

These specific types of tissue can generate action potentials:

A
  1. (some) cardiac myocytes
  2. neurons, and
  3. skeletal muscle
443
Q

Cardiac myocytes that can generate action potentials have channels that are selective for this/these ions:

A

Na,

Cl,

Ca,

K

444
Q

What induces the heart to release ANP?

A

distention of the atrial chamber (i.e., high blood volume)

445
Q

How does ANF/ANP affect the body?

A

it stimulates the kidneys to eliminate Na and H2O.

446
Q

The amount of [actin / myosin / tropomyosin] is the same in both smooth and skeletal muscles.

A

actin; and

tropomyosin

447
Q

What are the 2 types of ossification?

A
  1. Endochondral;
  2. Intramembraneous
448
Q

What is intramembraneous ossification?

A

the condensation of mesenchymal tissue into intramembraneous bone

449
Q

What is endochondral ossification?

A

the indirect conversion of an intermediate cartilage model into endochondral bone

450
Q

The holes, in bones, which are created by osteoclasts are called:

A

Howship’s lacunae

451
Q

The nonspecific immune system is AKA the ____ immune system.

A

innate

452
Q

The immune system can be divided into the ____ immunity and ______ immunity.

A
  1. innate / nonspecific
  2. acquired / adaptive
453
Q

What is interferon?

A

a protein that prevents viral replication and dispersion

454
Q

Is interferon part of innate immunity or adaptive immunity?

A

innate

455
Q

Which cells are part of innate immunity?

A

macrophage;

mast cells;

granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils);

dendritic cells;

NK cells

456
Q

Which cell(s) are part of adaptive immunity?

A

B-cell;

T-cell

457
Q

What are the 4 deviations / exceptions from Mendelian genetics?

A
  1. incomplete dominance
  2. codominance
  3. penetrance and expressivity
  4. inherited disorders
458
Q

What is the numerical ratio that we see with (Mendelian) monohybrid crosses?

A

3 : 1

459
Q

What is the ratio that we see with Mendelian dihybrid crosses?

A

9 : 3 : 3 : 1

460
Q

What is the ratio that we see with incomplete dominance?

A

1 : 2 : 1

dominant : mixed : recessive

461
Q

In genetics, what does penetrance mean?

A

Penetrance of a genotype is the # of ppl in a population carrying an allele, who actually express that allele’s phenotype.

462
Q

In genetics, what is expressivity?

A

the varying severity of the expression of the phenotype (eg, disease symptoms), among ppl who have the same genotype

463
Q

The ovulation period lasts about ___ days

A

24 hours

464
Q

Which hormone(s)/neurotransmitter(s) can ↑↑ blood glucose levels?

A
  1. ACTH
  2. cortisol
  3. norepi / epinephrine
  4. glucagon
  5. growth hormone
  6. thyroxine
465
Q

The 2 main tasks of the colon are:

A
  1. water reabsorption;
  2. K+ secretion
466
Q

The fcn of aldosterone:

A

reabsorb Na and H2O

467
Q

What organ(s) does aldosterone target?

A

Distal convoluted tubule; and

Collecting duct;

Large intestine / Colon

468
Q

What is reabsorbed in the Proximal Convoluted Tubule?

A

The

  • glucose
  • ions
  • H2O
  • almost all the amino acids

which enter the nephron

469
Q
  1. What is reabsorbed in the glomerulus?
  2. What is reabsorbed in the Bowman’s capsule?
A

nothing

470
Q

ADH (and its analogs) stimulate the production of _____ in the nephron’s collecting ducts.

A

aquaporin channels

471
Q

Aquaporins in the kidney allow for the :

A

reabsorption of H2O during the concentration of urine

472
Q

Aldosterone is produced by the adrenals in response to:

A

↑↑ potassium levels;

OR

↓↓ Na levels

473
Q

The mnemonic for the path the sperm takes until ejaculation:

A

SEVEN UP:

Seminiferous tubules;

Epididymis;

Vas def;

Ejaculatory Duct;

[nothing]

Urethra;

Penis

474
Q

Which neurotransmitter(s) or hormone(s) can stimulate the parietal/oxyntic cells to secrete HCl:

A

acetylcholine

gastrin

histamine

475
Q

S-cells are found in the ____. They secrete ____.

A
  1. duodenum;
  2. secretin
476
Q

What does secretin do?

A

it’s an antacid that neutralizes duodenal contents

477
Q

The ductus arteriosus shunts blood from the ____ to the ____.

A

pulmonary artery;

aorta

478
Q

Which sites on the nephron can allow for water to pass through?

A
  • PCT (reabsorbs 2/3 of all water in the nephron)
  • descending loop (passive reabsorption)
  • DCT (*ONLY *when stimulated by aldosterone)
  • Collecting Duct (ONLY when stimulated by ADH)
479
Q

When does DCT reabsorb water?

A

when stimulated by aldosterone

480
Q

When does the nephron’s collecting tubule reabsorb H2O?

A

When stimulated by ADH

481
Q

What effect does secretin have in the body? What does it target?

A

stimulates the pancreas to release bicarbonate

482
Q

In nephrology, what does “filter”, “secrete”, and “reabsorb” mean?

A

filtered: passively pushed from blood to urine

secreted: actively pushed out from blood to urine

reabsorbed: pulled from urine back into blood.

483
Q

Where in the nephron is glucose reabsorbed?

A

PC Tubule

484
Q

What is the difference between proteins made by free ribosomes versus proteins made by Rough ER?

A

free ribosomes made proteins needed within the cell.

Rough ER ribosomes make proteins that will leave the cell.

485
Q

The macula densa is a receptor that is stimulated to release ____ when it detects:

A
  1. renin
  2. low Na levels entering the distal nephron
486
Q

The most selective part of the kidney’s filtration barrier is the ______ , which has ______ charge at physiological pH.

A
  1. basement membrane;
  2. negative
487
Q

B/c the basement membrane of the kidney’s filtration barrier is negatively charged, only positively-charged and neutral particles will enter the _____.

A

nephron

488
Q

ADH acts as receptors of the _____.

A

collecting tubule or collecting duct

489
Q

Approx. 10 percent of the filtered ____ and 25 percent of the filtered ______ are reabsorbed by the loop of Henle.

A
  1. water;
  2. Na and Cl
490
Q

Normally, the descending loop of Henle is permeable to ____ and is impermeable to _____.

A

water;

ions

491
Q

Normally, the ascending loop of Henle is impermeable to ____ but allows the transport of _____.

A
  1. water;
  2. Na, K, and Cl
492
Q

The first amino acid found in every eukaryotic protein:

A

methionine

493
Q

The bicuspid (mitral) valve is located on the [right / left] side.

A

left

494
Q

Function of the thymus is to:

A

replenish the T-cell population

495
Q

T/F:

Both ventricles pump the same amount of blood.

A

tru

496
Q

Central chemoreceptors respond to changes in [O2 / CO2 / both].

A

CO2 in arteries

497
Q

The bronchial arteries, which feed the lungs, branch off of the ____.

A

aorta

498
Q

The [Left / Right] lung has 2 lobes.

A

left

499
Q

Platelets are synthesized by _____ cells.

A

megakaryocyte

500
Q

Antibodies are made by a ____ cell, which is a specific type of B-cell.

A

plasma cell

501
Q

A plasma cell is a specific type of ____ cell.

A

B-cell

502
Q

B-cells are made in the _____.

A

bone marrow

503
Q

T/F:

Cartilage is vascular tissue.

A

fals. cartilage is Avascular.

504
Q

Cells of the ____ immune system are not specific, and will go after anything that appears foreign.

A

innate

505
Q

A macrophage synthesizes an MHC [ one / two ] receptor, which is used to attach to a T-cell.

A

TWO

506
Q

A T-cell can have 2 attachments to a macrophage.

The T-cell’s “t-cell receptor” will bind to the _____, while the T-cell’s ____ arm will bind to the macrophage’s ____ receptor.

A
  1. antigen presented by the macrophage
  2. CD4+ peptide arm
  3. MHC-2
507
Q

The acquired/adaptive immune system has these subdivisions:

A
  1. cell - mediated;
  2. humoral
508
Q

During muscle contraction, which bands and lines in a sarcomere will shorten? Which lengthen? Which remain the same?

A

UNALTERED: A band

SHORTENS: H and I bands

MOVES CLOSER: Z line

See chart on Question # 792 on page 277 of EK Bio 1001.

509
Q

______ cells synthesizes muscle tissue.

A

Fibroblasts

510
Q

Name the thin myofilaments.

A

F-actin;

tropomyosin; and

Troponin C

511
Q

T-tubules are found in _____ cells.

A

skeletal muscle; and

cardiac muscle

512
Q

The first heart sound is actually made by the closing of the :

A

mitral and tricuspid valves

513
Q

The 2nd heart sound is actually caused by:

A

the closing of the aortic semilunar and pulmonary semilunar valves

514
Q

Which hormone(s) stimulate the kidney to reabsorb Na?

A

aldosterone

[ADH only reabsorbs water.]

515
Q

In cardiac muscle cells, gap junctions are called _____.

A

intercalated discs

516
Q

The 5 assumptions of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are:

A
  1. infinitely large population
  2. random mating (free love!)
  3. No mutations (NO TMNJ)
  4. No migration (xenophobia)
  5. No natural selection (jerry falwell)
517
Q

MCAT Rules for X-linked Recessive Inheritance are:

A
  1. Disease more common in males
  2. Males with the mutant gene WILL get the disease
  3. Disease can skip generations
  4. If mother is a heterozygous carrier, her kids have **50% chance of getting **the disease
  5. Males with disease will give it to all of his **daughters **
  6. Males CANNOT pass it to their sons.

See # 900, page 290 of EK BIo 1001

518
Q

The MCAT Rules for Autosomal Recessive Inheritance:

A
  1. 2 heterozygous (i.e., disease-free) parents can have a child with the disease
  2. Every time 2 heterozygous carrier parents mate:
    1. 25 % chance of having homozygous disease-free normal child
    2. 25 % risk of having homozygous child with disease
    3. 50 % chance of having a heterozygous disease-free kid who is a carrier
  3. Half of all kids appear to be disease-free

See Question # 905, page 210 of EK Bio 1001

519
Q

The most common blood type :

A

O +

(oh positive)

520
Q

What is pleiotropism?

A

When the alteration of one gene results in changing many, seemingly unrelated phenotypes.

E.g., mutation of 1 gene is pleiotropic if it alters development of heart, bone, and inner ears

521
Q

What is polygenism?

A

A phenotype/trait is polygenic if it is influenced by many different genes.

E.g., height is polygenic b/c it relies on genes for growth factors, receptors, hormones, bone deposition, muscle development, energy utilization, etc.

522
Q

What is epistasis?

A

A situation where the expression of alleles for one particular gene, depends on a different gene

E.g, a gene for curly hair cannot be expressed if a different gene causes baldness.

523
Q

If an individual’s blood becomes hypotonic with respect to the (kidney) filtrate, would ADH secretion increase or decrease?

A

↓↓

524
Q

The reabsorption of water from the kidney filtrate ↑↑ as the concentration of the interstitial fluid [increases / decreases].

A

increases

525
Q

Interstitial fluid is [hypo- / hyper-]tonic to kidney filtrate.

A

hypERtonic

526
Q

Kidney filtrate is [hypo- / hyper-]tonic to interstitial fluid.

A

hypOtonic

527
Q

Fatty acids can be converted into glucose via Gluconeogenesis, HOWEVER:

A

Only ODD-chained fatty acids (i.e., odd number of Carbons) can.

528
Q

In fetal blood circulation, where is the fetal blood oxygenated?

A

placenta

529
Q

How many shunts exist in fetal blood circulation?

A

3

530
Q

A fetus’ umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the _____ to the ____.

A

placenta;

inf vena cava

531
Q

A fetus’ umbilical vein carries **[deoxygenated / oxygenated]** blood.

A

oxygenated

532
Q

The ductus venosus connects the ____ with the ____.

A

umbilical vein

inf vena cava

533
Q

The ductus arteriosus connects the ____ with the ____.

A

pulmonary artery;

aorta

534
Q

What triggers the inhibition of gastrin’s secretion?

A

when chyme reaches a pH of 3 and moves into the duodenum

535
Q

What are the types of dead spaces in the body?

A

anatomical dead space; and

alveolar

536
Q

Anatomical dead space refers to:

A

air that remains in the mouth and trachea after inspiraton, and thus will not contact alveoli

537
Q

Alveolar dead space refers to:

A

alveoli that contact air, but do not do any gas exchange

538
Q

What is NF-κB?

A

a protein complex that controls transcription of DNA.

539
Q

What can cause the oxygen dissociation curve to shift to the left?

A
  • ↓↓ the partial pressure of CO2
  • ↑↑ the pH
  • ↓↓ the temperature
540
Q

What is the Bohr effect?

A

the shifting of the oxygen dissociation curve to the RIGHT

541
Q

What shape does a normal oxygen dissociation curve have?

A

sigmoidal

542
Q

How does fetal oxygen dissociation curve differ from an adult’s oxygen dissociation curve?

A

Fetal hemoglobin has a greater affinity for O2 than adult hemoglobin, so the fetal curve is shifted to the left of an adult’s curve.

543
Q

T/F:

Lymphatic vessels have smooth muscle.

A

fals

544
Q

Lymph rejoins the blood circulation where the thoracic duct joins with the _____.

A

brachiocephalic vein

545
Q

How do lymphatic vessels differ from blood vessels?

A

lymph vessels lack:

  • smooth muscle
  • tight jcns between the endothelial cells
546
Q

What is special/important about the fovea of the eye?

A

it contains the greatest concentration of cones in the eye, & thus has the sharpest vision

547
Q

List the Starling forces.

A
  • capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc)
  • oncotic pressure (AKA colloid osmotic pressure) from blood plasma proteins (πc)
  • hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid (Pi)
  • oncotic pressure of the interstitial fluid’s proteins (πi)
548
Q

When talking about circulation, what does Pc stand for?

A

capillary’s hydrostatic pressure

549
Q

When talking about circulation, what does πc stand for?

A

oncotic pressure of plasma proteins

550
Q

When talking about circulation, what does P<strong>i</strong>stand for?

A

hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid

551
Q

The effect of ANP on the body is the exact opposite of this hormone(s):

A

aldosterone

552
Q

Renin is secreted by juxtaglomerular cells, in response to:

A
  1. A ↓↓ in arterial blood pressure as detected by baroreceptors (pressure-sensitive cells).
  2. A ↓↓ in sodium chloride levels in the ultrafiltrate of the nephron. (This flow is measured by the macula densa of the juxtaglomerular apparatus.)
  3. Sympathetic nervous system activity, which also controls blood pressure (acting through the ß - 1 adrenergic receptors).
553
Q

Which specific type of cell lines the Bowman’s space or Bowman’s capsule which shelters the glomerulus?

A

simple squamous epithelium

554
Q

Define glomerular filtration rate:

A
  • the rate at which liquid (and dissolved compounds) are pushed out from the glomerulus capillaries, into the kidney’s tubules.
  • from blood to urine
555
Q

Define renal corpuscle:

A
  • part of the nephron
  • renal corpuscle consists of: Bowman’s capsule + glomerulus
556
Q

What does Tm stand for? I.e., what is the full term?

A

tubular transport maximum of any given substance

557
Q

What is the tubular transport maximum?

A

the highest rate at which a given substance can be reabsorbed by the kidney

558
Q

What force causes the filtration of liquid from the glomerulus, to the Bowman’s capsule?

A

blood pressure

(filtration is passive)

559
Q

Ducklings will follow any large object they encounter during a critical period after hatching. This type of behavior is called:

A

imprinting

560
Q

Is ammonia a Lewis acid, or is it a Lewis base?

A

Lewis base!

561
Q

The optimal operating pH of trypsin is:

A

8

562
Q

Trypsin does its job inside the [stomach/duodenum].

A

duodenum

563
Q

T/F:

Mitochondrial genes are inherited in a Mendelian pattern of inheritance.

A

Fals.

Mitochondrial genes are passed by moms to all their sons and daughters.

564
Q

Microfilaments are actually [actin / myosin / neither] filaments.

A

actin

565
Q

Which has a greater probability of hydrogen bonding:

carboxylic acids, or alcohols?

A

carboxylic acid

566
Q

Proteins are synthesized by starting from the [amino / carboxy]-terminal.

A

amino-terminal

567
Q

In mammals, lipid-soluble toxins are metabolized by membrane-bound heme proteins called ____.

A

cytochrome P-450

568
Q

In Michaelis-Menten kinetics, which of these is the Vmax is dependent on:

  • total enzyme concentration
  • substrate concentration
  • the concentration of inhibitor that reversibly binds to the enzyme’s active site
A

Vmax is dependent on total enzyme concentration

569
Q

In Michaelis-Menten kinetics, what fraction of active sites of the enyme are filled by substrate when [S] = 2*Km??

A

2/3

570
Q

A more popular name for prolactin inhibitory factor is ___.

A

dopamine

Catz (7 decks)

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