MBB1 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is cognition?

A

to be acquainted with/to know

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Two aspects of cognition?

A

Act of knowing

That which is known

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the ‘act of knowing’ approach to cognition refer to?

A

Process

Comes by with actions (cognition as something learners do)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does the ‘that which is known’ approach to cognition refer to?

A
  • Product
  • Mental re-presentations of what we perceive, reason, know - mental images (way mind encodes experiences we’ve had
  • Construct representations of things I’ve encountered that are not present
  • Memory is a constructive process
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How did William James consider cognition

A
  • That which is known

- Products/phenomena of knowing things

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What was the significance of Ulrich Neisser?

A

-Led cognitive revolution (saw cognition as activity of knowing - something that can be studied as a science)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the cognitive processes

A
○ Perception
○ Attention
○ Memory
○ Decision-making
○ Reasoning
○ Problem-solving
○ Imagining
○ Planning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the lowest form of mental representations?

A

Sensorimotor representations

  • all cognition starts here
  • interact physically with world and people around us
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the middle form of mental representations?

A

Mental images, visuo-spatial representations

-next level of removal from actual present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the highest form of mental representations?

A

Representing knowledge in abstract forms - ability to think about our own thoughts - metacognition - represent knowledge in language so we can label concepts in the world
-relating concepts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is experience a product of?

A

integrating perceptual present and cognitive past

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Neisser’s perceptual cycle?

A

○ Perceptual exploration (locomotion and action) as we sample actual present environment, makes us modify schema of present environment (cognitive map of the world and its possibilites) directions the perceptual exploration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the keys to becoming an effective learner

A

• Understanding key aspects of the functional architecture that characterises human learning and memory
• Knowing activities and techniques that enhance the storage and subsequent retrieval of to-be-learned information
• Knowing how to monitor the state of one’s learning and to control one’s learning activities in response to such monitoring
- Understanding certain biases that can impair judgements of whether learning has been achieved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the three approaches to learning?

A
  • Surface
  • Deep
  • Strategic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is surface learning?

A

○ Do not understand the concept

○ Not important things

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is deep learning?

A

○ Want to understand a concept beyond definitions

- Highly interested and motivated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is strategic learning?

A

○ Combination of other two
○ Uses strategy based on situation you are faced with
-You choose strategy for how to approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why did Skinner introduce Operant condtioning?

A
  • To explore how environment controls voluntary behaviour
  • Behaviour that I produce generate consequences from the environment and they either serve to reinforce or punish the behaviour and that shapes me
  • Nurture - environment shapes who you are (behaviourist approach)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the basic concept behind Operant conditioning?

A
  • Behaviour is governed by the consequences that follow it - seek pleasure and avoid pain
    • It is adaptive to learn associations between voluntary behaviours that reliably predict punishing or rewarding outcomes
    • Behaviour is shaped by the learner’s history of experiencing rewards and punishments for their actions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When/why would we use reinforcement?

A
  • Behaviour is reinforced whenever a desirable outcome occurs as a consequence of performing the behaviour
  • If we want to see more of the behaviour: case of reinforcement
  • Reinforced behaviours are more likely to be repeated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What was involved in the Skinner box?

A

○ Rat in a box - want the rat to press the lever in the box
○ Can’t reinforce until animal produces the behaviour itself
○ Keeps animal a little bit hungry so that it is active and exploring
○ When it does finally trip the lever, food pellet is introduced into the box (positive reinforcement)
○ Rat is more likely to press the lever
○ Therefore we can automate behaviour
○ Could also be reinforced by zapping the rat until he presses the lever (negative reinforcement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is positive reinforcement?

A

An animal will learn to produce a behaviour if the consequence of the behaviour is receiving something pleasant (adding)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is negative reinforcement?

A

An animal will learn to produce a behaviour if the consequence of doing so is stopping something unpleasant (taking away)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the difference between continuous and partial reinforcement schedules?

A

○ Continuous reinforcement rarely occurs in natural environment
○ Behaviour usually reinforced on partial ‘schedule’
○ Partial reinforcement results in more persistent learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a partial reinforcement schedule?

A
  • Schedules when the learner only receives the reinforcement some of the time
  • Creates more persistent learning than continuous
    □ Gambling - pays off sometimes - just enough to think that maybe next time they will get the reward
    □ Keeps learner looking for the next reward
    ○ Start with continuous reinforcement then drop to partial reinforcement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When does the extinction of reinforced behaviour occur?

A

○ Extinction occurs when reinforcement is withheld
○ Not immediate - may be brief increase in responding (extinction burst) followed by decrease in trained behaviour (eg tantrum)
○ Increase in more variable behaviour (ideal for shaping)
○ Responses that were reinforced partially are more difficult to extinguish than those reinforced continuously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does ‘behaviour shaping’ refer to?

A

The reinforcement of successive approximations to desired behaviour (reinforcing small steps)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How do you shape behaviour?

A

○ Start by reinforcing a high frequency component of desired response
- Since it won’t naturally occur at the start, start rewarding the behaviour that is closer and closer to the desired behaviour
- Build up to more sophisticated behaviour
○ Then drop reinforcement - behaviour becomes more variable again
○ Await response that is still closer to the desired response - reintroduce the reinforcer
○ Continue cycling through as closer and closer approximations to the desired behaviour are achieved
○ Enables moulding of a response that is not normally part of animal’s repertoire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When should punishment occur?

A
  • Behaviour is punished whenever undesirable outcome occurs as a consequence of performing the behaviour
  • Punished behaviours less likely to be repeated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a punisher?

A

any consequence of a behaviour that makes the behaviour less likely to recur in future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is positive punishment

A

○ An animal will learn to stop producing a behaviour if consequence for producing behaviour is the presentation of an unpleasant stimulus (adding)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is negative punishment

A

○ Animal will learn to stop producing a behaviour if the consequence of producing that behaviour is that something desirable is taken away (taking away)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When is punishment effective?

A

○ Three Cs:
- Contingency
□ Relationship between behaviour and punisher
must be clear
- Contiguity (timing)
□ Punisher must follow behaviour swiftly
- Consistency
□ Punisher needs to occur for every occurrence
of the behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the disadvantages of punishment?

A

○ Rarely works for long-term behaviour - seems to suppress rather than eliminate
○ Does not teach a more desirable behaviour
○ If the threat of punishment is removed, behaviour returns
○ Produces negative feelings which do not promote new learning
○ Harsh punishment may teach recipient to replicate behaviour towards others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are some alternatives to punishment?

A

○ Stop reinforcing problem behaviour (extinction)
○ Reinforce and alternative behaviour that is constructive and incompatible with undesired behaviour
○ Reinforce non-occurrence of undesirable behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the theory behind classical conditioning?

A

• About predicting the future from past experience and using these predictions to guide behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What was Pavlov’s approach to learning?

A

○ Need to recognise signals that preempt harmful creature being upon me rather than just the harmful predator itself
- Need to predict the future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What was involved in Pavlov’s dogs experiment

A
  • Had dogs restrained in Pavlov harness
  • Measured strength of salivation response in response to food stimuli
  • Dogs started to predict when he was coming and started to salivate before he showed food
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does conditioning mean?

A

• Conditioning = associative learning
○ Important to learn associations between stimuli in
the environment that reliably predict other stimuli
○ Especially in relation to survival

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is classical conditioning?

A

○ Learning an association between a stimulus that reliably predicts another stimulus that is naturally associated with a defensive or appetitive reflex response
- Learning to produce a reflex response to a stimulus that would not naturally cause it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Are reflexes learned?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the process involved in classical conditioning?

A

• Before conditioning:
○ Unconditioned stimulus (UCS) and unconditioned
response (UCR) = reflex
- Unlearned
- Shown a treat –> salivate
○ A stimulus that does not produce a reflex = neutral
stimulus (NS)
• During conditioning
○ Preceding UCS with NS to get UCR
○ Establishing conditioned response
○ Need to do NS before UCS so that NS predicts the
UCS
○ Repeat a few trials in one session, and again after a
delay (days, a week)
• After conditioning
○ NS alone gets CR (conditioned response)
○ Reflex salivation response occurs at presentation of
formerly neutral stimulus on its own
○ NS becomes CS (conditioned stimulus)
○ UCR becomes CR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is stimulus generalisation?

A

Classically conditioned response will generalise to other similar stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is stimulus discrimination?

A
  • the extinction of stimulus generalisation

- eg Ring a number of other bells and not provide a UCS as well as the one bell that does

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How do you achieve response extinction (with classical conditioning)?

A

○ Keep giving NS but without giving UCS

○ Learning remains but becomes suppressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What does spontaneous recovery refer to (in terms of classical conditioning)?

A

○ Classically conditioned response can return after extinction
○ If there is a rest period after extinction trials and then present the stimulus again, conditioned response will return
○ Extinction will be stronger if extinction trials are spaced over multiple sessions
○ Each time the spontaneously recovered response will be decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does rapid re-acquisition refer to (in terms of classical conditioning)?

A

○ Teaching the subject the CR again after sustained
extinction
○ Quickly relearn the response in fewer trials than initially
needed
- Learning was never fully lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What was Watson’s theory in relation to behaviourism?

A

○ Said you could train infants to become any type of
specialist you might choose
- Nature dominates over nurture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What was found in the Little Albert experiment?

A

○ Testing to see if they could induce a phobia in an infant
by conditioning a fear response to a rat
○ After the instances they elicited an extreme fear
response to the white rat
○ Generalisation occurred to other furry animals and
Santa’s white beard that he had not previously shown
feared in
○ Did not get to extinguish the fear
○ NS –> CS = rat
○ UCS = loud noise
○ UCR = startle response
○ CR = fear of rat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What was Tolman’s take on cognitive learning?

A

○ Believed cognitive processes played important role in learning complex behaviours, even in non-human animals
○ Against hard-core behaviourism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What was involved in Tolman’s ‘rat in maze’ experiment?

A
  • Food at end of maze
  • Number of obstructions in maze that mouse needs to make it past
  • If it makes wrong decision - punished
  • Right decision will be rewarded
  • After number of days rat knows how to run through maze most efficiently making minimal mistakes
  • Didn’t just learn pathways that were rewarded, but also learned mental representation of maze (cognitive map) they would draw upon to get to the food
    □ Sometimes rat would misbehave - learned much
    more about spatial environment than what were
    rewarded paths
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What happened in Tolman’s adaptation of his original ‘rat in maze’ experiment - the sunburst maze?

A
  • Altered the maze - sunburst maze (more pathways, and the original pathway does not lead to food anymore
  • Which is the most likely path for rat to run down in new maze?
    □ Most rats rans down alley 6 when they found out
    that their original one had no food (brings them out
    right where food would have been)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is latent learning?

A
  • Learning can occur in absence of rewards and punishments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How did Tolman demonstrate Latent Learning using the three groups of rats?

A

□ Group A was left to explore maze without reinforcement for 20 days
□ Group B was left for 10 days and then after 10 days was reinforced,
□ Group C was always reinforced
□ Learning becomes evident for Group B at day 11 - errors drops as soon as reinforcement was introduced, and mistakes made on day 12 was same as group C
□ Learning of group B was latent - couldn’t see it (it’s not that the rats hadn’t learned anything about the maze before reinforcement, but we just couldn’t see it because they had no reason to demonstrate it)
□ Therefore rewards affect whether learning is demonstrated, not achieved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is Social Learning Theory?

A
  • Humans and other animals can learn through observing
  • Observational learning provides another example of how learning can occur indirectly without direct reinforcement or punishment
  • Learning can take place socially and vicariously (through others) by observing others (models)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What was Bandura’s take on social learning?

A

○ Observational learning takes place through active judgement and constructive processes not just imitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What happened in Bandura’s social learning experiment using children and the doll?

A

○ Experiment investigating children’s imitation of aggressive behaviour
- Four year-olds watched short film of adult playing
aggressively with bobo doll
- One group sees adults reinforced with treats after
performing aggressive actions
- Another group sees adults punished
(scolding/spanking by another adult)
- Third group saw same film but with no consequence
- After film, children played alone in a room with
several toys including a bobo doll
- When no incentive was given to the kids to imitate the behaviour, those who had seen the rewarding video reproduced same amount of actions as those who saw no consequence, whereas those who saw the punishing video were significantly less likely to reproduce the actions with no incentive
- Boys in general were more likely to reproduce the aggressive behaviours than girls
- When the children received incentive to reproduce the behaviours, all of them, no matter what video they watched, were equally able to reproduce the behaviours (still with gender difference)
- Demonstrated vicarious reinforcement and vicarious punishment
- Ties in with latent learning - children only performed the behaviour when reward was present but were much less likely to reproduce the behaviour when there was no reward - reward affects the demonstration of learning rather than the acquisition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What was the case study of Clive Wearing (with herpes encephalitis)?

A
  • Caused bilateral hippocampal damage
  • Results in pattern of memory deficits:
    □ Recall of autobiographic episodes = poor
    □ Recall of facts learned prior to illness = relatively
    good
    □ Capacity to learn new things = poor
    □ Ability to attend to and understand current
    conversation = fully preserved
    □ Musical ability = fully preserved
  • Despite amnesia still retained his intelligence
  • No longer had any episodic memory
    □ Did not have brain parts necessary to recall anything that happened to him his whole life
  • Could remember general things (semantic memory)
    □ Knew he was married (semantic)
    □ Could not remember the wedding (episodic)
  • Lives in present moment
    □ Represented by short-term memory and working
    memory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is memory?

A
  • Set of systems for encoding, storing, and retrieving information acquired through our senses, and for relating this information to previously acquired knowledge
  • Mental and neural representation of information we have experienced, imagined, and learned
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the three main steps involved in memory?

A

○ Encoding
○ Retrieval of non-consolidated memory
-Retrieval of consolidated memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is involved in encoding?

A
  • Experience an event (with audio, spatial and visual information) - as we experience that event it sets off activation in the cortex in areas dedicated to receiving that sensory input
  • Interplay - back-and-forth between the activation occurring in the cortex and the process going on in the hippocampus where each stream of sensory information is being put together into a single representation that matches the input that’s occurring
  • Process of encoding leaves and imprint on brain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is involved in retrieval of non-consolidated memory?

A
  • Something causes that event to come to mind - retrieval cue (something that shares some of the same sensory components as original event)
  • Causes activation of that partial information in hippocampus
  • Sets off retrieval process that brings to mind other associating information (brings to life connections that have been formed and sends that information back out to the areas of the brain that were originally activated by past experience –> not only the sensory components present in retrieval cue but also other sensory components of original event come to mind
  • Consolidation occurs through process of retrieval
  • Storage is strengthened by retrieval
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is involved in retrieval of consolidated memory?

A
  • At point of consolidation of a memory, retrieval cue in environment doesn’t need to trigger hippocampus - input is sufficient to regenerate entire network of connections originally experienced
  • Retrieving can occur either inadvertently - retrieval cue, or with internal intention to retrieve the memory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is visual sensory memory?

A

• Temporary, sensory-based representation of input received through sensory channels
○ First stage of acquisition of sensory input
○ Opportunity for encoding to occur
• Allows sensation to persist long enough that we have time to attend to it and store it
• Provides buffer (‘holding area) between early sensory processes and later cognitive processes
• Only some of information stored in sensory memory will be retained
• Iconic (visual) and echoic (auditory) memory
○ Brief duration (decays quickly)
○ Large capacity (relative to STM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What did Sperling’s experiment on the capacity and duration of iconic sensory memory show?

A

○ Letters flash on screen for 50ms - how many can you remember
○ Conclusion of iconic memory capacity
- Capacity Is about 4 items
○ Sperling thought method he used was flawed because participants said they could recall everything but it disappeared too quickly to say them all aloud
○ Addressing problem
- Modified approach
□ Instead of full report of what was seen, asked
participants for partial report
- Initial set of letters displayed for 50ms
- Then auditory tone indicated which line to
retrieve from (high tone = top line etc)
- Participant repeats cued line
□ Findings:
- Participants were able to recall most of line
cued

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the multi-store model for memory?

A

-Information goes into sensory register, moves into short-term memory - moves into long-term memory if we rehearse it enough
○ Short-term sits between sensory memory and long-term memory - role is to mediate transformation of sensory input into meaningful content that can be transferred into long-term memory
- Thought of as a temporary storage site - structural account
○ Information kept active in short-term memory (STM) through process of active rehearsal mediated by verbal representations
○ Rehearsal results in transfer from STM to LTM (long-term memory) storage site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

According to the multi-store model for memory, what is the STM capacity and duration?

A

○ Capacity = 7 +/- 2 items, about the amount of verbal information that can be rehearsed for 2 seconds
○ Duration = seconds to minutes, depending on ability to maintain attention to stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the limitations of the multi-store model?

A

-only gives one-directional flow - doesn’t give us a clear mechanism for how information from long-term might be retrieved
○ Need more than just the ability to maintain sensory input to get into long-term memory - need to integrate information that is currently active in consciousness with things from cognitive past

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How is the verbal STM capacity assessed?

A

Digit-scan task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Using the digit-scan task, what is STMs capacity for verbal information?

A

○ Recall random sequence of verbally presented digits in the order they were present
- Test of immediate serial recall
○ Systematically increased length of sequence to determine the span
○ Average span is 7 +/- 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is an argument against the digit-scan task?

A

overestimates pure short-term memory although useful measure of verbal memory capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How do you measure the STM capacity for visual information?

A

• Change-detection task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the change-detection task?

A

○ Briefly displays a sample array
○ After a brief retention interval (small break) a test array is presented
○ Participants compare the test array with their memory representation of the sample array to determine if there are any differences
○ Results showed that if the size of the sample array changed while the time of the retention interval remained the same, participants could readily make stable judgements about test array up to about 3 or 4 items - then performance accuracy gets worse rapidly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is Miller’s theory on ‘Chunking’?

A

-a strategy to group the input events, apply a new name to the group, then remember the new name rather than the original input events
○ Don’t merely retain information but try and
make sense of it
• Capacity limit on STM should be viewed in relation to the number of meaningful chunks rather than meaningless bits of information
• Method that can be used to increase our STM capacity by chunking in groups of 3 or 4 - compatible with capacity of STM
• Recent studies that reduce the potential for chunking estimate the pure capacity of STM at 3 +/- 1 units of information rather than 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the Brown-Peterson task in measuring STM duration?

A

○ Remember three consonants
○ To prevent rehearsal - required to count backwards in 3’s until given a signal to stop
○ Retention interval was manipulated systematically
○ Memory probed (tested) after 3, 6, 9, 12, 15 or 18 seconds
○ Ability to retrieve three letters in their order dropped rapidly
○ After 3 seconds - participants got the letters right on about 50% of trials
○ By 9 seconds performance dropped to about 20%
○ By 12-18 seconds performance dropped to 0
○ Suggests memory trace seems to fade half strength after 3 seconds and down to nothing after 12-18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are some issues with the Brown-Peterson task in assessing STM duration?

A
  • Forgetting occurred due to interference
    □ Retroactive interference from subsequently
    attending to the backwards counting task
    □ Proactive interference from consonant strings
    studied on previous trials
    - Even after 12-18 seconds on first few tasks
    results were quite accurate - only got worse
    the more trials done
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the aspects of Badley’s model of working memory?

A
  • Three-part model
  • Working memory is multi-component model of short-term memory that expands on original idea of multi-component model
  • Top-tier = central executive process
    • connects to subsidiary systems:
      - visuospatial sketchpad
      - Phonological loop
      - Episodic buffer
  • all fluid systems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Describe the visuospatial sketchpad

A
  • Previous accounts left this part out
  • Images and spatial representations
    ○ Visuo-spatial working memory system temporarily holds visually based representations such as faces, objects, and written words
    - Mentally manipulate visual information
    □ Mental rotation of objects
    □ The use of mnemonics
    □ Mental arithmetic
    □ Cognitive maps for navigation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Describe the Phonological Loop

A
  • Attkinson-Schiffman’s model of short-term memory
  • Verbal memory processes and mechanism of maintenance rehearsal for verbally-coded representations of memory
  • Capacity for amplifying verbal and sound input and retaining that input through a loop/rehearsal mechanism
    ○ Working memory involves not just maintenance of information in a phonological store, but active manipulation of the information
    ○ digit-span backwards task
    - Considered a test of phonological
    working memory
    □ Need to not only hold in mind the number sequences in order, but then also present them backwards - manipulation
    - In contrast to standard digit-span task which measures maintenance only and does not nvolve manipulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Describe the Episodic buffer

A
  • Combines information from visuospatial sketchpad and phonological loop together into a bound representation
  • Combined in multisensory episodic trace
  • Workspace and experience we have of consciousness - sound and vision work together to give integrated experience
  • Holds integrated episodes and it’s a buffer in that it provides a temporary place for representing the current contents of consciousness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Describe the Central Executive Process

A
  • attentional processes
  • Higher-level control system that allows us to focus attention on any of the representation areas (the subsidiary systems), and ability to do so simultaneously
    ○ Executive processes are used in planning and coordinating complex behaviour (attentional system not memory system)
    - Goal orientation
    - Focus attention
    - Control of social behaviour
    - Switching between tasks, updating memory, inhibition of distracting information
    - Planning and problem solving
    ○ Executive processes are governed by circuitry in the pre-frontal cortex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Where are the Executive Processes based

A

Pre-frontal cortex networks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Where is the Phonological Loop based?

A

left-hemisphere fronto-temporal lobe network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Where is the Visuo-spatial sketchpad based?

A

right occipital-parietal network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Where is the Episodic Buffer based?

A

parietal network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the two major divisions of long-term memory

A
  • Declarative memory (explicit)

- Non-declarative memory (implicit)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is declarative memory?

A
○ Knowing what, why, when, where
○ all of the information that we can talk about
○ Facts, events, locations,
○ Hippocampal-dependent
○ 2 Sub-divisions
	- Episodic
		□ Remember personally-experienced events
		□ Contextualised
		□ Ability to mentally time travel 
		□ When/where memories
		□ Tulving - said it is particularly human
	- Semantic
		□ What/why
		□ Abstract
		□ General knowledge about the world
		□ Not personal
		□ Conceptual knowledge
○ Type of declaritive memory can be revealed through explicit memory tests
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is non-declarative memory?

A

○ Knowing how
○ Motor skills (eg riding a bike)
○ Cognitive skills (eg reading)
○ Non-hippocampal dependent
○ This kind of memory is revealed when previous experience facilitates (improves) performance on a task
- Reveals itself through behaviour
○ Does not require conscious recollection
○ Type of memory is revealed through implicit memory tests
○ 5 Subdivisions:
- Procedural memory
□ Ability to learn and perform motor and
cognitive skills (‘how to’ memory)
- Priming
□ Demonstrated by change in ability to
identify a stimulus as a result of prior
exposure to that stimulus or a related
stimulus
□ Repetition priming
- For example, prior exposure to a word in a lexical decision task will make the word easier to respond to the next time it is encountered
□ Associative/semantic priming
- Example - the prior presentation of
the word ‘nurse’ facilitates
subsequent identification of the word
‘doctor’
- Classical conditioning (associative
learning)
□ Learning to attend a neutral stimulus
because it has become associated with a
meaningful stimulus
- Operant conditioning (associative learning)
□ Learning to produce/avoid a behaviour
because it has become associated with
rewarding/punishing consequences
- Non-associative learning
□ Habituation
- Earning to ignore a stimulus because
it is trivial (eg screening out
background noise)
□ Sensitisation
- Learning to attend to a potentially
threatening stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is amnesia

A

• Deficits in memory caused by brain damage, disease, drug abuse, or psychological trauma
• The selective deficits in memory processes seen in cases of amnesia provide support for the proposed division between the declarative and non-declarative memory systems
-Two types:
-retrograde
-anterograde

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is retrograde amnesia?

A

○ Inability to recall things that happened prior to problem causing the amnesia
○ Usually temporally graded
- Oldest memories are less susceptible to amnesia
- Temporal gradient
- Clive Wearing did not have a temporal gradient -
did not remember any of it

○ Usually rare or temporary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is anterograde amnesia?

A

○ An inability to recall anything since the time of the brain injury
○ Inability to learn new information
○ Much more common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the case of H.M.?

A

• Developed severe epileptic seizures in his youth
○ Rendered him unconscious every time
• Through teens and early 20s seizures became more frequent
• Experimental surgery proposed to treat the seizures
○ Removal of the medial portion of both
temporal lobes, including hippocampi
• H.M. acquired a severe and permanent inability to acquire any new information
○ Both episodic and semantic
○ Anterograde amnesia
• very precise damage to brain - precision of surgeon’s knife rather than general damage
○ Very pure case of what happens when the medial temporal structures are removed
• Did stop seizures
• Experienced both retrograde and anterograde amnesia
○ Retrograde:
- Couldn’t remember hospital staff or his way to the bathroom
- Did not remember death of favourite uncle three years previously
- But early memories vivid and intact (temporal gradient)
○ Severe Anterograde:
- Could recall nothing of his day-to-day events of his hospital life
- Could not form, retain, or retrieve new episodic memories
- Severely impaired ability to learn new semantic facts
• Normal sensory and working memory (STM)
○ Normal digit span ability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What was Fergus Craik’s contention to memory and retention?

A

Said they were merely outcomes of the normal processes of perceiving and comprehension
• Brenda Milner challenged this:
○ Her amnesic patients had no trouble comprehending events, they were clearly capable of processing deep semantic levels, but they don’t remember things
- How can that be explained by Craik’s theory?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the role of the hippocampus in consolidation of memories?

A
  • The temporal gradient of retrograde amnesia tells us that memories cannot be stored permanently in the hippocampi
  • Severe anterograde amnesia that results from the removal of the hippocampi bilaterally indicates that these structures must be crucial for the consolidation of new information
  • Craik conceded that cases like H.M. forced him to adjust his account of elaborative encoding to include not just the process of interacting meaningfully with information in working memory, but also an additional process of consolidation, mediated by the hippocampus
  • Memory can be fully consolidated at the point at which it can be retrieved through cueing where memories are now independent of hippocampus and can self-activate in their own network
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Are the phonological loop and visuo-spatial sketchpad dependent on one another?

A

no:
○ Concurrent performance of a visuo-spatial task and a phonological recall task does not impair the performance on either task
- Eg a visuospatial task such as recalling the pattern of coloured squares on a checkerboard does not interfere with verbal digit-span task
○ Operate independently from one another
○ Two tasks of the same nature (ie two phonological loop or two visuo-spatial sketchpad tasks) when performed together will have interference
○ Contrast with the effect of non-attended speech in the auditory channel while trying to complete an auditory memory task - the non-attended speech effect occurs when performance on a verbal memory task declines in the presence of irrelevant speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Are anterograde amnesiacs capable of new procedural learning?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What does the mirror-tracing task show about anterograde amnesiacs and learning procedural learning?

A

○ Given piece of paper with double-outline of a star on it
○ Need to trace a third line in between the two lines trying not to take new line outside boundaries of other two
○ Do this with a barrier up so you can’t directly see what hands are doing - only have a mirror to reference your performance
○ Need to adapt to following movements of your hands mirror-reversed
○ Difficult to do the first time but will adapt with practice
○ Would H.M. show equivalent mirror tracing performance if he practiced the task over a few days?
- Despite thinking he had never done the task before, his results did show improvement over time
- Showed completely normal acquisition of the skill
- Demonstrates that procedural learning can proceed independently of the brain systems required for declarative memories
- First evidence of a clear dissociation between devastated declarative memory ability and his fully preserved non-declarative performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What are other types of preserved non-declarative memories in anterograde amnesiacs?

A

○ Intact classical conditioning
○ Intact priming effects seen in word-stem completion tasks
○ Normal habituation and sensitisation
• Both H.M. and Wearing show these effects
• Also patients with Korsakoff’s syndrome (anterograde amnesia caused by binge-drinking), depressed patients undergoing bilateral ECT, patients with anoxic encephalopathy who all suffer anterograde amnesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is attention?

A

The ability to preferentially process some parts of stimulus at the expense of processing other parts of the stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Why do we need attention?

A

○ Perceptual system has limited capacity
○ Can’t process everything in visual scene simultaneously
- Helps us avoid becoming overwhelmed by limiting processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are the two types of attention?

A

Overt attention

Covert attention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is overt attention?

A

Looking directly at an object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is covert attention?

A
  • looking at one object but attending to other objects

○ Could be used in sports to make people think they are going to move one way but actually move another way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

How can you tell where someone is attending?

A

Tracking eye movements

-Unless purposely try not to, you generally look at the object to which you attend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are eye movements called?

A

saccades
• Eyes do not move over scene smoothly - they jump from point to point
Jumps are known as saccades

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What are fixations?

A

Rests between the eye jumps where eyes stay looking directly at object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What determines what you fixate on?

A

Your goals and expectations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

How do eyes move between saccades and fixations?

A

Ballistically (fast)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What are the two processes involved in directing attention?

A

○ Initial involuntary process (mediated by attentional capture)
○ Subsequent voluntary process (guided by goals and expectations)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is the general process of directing attention?

A

• When scene is first presented fixations are captured by salient parts of a scene
○ Known as ‘attentional capture’ - involuntary
• After first few fixations can then direct your fixations according to your goals
○ Voluntary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What captures our attention?

A

○ Contrast

- Regions of colour contrast or luminance contrast
- Regions of size contrast
- Regions of orientation contrast
- Regions of motion/flicker contrast
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What directs our attention?

A

○ Observer’s goals and expectations
- If an object is unexpected you will fixate on it
longer and more often
□ Syntactically inconsistent = an expected
object doing something unexpected
(something that violates the fundamental laws
of nature)
□ Semantically inconsistent = unexpected
object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What are the effects of attention?

A

-Attention speeds responses
-Can influence appearance
• Attention can change apparent contrast of an
object
• Attention can also make objects appear bigger,
faster, more richly coloured
• Makes perception more vivid
-Can influence physiological responding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What was Posner’s experiment of attention’s effect on response speed?

A

○ Shown a box with an arrow above it to indicate which side an ‘X would appear on
○ Valid trials = X appeared on side indicated by arrow
○ Invalid trials = X appeared on other side than implied by arrow
○ Neutral trials = no arrow appeared
○ Participants had to press button as soon as X appeared (only had to respond to indicate the X appeared, not on which side it appeared on)
○ Found that Invalid trials produced the slowest response times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What was Carasco’s experiment of attention’s effect on contrast?

A
  • Participants were shown two gratings of different contrast and had to record which one had higher contrast
  • Sometimes there was a peripheral cue (a dot drawing the attention to one side)
  • When there was a peripheral cue and the contrasts were the same participants recorded the grating on the side of the cue to be of a higher contrast
  • Suggests that cued grating appeared to be higher contrast
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

How does attention affect physiological response to stimuli?

A

Neurons in the brain respond more strongly to attended stimuli than to unattended stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is the Binding Problem?

A

The issue of how an object’s individual features are combined (bound) to create a coherent percept is known as the binding problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is the Feature Integration Theory (FIT) in explaining the Binding Problem?

A

○ Suggests that binding problem is solved by attending to only one location at a time
○ Crucially, only features associated with that location are processed - only these features are bound together
○ This avoids binding features from different objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What are Illusory Conjunctions?

A

○ A prediction of FIT is that if attention is inhibited features from different objects will be incorrectly bound together
○ Treisman and Schmidt - illusory conjunctions occur
- Presented character strings very briefly (95-168ms)
followed by a noise mask
- Primary task was to report the two numbers
- Observers were asked to report coloured letters
- Observers often associated the wrong colour with
the wrong letter
- Incorrect bindings = illusory conjunctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is RM’s case regarding illusory conjunctions?

A

○ RM is a patient with parietal lobe damage
○ Has Balint’s syndrome
○ When multiple objects are present, RM has difficulty focusing attention on a single object
○ When shown two letters, each with a different colour, reported the wrong letter-colour combinations on 23% of trials, even when allowed to view the letters for 10 seconds
○ RM is very prone to illusory conjunctions because he could not focus attention on single object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is the FIT prediction of visual search?

A

○ Some forms of visual search require binding to occur
○ Eg binding is required is the target contains the same features as the distractors
○ If the target differs from the distractors only by its particular conjunctions of features - conjunction search
○ FIT predicts that in conjunction searches attention needs to be applied to each object in turn (one at a time) to determine whether or not the attended object is the target
○ These searches are predicted to be very slow
○ Other types of visual search can occur without solving the binding problem
○ If the target contains a feature that the distractors do not - feature search
○ FIT predicts that because binding does not need to occur, attention does not need to be applied to each item in turn
- Searches are predicted to be fast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is change blindness and why does it occur?

A

• Attention can determine what we remember
• If you don’t attend to it , you probably won’t remember it
• Change blindness = changes that are obvious when attention is drawn to them and are missed when attention is not drawn to them
• You can only notice a few parts of a scene at a time
• If one of those parts change you will notice it
• If another part of the scene changes you will not notice it
• Doesn’t only happen in static pictures - can also happen in real world
○ Simons and Levin
- Experimenter asks someone on the street for directions
- People carry a door pass between them and the experimenter changes
- 50% of people giving directions did not notice the change in person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What are the three factors that make perception difficult?

A

-Stimulus on the retina is ambiguous
○ Objects can be hidden or blurred
- Machines have difficulty recognising objects if the
whole object is not seen or is blurry
○ Objects look different from different viewpoints and in different poses
- Machines find it hard to recognise an object when
they appear in unexpected poses or angles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What are the competing to solutions to the problem of perception?

A
  • Structuralism

- Gestaltism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is structuralism?

A

○ Distinguishes between sensations and perceptions
○ Sensations = elementary processes occurin response to stimulation
○ Perceptions= = conscious awareness of objects and scenes
○ Structuralism claims that sensations combine to form perceptions
○ According to structuralism conscious awareness is sum of these elementary sensations
§ Contains nothing that was not already present in these elementary sensations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What is Gestaltism?

A

○ Directly contradicts structuralism
○ Conscious awareness is more than just the sum of the elementary sensations
○ Conscious awareness can have a characteristic not present in any of the elementary sensations
○ Two pieces of evidence for this claim:
- Apparent motion
□ Observer sees two stationary dots flashed in
succession
□ Although each dot is stationary observer sees
motion
□ Conscious awareness has a character
(motion) not present in elementary sensations
□ Conscious percept of motion was constructed
and was not present n the elementary
sensations
- Illusionary contours
□ Seen in locations where there are no physical
contours
□ Conscious awareness of the illusory contour
is constructed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What are the two mechanisms of Gestalism?

A

-Grouping
□ Process by which parts of an image are
perceptually bound together to form the
perceptual whole
-Segregation
□ Process by which parts of a scene are
perceptually separate to form separate
wholes/objects
-Together, grouping and segregation allow a scene to be perceptually organised into its constituent objects thereby allowing observers to make sense of the scene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What are the 6 key principles that govern Gestalt Grouping?

A

• The more of these principles that apply, the more likely components of an image will be grouped together to form a perceptual object
• Original principles
○ Good continuation
- Aligned or nearly aligned contours are
grouped together to form a single object
○ Pragnaz
- AKA principle of good simplicity
- Essentially groupings occur to make the
resultant figure as simple as possible
○ Similarity
- The more similar objects are, the more likely
they will be grouped together
○ Proximity
- The closer objects are together the more likely
they will be grouped together
○ Common fate
- Things that move together are grouped
together
• Additional 2:
○ Common region
- Elements that are in the same region of space
are grouped together
○ Uniform connectedness
- Connected regions with the same visual
characteristics (eg colour) tend to group
together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What are the principles of Gestalt Segregation

A

• Much of perceptual literature focuses on figure-ground segregation
• Objects are normally perceived as figures and the background is typically perceived as the ground
• If you can identify the figure you can identify the objects
• Regions of image are more likely to be seen as the figure if:
○ They are in front of the rest of the image
○ They are at the bottom of the image
○ They are convex
○ They are recognisable
• The more factors that combine, the more likely that it will be seen as a figure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What is Gist Perception?

A

• When scenes are flashed rapidly in front of an observer, she may not be able to identify all the objects in the scene
• But she will get an overall impression of what the scene is about
○ Gist of the scene
• Potter - studied gist perception
○ In each trial the observer was cued with a
particular scene description
○ Then she saw 16 randomly chosen scenes
each for 250 ms
○ Was asked if any of the scenes fitted the
description
○ Observers were at ear 100% accuracy
○ Showed that observers can rapidly perceive a
scene’s gist
• Fei Fei investigated what the minimum scene exposure time is need to perceive a scene’s gist
○ Observers were presented with just one
scene followed by a mask
○ Were then asked to describe what they had
seen
○ Reported that the longer the stimulus
presentation time, the more detailed and
accurate the description
○ People could start to perceive aspects of the
scene at about 27ms but perceptions were
not very detailed

131
Q

What can motion perception help us do?

A
○ Break camouflage
		○ Attract attention
		○ Segregate objects from their backgrounds
		○ Interpret events
		○ Determine the structure of objects
		○ Determine what actions people are 
                   performing
132
Q

How are breaking camouflage, attracting attention, segregate objects from their backgrounds used, and why are they significant?

A

○ A camouflaged animal can be virtually invisible until it moves
○ When it moves the camouflage is broken and it attracts attention
○ It also helps us segregate the animal from the background

133
Q

How does motion perception help us interpret events?

A

○ Can infer causality relationships and social relationships by seeing how objects interact

134
Q

How does motion perception help us discern structure from motion?

A

○ Can help us determine the shape of a moving object

§ Kinetic depth effect

135
Q

How does motion perception help us interpret actions?

A

○ Static poses are often ambiguous, but when someone moves their actions and intentions are often made clear
- Demonstrated using point-light walkers
□ Placing lights on a person’s joints
and getting them to do actions
□ Videoed so only the lights can be
seen
□ Humans are so good at processing
motion stimulii they can often guess
what action the person was doing

136
Q

What is it called when one can no longer perceive motion?

A

Akinetopsia

137
Q

What might people with Akinetopsia struggle with?

A
○ Pouring cup of tea
			§ Can't tell when it will overflow
		○ Crossing street
			§ Can't tell whether cars are moving
		○ Following speech
			§ Trouble detecting motion of the mouth
	• Examples in every day life
Ship on horizon is too far away to detect the motion
138
Q

When do we perceive motion?

A

-When there is real motion
-When nothing is moving (illusory motion)
• Motion aftereffects
• Induced motion

139
Q

What are types of illusory motion and some examples?

A

○ Static image
- Rotating snake illusion (concentric circles that
appear to rotate even htough they’re stationary)
- Don’t know why it appears to move
- Percept of motion is caused by contrast of the
colours
○ Apparent motion
- Series of stationary images presented in
succession to give impression of motion
- Eg two dots flashing gives impression of one dot
moving between the points
- Only works if dots are lose together
- If alternation rate is too fast, motion perception
does not occur
- For it to occur, as separation increases, alternation
rate needs to decrease
- Known as Korte’s Third Law of Apparent
Motion
- Mostly insensitive to colour changes
- But colour can still be used to disambiguate
ambiguous motion (eg if two of the same objects
are different colours and flash to different
positions, you will see their motion separately)

140
Q

What is an example of motion aftereffects?

A

○ Waterfall illusion:
§ After staring at a waterfall for several minutes, then looking at the stationary rockface, the rockface will appear to move upwards

141
Q

What is an example of induced motion?

A

○ Moving background (or object) causes stationary object to appear to move

142
Q

What is motion induces blindness?

A

The effect of motion making things seem to disappear

143
Q

How does motion make it difficult to notice changes?

A

○ Motion induced change blindness
○ Normally colour changes attract attention because of transient signals associated with the change
○ When things are moving, there are transient signals associated with all objects not just the ones changing
○ Attention is no longer drawn preferentially to the changing objects so changes are not noticed

144
Q

How are motion illusions significant?

A

can inform us of the process underlying motion perception

145
Q

Describe the Footsteps motion illusion

A

○ Yellow and blue rectangle placed with yellow above blow in front of black and white lines
○ As they cross the lines, the rectangles appear to take it in turns speeding up and slowing down when looking at the focus crosses
○ Happens because when end of yellow rectangle is over the white line, contrast at the leading edge is low and the contrast of the leading blue edge is high
○ When end of yellow is on black contrast with the leading edge is high and contrast with the leading blue edge is low
○ When one has low contrast, the other has low contrast
○ When contrast is high they appear to move faster
○ Shows that contrast affects motion perception

146
Q

Describe the Aperture problem

A

○ If you can’t see end of a line the movement of the line is ambiguous
○ Consequently, if the ends of a line are hidden by an ‘aperture’ the motion of the line is determine by the terminators (the points at which the line meets the aperture)
○ When terminators move horizontally, line appears to move horizontally, when they move vertically the line appears to move vertically

147
Q

Describe the Barber Pole illusion

A

○ Aperture problem applies
○ Lines curve around a cylinder creating virtual terminators that move vertically
○ Lines themselves appear to move vertically

148
Q

What is the function of colour perception?

A
  • Suggested that colour vision evolved to help humans find things
    • Can also help make judgements
    • And poisonous animals
    • And to attract mates
149
Q

What is visible light?

A

electromagnetic radiation with wavelengths varying 400nm - 700nm

150
Q

How is the colour of an opaque object determined?

A

Light cannot pass through it, its colour is determined by the colour it reflects

151
Q

How is colour of transparent objects determined?

A

Determined by the colour it transmits (ie that passes through it)

152
Q

How does mixing paint work

A

○ Blue paint absorbs red light but reflects blue and green light
○ Yellow paint absorbs blue light but reflects red and green light
○ Mixing blue and yellow results in a mixture absorbing both red and blue light but reflects green light - looks green

153
Q

How does mixing light work?

A

○ Mixing red and green makes yellow light

○ Mixing blue and yellow light - get white (because it contains blue green and red)

154
Q

How are colours categorised according to the Munsell colour system?

A

○ Hue (colour)
○ Value (lightness)
Chroma (saturation)

155
Q

What is the trichromatic theory of colour vision?

A

• In retina - photoreceptors called rods and cones
• Rods cannot distinguish between colours - active only at low-light levels
• Three types of cones (each type responds to different wavelengths)
○ S cones (419nm) - blue –> short wavelengths
○ M cones (531nm) - green –> medium wavelengths
○ L cones (558nm) - red –> large wavelengths
• By comparing the relative activities of these three types of cones humans can distinguish between colours
• If L cone is most active - mainly see red

156
Q

How does colour matching work with regards to the Trichromatic theory of colour vision?

A

○ Because we only have 3 cones any coloured ligth can be made using the three lights - red, blue, green
○ Even though two patches of light may not have same spectral composition, they will appear to have the same colour
○ Physically different stimuli that appear the same are called metamers

157
Q

What are the two main types of colour deficiency?

A

○ Monochromatism

○ Dichromatism

158
Q

What is monochomatism

A

§ Affects about 1 in 100 000 people
§ Usually have no functioning cones
§ Only functioning rods
§ Truly colour blind - see the world in shades of grey
§ Very sensitive to light - need dark glasses during the day

159
Q

What is dichromatism?

A
  • Lacking of the three types of cones
  • Three types of dichromatism
    □ Protanopia
    - Lack L cones
    - Cannot distinguish red and green
    - 1% males
    - 0.02% females
    □ Deuteranopia
    - Lack M cones
    -Cannot distinguish red and green
    - 1% males
    - 0.01% females
    □ Tritanopia
    - Lack S cones
    - Cannot distinguish blue and green
    - 0.002% males
    - 0.001% females
  • Because dichromats lack a cone type, for their perception it is possible to match a patch of any coloured light using just two lights
  • Unilateral dichromats - normal vision in one eye and dichromatic vision in the other
    □ Can give an insight as to what dichromats see in comparison to normal vision
    □ Protanopes and Deuteranopes (cannot distinguish between red and green) see world in shades of blue and yellowish green
    □ Tritanopes see the world in shades of blue and red
160
Q

What is the opponent-process theory of colour vision?

A

• Doesn’t replace trichromatic theory, merely supplements it
• What colour we perceive is not only determined by cones in our retina
○ Singals from these cones are processed by the cortex where they are combined into three colour opponent channels
§ Red-green
§ Blue-yellow
§ White-black

161
Q

What is the psychophysical evidence for the colour channels proposed by the opponent-process theory of colour vision?

A
  • After images
    □ When you stare at a colour for a while (eg red),
    that colour’s processing channel will get fatigued
    and the opposite colour in the colour channel
    (green) can be more active to compensate -
    causing you to see green where there was red
    □ Evidence that colour channels exist
  • Impossible colours
    □ Some colour combinations are impossible
    □ Can have bluish red (purple) and yellowish red
    (orange), yellowish green and bluish green
    □ Can’t have redish green or bluish yellow
    □ Adding blue to yellow light - becomes green not
    bluish yellow
    □ Adding red to green light - becomes yellow not reddish green
    □ These colours are impossible because they are opponent colours
162
Q

What is colour constancy?

A

• The colour light an object reflects is determined not only by its reflectance but also by the colour of the light shining on it
• If white is shone on a green jumper, green jumper will predominantly reflect green light
• But if light shone on jumper is red then the jumper will appear predominantly red because the jumper will reflect predominantly red light
• Even though green objects absorbe red light, if you shine enough red light on it it will reflect some
• If you only shine red light on it it can only reflect red light
• Light reflected by an object is determined by the product of its reflectance and the illumination
• Why do we continue to see a green jumper even when it is reflecting red?
○ We habituate the colour
○ If entire scene is under red light we habituate to red so everything appears greener than it otherwise would
○ Habituation is not large enough to explain colour constancy
• There are at least two ways of achieving colour constancy:
○ Habituation
○ Discounting the illuminant

163
Q

What are oculomotor cues?

A

○ Cues to do with the eyes
○ Where are the eyes focussed
○ How have they accommodated
○ Cues based on our ability to sense the position of our eyes

164
Q

What are the two types of oculomotor cues?

A
  • Binocular convergence
    □ Objects that are close to face make eyes
    converge (cross-eye)
    □ By estimating the degree of convergence you can
    estimate how far away an object is
  • Accomodation
    □ Lens changing shape to focus on an object
    depending on how close/far away it is
165
Q

How do we perceive depth?

A

Oculomotor cues
Monocular cues
Binocular cues

166
Q

What are monocular cues?

A

○ Cues that you can pick up with one eye shut

167
Q

What are the three main types of monocular cues?

A

Accommodation
Pictorial cues
Movement-based cues

168
Q

What are pictorial cues? (in relation to monocular cues?)

A

□ 7 types
- Occlusion
◊ Something behind partially hidden by another
(eg when it is behind)
- Relative height
- Familiar and relative size
- Perspective convergence
◊ Parallel lines appear to converge
- Atmospheric perspective
◊ Degree to which an atmosphere obscures
something gives and indication for how far
away it is
- Texture gradient
◊ Things close up can bee seen in detail
- Shadows
◊ Humans assume light comes from above, so if a shape is lit from above and shaded from the bottom it looks like it comes out, but if it is shaded from the top it looks like It goes in

169
Q

What are movement based cues (as a form of monocular cues)?

A

□ Motion parallax
- Objects closer to a moving train (when looking out
from a train) appear to move faster than those far
away
- Because closer objects require retina to move
more than objects further away when moving the
same distance
□ Deletion and accretion
- Some things pass and some things appear when moving - the rate of deletion/accretion gives and idea for how far away they are

170
Q

What are binocular cues?

A

○ But point of fixation does affect absolute disparity
○ Whichever object is being fixated on falls at the centre of the left and right retinas
○ Therefore left and right images of the object fall onto corresponding parts of the retina
○ All objects that lie on the horopter fall on corresponding parts of the retina
§ Horopter = a plane containing all the points that will fall on corresponding parts of the two retinas)
○ In front of horopter = appears to the right of horopter in left eye, and left of horopter in right eye
○ Behind horopter = appears to the left of horopter in left eye view, right of horopter in right eye view

171
Q

What is the correspondence problem?

A
  • Retinal images can be ambiguous
    • If there are multiple identitcal objects in the scene it can be hard to figure out which images in the left retinal image should be associated with which images on the right retinal image
    • This is known as the correspondence problem
172
Q

How do we perceive size?

A

Size constancy

Size illusions

173
Q

What does size constancy refer to?

A

○ The phenomenon where an object’s apparent size does not depend on its physical distance
○ When an object is far away it appears to be the same size when it is closer even though visual angle is much larger in the latter
○ To achieve size constancy the observer needs to consider both the size of the retinal image and the distance of the object
○ S = K ( R x D )
- Where S = apparent size of and object, K is a constant, R is the size of the retinal image, D is the distance to the object

-Two factors
-Angular size
-Visual angle and object subtends
-The closer and object is to a person the larger
its angualr size
- Perceived depth

174
Q

What are size illusions?

A

○ Most size illusions are caused by causing people to mistake the distance to an object so that it appears larger or smaller than it actually is
○ If an object appears closer than it really is, it will appear smaller than it really is and the vice versa

175
Q

How did Holoway and boring investigate how observers accurately estimate the size of objects?

A

○ Investigated how observers accurately estimate the size of objects
○ In particular how depth cues can affect size judgements
- Observers sat in intersection of 2 corridors, and
could view a test circle in one corridor and a
comparison circle in another
- Task was to adjust the size of the comparison circle
to match the size of the test circle
- Test circles were different sizes but were presented
at different distances so their angular size was
always the same
- In condition 1, they could determine the depth of
the test patch using binocular disparity, motion
parallax and shadows
- In condition 2 observers viewed the test circle with
one eye to remove binocular disparity cues
- In condition 3 observers viewed the test circle
through a peephole to remove motion parallax cues
- Condition 4 - in addition to viewing circle through a
peephole, drapes were used to remove shadows
- Found that condition 1 estimated the actual size of
the test circle relatively well (albeit slightly
overcompensating), condition 2 also very accurate
at guessing the test circle size, condition 3 had
great difficulty estimating the actual size, and
condition 4 misperceived the size (underestimating)
even more
○ Therefore, when there are sufficient depth cues, the size of the test patch can be accurately estimated, but when there are insufficient depth cues, apparent size of test patch is biased towards visual angle

176
Q

What is the physical definition of sound?

A

sound is pressure changes in the air or other medium

177
Q

What is the perceptual definition of sound?

A

sound is the experience we have when we hear

178
Q

Describe sound as pressure changes

A

○ Pressure waves move through the air at 340m/s and 1500m/s in water
○ However only the pressure wave is moving
○ Each air molecule is oscillating in place to create regions of high and low pressure

179
Q

What is a pure tone?

A

○ A pure tone occurs when the pressure change follows a sine wave

180
Q

Describe frequency

A

○ The higher the frequency the higher the pitch
○ 1 Hz = 1 oscillation per second
○ Humans can hear frequencies ranging from around 20 Hz to about 20 000Hz

181
Q

Describe amplitude

A

○ The greater the amplitude, the louder the sound seems
○ Measured in decibels (dB)
○ dB= 20 x logarithm(pressure change/reference pressure)
○ Reference pressure is usually set to 20 micropascals

182
Q

What are complex tones?

A

○ Combination of different-frequency sine waves
○ The 200Hz frequency is known as the fundamental frequency and is also known as the first harmonic
○ 400 Hz = second harmonic
○ 600 Hz = third harmonic
○ 800Hz = fourth harmonic
○ Because the first harmonic is 200Hz, this means that the wave repeats every 5 ms

183
Q

What are the perceptual aspects of sound?

A

• The greater the amplitude, the louder it seems
• However, the actual loudness depends on the frequency
• Perceptual loudness is is measured in phons
○ Units of loudness for pure tones
○ Can’t measure with a machine
• Loudness is also determined by frequency - a sound with frequency of 800Hz will sound louder than a sound with the same amplitude and a frequency either lower or higher
○ More sensitive to frequencies at about 800Hz

184
Q

What is pitch?

A

-perceptual aspect of sound
○ For a pure tone, pitch is determined by a frequency
○ For a complex tone, pitch is usually determined by the fundamental frequency
- Pitch is a psychological quantity, not a physical
quantity so it depends on a number of factors
- Cannot describe pitch in terms of Hz, instead
assign musical notes
○ All notes of the same musical letter are a multiple of the same frequency
- They sound similar
□ Have the same chroma
- Tone height increases as one moves from left to
right on a piano keyboard
○ Pitch has two variables
- Chroma
□ Cyclic in that neighbouring letters of the same type sound similar
- Tone height

185
Q

What does the missing fundamental refer to?

A

○ For many sounds, their frequency components are multiples of a particular frequency
- Fundamental frequency
○ Since all the harmonics are multiples of the first harmonic, they will repeat at 200Hz
○ However, the complex tone will continue to repeat at the fundamental frequency even when the fundamental frequency is absent
- Because all the other frequencies of the tone are
mutiples of the fundamental frequency
- Humans will perceive the presence of the
fundamental frequency even when it’s not there
- ‘Missing fundamental’
○ The missing fundamental determines the pitch of a complex tone
○ This is why you can hear over the telephone a man’s voice corresponding to 100Hz even though telephones do not produce sounds lower than 300Hz

186
Q

What is timbre?

A

-part of perceptual aspect of sound
○ When two musical instruments play the same note they do not sound the same
- Because in addition to playing the fundamental
frequency, each instrument plays many of the
harmonics of the fundamental frequency
- Amplitude of these harmonics will differ across
instruments
- Causing different timbres

187
Q

What are periodic sounds?

A

○ Musical sounds are periodic - meaning the wave forms repeat
- Two types
□ Simple (single sinewaves)
□ Complex (multiple sinewaves)

188
Q

What are aperiodic sounds?

A
waveforms that don't repeat
	- Eg door slamming shut/gunshot
	- Called aperiodic sounds
		□ Two types
			- Continuous (noise)
			- Transient (pulse)
189
Q

What is auditory localisation based on?

A
  • binaural cues - both ears

* monaural cues - one ear

190
Q

What are the factors of binaural cues?

A

-Interaural time difference
-Time difference between sound geting to one
ear relative to the other
-Interaural level difference
-Amplitude of the sound arriving at one each
compared with the other
-For high frequency sounds there can be a large
interaural level difference between the two ears
due to the sound shadow caused by the head
-For low frequency sounds, the interaural level
difference will be much less
○ Cone of confusion
- At any two points connected by a circumference
line on the surface of this cone have the same
difference in distance to the two ears
- Thus they will have the same interaural time
difference and interaural level difference
- So binaural cues cannot be used to distinguish
between the two points - need to use monaural
cues

191
Q

Describe monaural cues

A

○ Sound coming from different directions bounces off different parts of the pinna (outer ear) before entering ear canal
○ Consequently sound acquires characteristic frequency notches that depend on its elevation
○ Can be used to determine the elevation of the source

192
Q

Why don’t we hear echoes all the time?

A

○ If you hear the same sound twice with a temporal separation of 5-20ms you will not register the second sound
○ However if the temporal separation between the two sounds is more than about a 10th of a second, you will hear the two sounds separately

193
Q

What are the four factors determining the quality of architectural acoustics?

A
  • Reverberation time
    □ Time it takes for sound to decrease by 60dB
    □ For a concert hall it should be about 2 seconds
    □ For an opera hall ideally it would be around 1.5
    seconds to make the voices more distinguishable
  • Intimacy time
    □ Temporal difference between when the direct
    sound arrives and when the first indirect sound
    arrives
    □ Concert halls with good acoustics typically have
    intimacy time of 20ms
  • Bass ratio
    □ Measured for indirect sound
    □ The ratio of low frequencies to middle frequencies
    for the indirect sound
    □ Want high bass ratio
  • Spaciousness factor
    □ Ratio of indirect sound to total sound
    □ Greater the proportion of indirect sound the
    greater the spaciousness factor
    □ Want a high spaciousness factor
194
Q

What is the significance of pillows in concert halls?

A
  • When concert hall is full, people absorb a lot of sound
  • If a concert hall is designed to sound very good when it is full it might sound bad when it’s empty
  • Solution: have pillows where each pillow absorbs the same amount of sound as the average person
195
Q

How do you hear the sounds of different instruments separately when the sounds arrive at your ears at the same time?

A

○ Five cues:
- Location
□ Because the instruments will not be playing
exactly the same notes at exactly the same
time, ou will be able to hear that they occupy
separate locations
□ Make use of interaural level differences
□ Very strong cue for segregation
□ However, it is not necessary
□ Even if all the sound were to come from just
one location (eg speaker) you would still be
able to segregate the musicians
- Onset Time
□ If the two sounds start at different times,
chances are the originate from different
sources
□ If two sounds start at the same time they
probably come from the same source
- Timbre and pitch
□ It’s easy to segregate musical instruments that
have different timbres
□ Even instruments with the same timbre an be
separated on a basis of pitch
- Auditory continuity
□ Tones interrupted by silence are heard as
distinct
□ Tones interrupted by noise are heard as
continuous
□ Humans assume tones continue through the
noise
- Experience
□ If two melodies are played simultaneously,
you are more likely to segregate them if you
know the two melodies separately
□ Similarly, if you know what a particular person or particular animal sounds like, you are more likely to detect the presence of that as background noise

196
Q

How many neurons are there in the brain?

A

• 100 billion neurons in the brain - 1 000 000 billion synapses

197
Q

Historically, what has the limit been to understanding the link between mind and brain?

A

○ Initially thought heart was seat of the mind
○ Changes to out understanding of the brain were limited by
- Religious/moral view
- Limited methods
- Reliance on chance discoveries
- Scientific conservatism

198
Q

What is Wernicke’s aphasia?

A

-a disorder of language comprehension
○ Inability to comprehend what was being said to
them, but could otherwise prodcue language
○ Lesions in left temporal lobe
○ Implies the two areas need to be used together for
language abilities

199
Q

What are the limitations of clinical neuropsychology?

A

○ Patients often difficult to test intensively
○ Problem of replicability in single cases
○ Assumption that local lesions have local effects (not true for broca’s and Wernicke’s area)
○ No control of lesion size or location in the brain (experiments of nature)

200
Q

What did electrical stimulation of animals’ brains reveal?

A

-precise localisation of cortical function
○ Fritsch & Hitzig - electrically stimulated different
parts of the frontal cortex in a dog
○ Induced contractions of specific muscles on
opposite side of the body
○ Surgical removal of these motor regions of the
cortex led to impairments of actions performed by
the relevant limb
○ Electrical activity was not only sufficient, but
necessary for controlling movement

201
Q

What did ablation studies in non-human primates reveal?

A

-hippocampus role in memory
○ Deliberate lesions allow a fairly high degree of
precision
○ Eg Limbic system contains a number of small
structures including hippocampus and amygdala
- Ablations in monkeys show only the hippocampus playing a role in learning and memory
○ Recall HM
- Bilateral medial temporal lobectomy (removing
hippocampus)
- Left him densely amnesic

202
Q

What did Moniz reveal about the frontal lobes?

A

-linked to personality
○ Introduced prefrontal leucotomy (lobotomy) for the
relief of psychiatric disorders
○ Surgical procedure was based on reports by Yale
researchers that removing the frontal lobes of a
chimpanzee made it calmer and more cooperative

203
Q

What are the consequences of disconnecting the frontal lobes - prefrontal leucotomy(/lobotomy)?

A
○ Initial impression of improvements
	- Led to widespread use
	- Subsequently shown to be ineffective
○ Profound personality consequences
	- Apathy
	- Emotional unresponsiveness
	- Disinhibition
	- Inability to plan
204
Q

What was involved in a prefrontal leucotomy?

A

○ Popularised by Walter Freeman
- Patients did not need to undergo surgical procedur
□ Patients would be rendered unconscious by
electric shock
□ Ice pick placed behind eye against bone at
the back of the eye socket
□ Ice pick would pierce frontal lobes, and
moving it backwards and forwards would
sever connections between frontal lobes
- 40 000 operations in USA

205
Q

What are some alternatives to the prefrontal leucotomy?

A

• Electroconvulsive therapy for treatment of psychiatric illnesses
○ Based on knowledge that seizures seemed to
relieve psychiatric symptoms
○ ECT originally used to treat a range of mental
illness
- Now used to treat severe depression
○ Mechanism of action is unknown
- Electrical stimulation of frontal lobes needs to
be strong enough to cause seizure
• TMS - more causal
○ Generates strong magnetic field which travels
down into brain tissue
○ Can alter brain function in specific area of brain
under coil
○ Can be used clinically
- Disrupts frontal lobe activity to provide relief
for people with psychiatric disturbance

206
Q

What is an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

A

○ One of the main diagnostic tests for epilepsy
○ Sign that person is having a seizure: all neurons are firing in a coordinated way - normal brain activity requires different brain modules activated at different times
○ Not clear where brain activity changes are happening across the brain

207
Q

What were some technical advancements caused by the recording of action potentials in giant axon of Atlantic squid?

A

○ Hodgkin & Huxley - recorded action potentials in giant axon of Atlantic squid
○ A subsequent explosion of research in the following decades was based on technical advancements
- Development of microelectrodes
- High-gain electronic amplifiers
- Oscilloscopes
○ Much of sensory and motor cortex was mapped using these methods in animal studies
○ Hubel and Wiesel mapped the development and functional organisation of the visual system

208
Q

What are two brain imaging methods that reveal brain structure?

A

• Computerised tomographic (CT) scanning reveals brain structures
○ First introduced commercially in 1983
• Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) reveals brain structure
○ 3D computer reconstruction
○ More detail in brain itself than CT
○ MRI physics
- Hydrogen is affected by magnetic fields
□ Hydrogen has a single proton
□ Proton spins around axis
□ Axis of spin is usually random
□ Axis aligns with magnetic fields
□ Introduce a radiofrequency pulse - axis of
rotation in every atom moves by the
same amount
□ Turning off radiofrequency pulse - atoms
relax back into alignment with magnetic
field
- Give off energy which is picked up
by detectors in MRI machine
□ Tissue that is less dense has more water -
large amount of hydrogen
- Amount of energy given off is directly
related to density of tissue in that part
of body

209
Q

What are some benefits of imagining methods that reveal brain structure?

A

-allow us to look into the functioning of the brain when someone is experiencing functional loss to see if there is a structural correlate of that brain function
○ Can use them in real time - don’t need patients to be dead

210
Q

What is a brain imaging technique that reveals brain function?

A

-functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging (fMRI)
○ Cognitive processes use energy
- Production of energy uses oxygen from blood
○ Oxygenated blood
- Weakly diamagnetic
- Doesn’t distort surrounding magnetic field
○ Deoxygenated blood
- Paramagnetic
- Distort the surrounding magnetic field
○ Blood vessels became more visible as blood
oxygen is decreased
- BOLD effect
○ Provides fine spatial detail - can locate activity
relatively well
○ Takes a long time though - not very good for
resolving quick changes in brain activity

211
Q

What is the Blood Oxygen Level Dependency (BOLD) effect?

A

-reflects anticipated brain activity
○ Dominates fMRI studies that map human brain
funciton
○ When brain is about to become active -
oversupply of oxygenated blood in anticipation
that the brain is going to need more oxygen to
support the activity
○ Neurons can’t use up all of the oxygenated blood as it would at rest - see an increase of oxygenated blood relative to deoxygenated blood - BOLD effect

212
Q

What are some limitations of brain imaging techniques?

A

○ While they do provide some correlation between brain activity in one part of the brain and cognitive function, doesn’t necessarily prove causality
- Why we use TMS: can infer causality

213
Q

What is reflexive behaviour?

A
  • behaviour that doesn’t need conscious thought

• Purpose: to respond quickly to something potentially damaging to us

214
Q

How does reflexive behaviour work?

A

○ Axon of sensory neuron (conscious signal of pain - eg when you touch something hot)
○ signal is carried from receptors back through the limb to a neuron that projects into the spinal cord
○ some signals go out from the spinal cord to the brain (we know from the conscious experience of heat), but the semata-sensory neuron comes into close proximity with an interneuron in the spinal cord itself
○ if there is enough activity in the semata-sensory neuron, it will excite the interneuron
○ interneuron then comes into close proximity with a motor neuron at the same level of the spinal cord
○ axon of this neuron projects out forming synapses on the limb’s muscle
○ if motor neuron is excited it causes a release of the chemical (neurotransmitter) onto muscle fibre
○ If that happens, muscle contracts - causing withdrawal from source of pain

215
Q

How can we control reflexive behaviour?

A

○ We know that signals get up to cortex because we have conscious experience of pain
○ We might be able to use current knowledge of situation to influence activity of motor neuron
○ If we don’t want to drop something - opportunity for signal to descend back from cortex down through spinal cord
○ That signal could come down from an axon from a neuron in the brain and excite an interneuron at same level in spinal cord
○ While other interneuron might excite the motor neuron, this interneuron might inhibit it
- Whether or not motor neuron fires might depend
on level of excitation coming through semato-
sensory neuron through the withdrawal pathway
and the amount of excitation coming down from
axon in the brain with an inhibitory influence
- More excitation coming through withdrawal reflex -
firing of motor neuron and withdrawal from source
of pain
- If inhibitory effect is stronger, will not withdraw
from source of pain

216
Q

How is a neuron designed to carry signals?

A
  • Signal originates from axon hillock
  • Myelin sheath are needed to electrical signal doesn’t leak out
  • Mitochondria - responsible for releasing a chemical that’s used as energy within the cell
217
Q

Describe the neuron cell membrane

A
  • Comprised of lipid sheath
    □ Physically separates fluid inside neuron from fluid
    outside neuron
    □ Also provides electrical insulation between the
    two fluids
218
Q

What are the purposes of glial cells?

A
  • Provide physical support (astrocyte)
  • Assist with chemical transport to and from neurons (oligodendrocyte and schwann cell)
  • Provide insulation
  • Destroy and remove neurons that have died from injury or old age (microglia)
  • Oligodendrocyte found in central nervous system, schwann cells found in peripheral nervous system
  • Microglia - also play role in inflammatory responses in infection in the brain
219
Q

What is the resting membrane potential?

A
  • Small electrodes can be inserted into cell body of neurons
  • If there is another electrode in the extracellular space, can connect both electrodes to an amplifier and measure the voltage difference between inside and outside of cell
  • Sending signal to an oscilloscope - can display the voltage difference
    □ Find that inside of neurons have slight negative
    charge
    □ Called resting membrane potential (-70mV)
  • All cells must maintain resting membrane potential to be able to generate electrical signals
  • Can use electrode to inject current into neuron - cause a shift in membrane potential in neuron
    □ Using this to make membrane potential closer to
    0mV - called depolarisation
  • Depolarising membrane potential is important step in generating electrical signals that propagate neural networks in the brain
220
Q

Describe how ions move across the axon membrane

A

○ Extracellular space is largerly salty water
- Salt dissolves into water breaking up into positively
charged sodium ions, and negatively charged
chloride ions
○ Inside axon, abundance of positively charged potassium
○ Number of structures in cell membrane
- Under the right circumstances, these channels will
open up and allow ions to move across cell
membrane
- Because ions are charged, when they move across cell membrane it will cause changes in the resting membrane potential

221
Q

What is the action potential?

A
  • When there is enough depolarisation at start of axon, a
    series of sodium channels open automatically and allow
    sodium to enter axon
  • Because sodium has positive charge, sudden increase
    in positive charge where gates are
  • Voltage can go to zero and increase - become more
    positively charged just at that location
  • After a while, sodium gates close, and there is a
    reversal in membrane potential at that location in axon
    -As soon as sodium gates close, new set of gates open
    up - allow potassium to flow out into extracellular space
    -Makes inside more negatively charged
    -If we cross -50mV threshold - automatically open and
    close sodium and potassium channels
    ○ In between locations where sodium and potassium
    are along the axon are the myelin sheaths
    ○ As the active current moves through one section
    of myelin sheath, only loses a small amount of
    current, but still is above the threshold - allowing
    for a renewal of the active current at the next
    break in the myelin sheath all the way down the
    axon
    - Ensures electrical signal propagates all the
    way down the length of the axon
    □ Called Saltatory conduction of AP
222
Q

What is the all-or-none law of the action potential?

A

○ No matter how much current is injected, so long as it crosses the threshold, the AP amplitude will remain the same

223
Q

What is the Rate Law of the action potential?

A

○ Neurons can produce AP without stimulus
○ When stimulus is applied there is a surge of Aps produced
- The size of the surge (ie the amount of Aps
produced is proportional to the strength of the
stimulus)
○ The importance of the signal coming down na axon is communicated by the number of AP rather than the amplitude

224
Q

Describe Multiple Sclerosis and how it occurs

A

• Begins with visual problems, numbness, weakness of
the limbs
• Ultimately leads to paraplegia, slurred speech,
problems with vision and eye movements
• Frequent attacks followed by quiescence or remission
• Autoimmune disorder that affects the insulation
covering nerve cells (myelin sheath)
○ Means action potentials can’t be carried down the
whole way of the neuron
• Effects of myelin damage in MS
○ AP is generated with normal amplitude, but signal
begins to leak out of axon as it travels down
demyelinated axon
- No longer enough depolarisation at next Node of
Ranvier to renew the AP

225
Q

What are two types of neurons?

A

• Presynaptic neuron
○ Axon associated with neuron sending out
message
• Postsynaptic neuron
○ Neuron receiving message on dendrites

226
Q

What are two types of synapse membranes?

A
• Presynaptic membrane 
	○ Membrane surrounding presynaptic neuron (lipid 
           layer)
• Postsynaptic membrane
	○ Membrane on postsynaptic neuron
227
Q

What is the dendritic spine?

A

○ Shape of dendrite which conforms to the axon terminal
○ Ensures physical separation between pre and post synaptic neurons is very small
- Because AP releases a chemical which has to travel across gap - if gap was large that would take a long time

228
Q

What are synaptic vesicles?

A

○ Contain chemical neurotransmitter

229
Q

What is the synaptic cleft?

A

○ Gap between axon and dendrite

230
Q

What are microtubules?

A

○ Used to guide the vesicles down to axon terminal to release zone
• Release zone
○ Immediately adjacent to the synaptic neuron
membrane

231
Q

What happens when an action potential occurs?

A

○ Vesicle contains neurotransmitter molecules
○ AP triggers vesicle to move toward cell membrane
○ Followed by fusion of the two membranes (of vesicle and presynaptic membrane)
○ When they fuse, it means the intracellular space of vesicle is one with extracellular space of synpase
○ Allows neurotransmitter molecules to be released into synaptic cleft

232
Q

What does the neurotransmitter doing after being released into synaptic cleft?

A

○ Ionotropic receptors - structures in cell membrane that have their own binding sites, and are ordinarily closed, but when the right neurotransmitter attaches to the binding site, it opens the channels allowing ions to move across the cell membrane
○ There are sodium, potassium, and chloride ionotropic channels
○ When sodium channels are open - excitatory postsynaptic potential (postsynaptic neuron becomes more positive to more excited) (EPSP)
○ When potassium gates are open, potassium leave the postsynaptic neuron, making it more negative, and causing inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)
○ When chloride channels are open, chloride moves into postsynaptic neuron, so it makes it more negative, therefore IPSP

233
Q

What is the effect of the excitatory post synaptic potential (EPSP)?

A

○ Depolarise the postsynaptic cell membrane

○ Increase the likelihood that an AP will be triggered in post synaptic neuron (don’t always cause them though)

234
Q

What is the effect of the inhibitory post synaptic potential (IPSP)?

A

○ Hyperpolarise the postsynaptic cell membrane
○ Decrease likelihood that an AP will be triggered
○ Combined effect of IPSP and EPSPs is called neutral integration

235
Q

What are the effects of drugs on synaptic functions?

A

○ Drugs act upon Central nervous system in different ways
○ Most drugs that affect behaviour do so by acting on synapses
○ Two categories of drugs affecting synaptic transmission
- Agonists
□ Facilitate activity of postsynaptic neurons
- Antagonists
□ Inhibit activity of postsynaptic neurons

236
Q

What are Agonist drugs?

A

○ Can increase the synthesis of neurotransmitter molecules
- Increase likelihood that vesicles have large amount
of neurotransmitter so that when they fuse, we get
an increased amount of neurotransmitter to
influence postsynaptic neuron
- Eg L-dopa for parkinsons disease
○ Can increase the release of the neurotransmitter molecules from terminal buttons
- Making larger numbers of neurotransmitter fuse
with membrane of postsynaptic membrane
○ Can bind to postsynaptic receptors and directly activate them or increase the effects of neurotransmitter molecules
- Eg nicotine, which stimulates acetylcholine
rceeptors

237
Q

What are Antagonist drugs?

A

○ Can block the synthesis of neurotransmitter molecules
- Meaning there is less neurotransmitter in each
vesicle
- Eg PCPA inhibits synthesis of serotonin
○ Can block the release of neurotransmitter from terminal buttons
- Botulinum toxin blocks release of acetylcholine
○ Can bind to postsynaptic receptors (covering them up) and block the effect of neurotransmitter molecules

238
Q

What are the types of neurotransmitters?

A

• Amino acids
○ Glutamate & GABA
○ Particularly associated with excitation and
inhibition in nervous system
• Monoamines
○ Two categories:
- Catechloamines
□ Dopamine
□ Norepinephrine
- Indolamines
□ Serotonin
○ Play a role in regulating complex brain function -
as well as mood and reward systems
• Acetylcholine
- Associated with muscle activity

239
Q

What are the neural axes?

A

○ Rostral-caudal (from nose to tail of dog)

○ From back to stomach - dorsal-ventral

240
Q

What does rostral mean?

A

Anterior/Toward beak

241
Q

What does Caudal mean?

A

Posterior/towards tail

242
Q

What does dorsal (superior) mean?

A

Towards back

243
Q

What does Ventral (inferior) mean?

A

Toward belly

244
Q

What does lateral mean

A

toward the side

245
Q

What does medial/mesial mean?

A

toward midline

246
Q

What does ipsilateral mean?

A

same side

247
Q

What does contralateral mean?

A

opposite side

248
Q

What is the peripheral nervous system?

A

spinal and cranial nerves
Made up of:
○ Sematic system
- Connects central system to voluntary muscles
○ Motor system
○ Autonomic system
- Connects central system to non-voluntary
muscles and glands
□ Sympathetic system
- Arousing, prepares body for activity,
uses energy
□ Parasympathetic system
- Calming, prepares body for
restoration of energy

249
Q

What is the central nervous system made up of?

A

brain and spinal cord
Meninges
• Cerebral spinal fluid (CSF)

250
Q

What are meninges?

A

○ Three-layered sheath surrounding brain and spinal cord
- Dura mater (outer-most layer)
□ Doesn’t conform to folds of brain’s surface
- Arachnoid mater
□ Middle layer
□ Fine structures creating space - provides
opportunity for cerebral spinal fluid to flow
between dura and brain itself
□ Not found in the Peripheral nervous system
- Pia mater
□ Conforming to surface of the brain
□ Level closest to brain

251
Q

What is the cerebral spinal fluid?

A

○ Only found in central nervous system
○ Clear fluid like blood plasma
○ Purpose is to reduce shock to brain from head
movements or other collisions
○ Floating the brain in this fluid reduces effective brain
weight from 1.5 to 80g
- Reduces chance that brain will bump into skull
○ Produced in each hemisphere in ventricles
- Fluid from both ventricles then passes through a
number of narrow passages to a third ventricle, and
from there through down another narrow passage
(cerebral aquaduct) to fourth ventricle - spinal fluid
then flows out around brain and spinal cord
○ Choroid plexus - contains cells producing CSF
○ Because it is always being produced, it needs to go
somewhere, so it is reabsorbed back into the
bloodstream as structures called arachnoid villae

252
Q

What are the 2 subdivisions of the forebrain?

A

○ Telencephalon

○ Diencephalon

253
Q

What is the telencephalon?

A
  • Two brain hemispheres form cerebrum
  • Hemispheres have outerlayer - cortex
  • Region deep within hemispheres contains basal ganglia
    and limbic system
  • Grey matter of brain (darker outer part) contains largely
    neural cell bodies
  • White matter - has higher proportion of myelinated
    axon - the connections between neurons in outer
    cortex
  • Purpose of folded brain surface is to jam in the 100 000 000 neurons in the brain
  • Gyri are the outer parts of folds
  • Sulci are the inner folds
  • Central sulcus - the fold the goes from the centre of the brain down to the sides of both hemispheres
254
Q

What is the diencephalon?

A
  • Contains
    □ Thalamus
    - Relay station for sensory inputs to cerebral
    cortex
    - Divided into several nuclei
    □ Hypothalamus
    - Controls automatic nervous system and
    endocrine system - release of hormones for
    regulating behaviour
    - No overlap in function with thalamus
    - Regulates survival behaviours (fighting,
    fleeing, feeding, mating)
255
Q

What are the lobes of the cerebral cortex?

A

○ Frontal lobe
○ Parietal lobe
○ Occipital lobe
○ Temporal lobe
○ Functional symmetry in visual areas of occipital lobe,
somata sensory areas in parietal lobe and some motor
areas in frontal lobe
○ Left hem controls aspects like language - involved in
analytic processing of incoming information
○ Right hem - involved in aspects of spatial processing -
damage leads to difficulties in constructing objects, or
drawings - specialised for synthesis of information
forming whole pieces

256
Q

What is the primary somatosensory cortex?

A

○ Post central gyrus consists of neurons immediately
behind central sulcus
- Neurons process signals that originate from
receptors in our skin
○ Somatasensory neurons project back from spinal cord,
travel through thalamus, neurons there project to the
primary areas of the cortex responsible for processing
incoming somatosensory signals
○ Ordered organisation of the cells along somatosensory
cortex
○ Amount of cortex used to process signals coming from
different parts of the body does not represent their
physical size
○ Somatotopic map
- Maps different parts of the body onto cortical
surface and tells us something about the functional
organisation in this part of brain
○ Body parts with especially large representations in
primary somatosensory cortex
- Face - cheeks, lips, tongue, vocal musculature
- Hands - thumb, fingers, palm

257
Q

Describe the primary visual cortex

A

○ Cells in this part of the brain are where signals arrive once they’ve originated from the eyes and gone through thalamus
○ Arranged according to functional property of importance
- Important aspect of vision is where objects are in
space
- Visuotopic organisation

258
Q

Describe the primary auditory cortex

A

○ On posterior part of superior temporal gyrus
○ Cells that receive signals originating from ear
○ Cells are organised according to the sound frequency -
higher frequencies towards posterior of primary
auditory cortex
○ Neurons immediately close together typically respond
to signals with same frequency
○ Tells us that auditory processing is understanding
sound frequency
- Important for recognising certain types of sounds

259
Q

Describe the secondary auditory cortex

A

○ Cells take signals from PAC and process them in a way that gives us a more complex sense of the sound
○ Adjacent to this area is the area that when damaged causes Wernicke’s aphasia
- Part of brain that takes signals orignating from PAC
and allows us to recognise and understand speech

260
Q

Describe the primary motor cortex

A

○ Human frontal cortex different from other animals
- Relatively larger than non-primates
- Higher level of connectivity with the rest of the
brain (compared with other apes)
○ Functions
- Voluntary, controlled behaviour
- Language
- Abstract reasoning and planning
- Impulse control and emotional regulation
- Social cognition
- Personality

261
Q

What is the corpus callosum?

A

-part of primary motor cortex
- Area of myelinated axons linking the two hemispheres
above the ventricles
- Role is pure two connect cerebral hemipheres
- Three connection types
□ Homotopic
- Neurons in one hemisphere are connected to
the exact same physical location on the other
hemisphere
□ Heterotopic
- Connections where neurons in one
hemisphere are connected to neurons in a
different place in the other hemisphere
□ Ipsilateral
- Connections within one hemisphere
- Removal of corpus callosum
□ Callosotomy
- Severs connection between two hems
- Can have decision making in one hem without
being reconciled with the other
- Someone with callosotomy might be asked to choose an item of clothing, and because left side of brain is responsible for understanding language and control right side of body, if you ask them to use their right hand to reach for something, they might say that they are reaching for something
- If you ask them to use the left hiand, the right side of brain does not process language, so they might say their reaching for blue dress but reach for red shirt
- Usually used to stop epileptic seizures

262
Q

What structures are included in the limbic system?

A
§ Mamillary body
			§ Amygdala
			§ Hippocampus
			§ Cingulate gyrus
			§ Fornix
263
Q

What is the basal ganglia?

A

○ Important for involuntary movement
○ Within two hems - regions with lower amount of myellinated axons (aggrigation of cell bodies)
- Caudate nucleus
- Putamen
- Globus Pallidus
○ Play important role in regulating non-voluntary movement

264
Q

Describe the midbrain

A

○ Divided into
- Tectum
□ Superior
- Process aspects of visual and auditory
information
□ inferior colliculi
- Important for processing auditory
information especially in terms of location
of the auditory signals
- Tegmentum
□ Reticular formation
- Important for regulating arousal - damage
usually causes coma
□ Substantia nigra
- Produce dopamine
- Damage results in lower levels of
dopamine

265
Q

What makes up the hindbrain?

A

○ Metencephalon
- Consists of Pons and cerebellum
- Important for regulating aspects of sleep and
arousal
- Also important for relaying info to and from
cerebellum via cerebellar peduncles
○ Medulla (myelencephalon)
- Consists of neurons that are important for autonomic function, such as respiration, and links hind brain to spinal cord

266
Q

What is the cerebellum?

A

○ Highly folded surface
- Purpose is to be able to jam more neurons into
small space
- Has more neurons than cerebral cortex
○ Appears to be particularly important for learning skilled movement
- When we learn complex movements and are able
to do them quite fluidly, the cerebellum takes over
the processing of those movements
○ Also makes changes in motor system in response to unexpected events - liquid in ear detects sudden change in body position, which then sends signal to cerebellum which can use info to cause movements in body to compensate for postural change - without we would fall a lot

267
Q

Describe the spinal column

A
○ Vertebrae
	- Cervical (neck)
	- Thoracic (chest)
	- Lumbar (lower back)
	- Sacral (pelvic region)
○ Spinal foramen - central region consistent across all vertibrae
	- Channel in which spinal cord resides
268
Q

Describe the spinal cord

A

○ Grey matter surrounded by white matter
○ Surrounded by 3 meninges
○ 31 pairs of spinal nerves (to receive and convey information)

269
Q

What is the autonomic nervous system?

A

• Regulates smooth muscle (skin, blood vessels, walls and sphincters of internal organs), cardiac muscle and glands)
• Controls blood pressure, temperature, digestion and sexual functioning
• Two antagonistic systems
○ Sympathetic division
- Responsible for arousing us to perform some
sort of action
○ Parasympathetic division
- Calm down from performing action
○ Both systems are responsible for activity in the
same organs
○ However, the fibres controlling parasympathetic activity sometimes follow a very different anatomical route to that of the sympathetic branch

270
Q

What happens when we become aroused?

A
○ Dilated pupils
○ Sweating
○ Accelerated heart rate
○ Increase in breathing rate
○ Decrease in digestive function
○ Secretion of adrenaline
○ Then need to restore body to previous calm state
	- Separate set of neural pathways that
		□ Constrict pupil
		□ Increase salivation
		□ Slow heart rate
		□ Constrict brochi
		□ Upregulate stomach and digestive processes
271
Q

Why is hearing essential?

A

○ Primary sense in the dark

○ Basis for language

272
Q

What system has evolved to process sound?

A

-Nervous system
○ Volume = change in amplitude
○ Pitch = change in frequency
○ Complexity = multiple wave forms with different amplitudes and different frequencies

273
Q

How does sound travel through the ear?

A

• Changes in air pressure associated with sound wave - come down auditory canal
○ Cause ear drum/tempanic membrane to oscillate
• Ear drum is connected to series of bones called ossicles
○ Malleus/hammer, incus/anvil, and stapes/stirrup -
names of ossicles
○ Movement of eardrums causes leveraging
movement in the ossicles
• Stapes pushes up against cohlea
○ Cochlea - name from looking like a snail
○ It is hollow, and largey rigid except for two places:
- Oval window - soft membrane
- Round window
○ When stapes moves backwards and forwards
against the oval window, causes fluid to move
backwards and forwards along cochlea
- Fluid moves backwards and forwards because
round window can buldge out and in in
response to the movement

274
Q

What does the cochlear do?

A

• Cochlea converts mechanical movement of ossicles into fluid movement along Basilar membrane
○ Basilar membrane runs length of cochlea

275
Q

What does the organ of corti do?

A

○ Converts fluid movements into neural signals
○ Basilar membrane is at bottom
○ Movement of fluid through cochlea either causes hair
cells to rub against tectorial membrane, or causes them
to flex and bend in that movement of fluid
○ Inner hair cells connects with multiple spiral ganglion
cells
- Spiral ganglion cells send out action potentials, and
bundled together comprise the auditory nerve -
send information back to the brain
- Damage to inner hair cells largely responsible for
hearing loss
○ Multiple outer hair cells make contacts with a single
spiral ganglion cell
- If outer hair cells are sufficiently excited, the will
cause receptor potential which will depolarise the
spiral ganglion cells
- Once spiral ganglion cells have been sufficiently
depolarised, generate action potentials which
propagate down the myelinated axons comprising
auditory nerve

276
Q

What is the place coding of frequency along Basilar membrane?

A

○ High frequency tone causes more vibration closer to the base of the Basilar membrane
○ Low frequency causes more vibration closer to the apex
○ Hair cells at each location will cause receptor potentials that are directly related to the frequency of the incoming tone
- Action potentials generated by spiral ganglion
cells associated with different position along the
Basilar membrane give information about the
frequency being encoded along the Basilar
membrane

277
Q

What is the pathway to the auditory cortex?

A

○ Auditory nerve project to several nuclei in the medulla - at bottom of brain
○ From there, project to contralateral inferior colliculus
○ Then project to both hemispheres through Thalamus
○ Auditory signal originating on one side of body is processed on both sides of brain
- Stronger level of processing on opposite side

278
Q

What do cochlear implants do?

A

○ Designed for people experiencing hearing loss due to a loss in hair cells
○ Bypass a functional hair cell stage
○ Electrically stimulate spiral ganglion cells
○ Implant an electrode array along the cochlear
○ Process sound and break it up into different frequencies
○ Match the voltage to the electrode location that induces action potentials in spiral ganglion cells that mimic the sound
○ How do they sound?
- Voice recognition requires relatively few electrodes
- Music appreciation requires many more electrodes
□ Difficult to understand and hear with early
cochlear implants - not complex enough

279
Q

How do eyes process images?

A

• Electromagnetic spectrum
○ 400-700nm stimulates our photoreceptors and
starts process of ability to see
• Conversion of that signal happens in eyes
• There is a close relationship between position of image on retina and its physical position in the outside world
• Retinal neurons that are stimulated by light from the same location in space are bundled together

280
Q

What happens in the retina?

A

○ Retinal ganglion cells
○ Myelinated axons of these cells bundle together and go down optic nerve back to the brain
○ Ganglion cells inherit the property of where they originate

281
Q

What are the two types of photoreceptors in the retina?

A
  • Cones

- Rods

282
Q

What do cones do?

A

□ cone shape
□ Convert light energy into a signal
□ The signal passes through to ganglion cells
□ Myelinated axons of these cells go back via optic nerve to brain
□ Signals coming out of eye are largely the action potentials in ganglion cells
□ Three cone types receptive to different wavelengths - determining what hues you see
- S-cone (receptive to short wavelengths)
- M-cone (peak-sensitivity of 500nm: light that
appears green)
- L-cone (long-wavelength sensitive cones: appears
red)
- Signals in cones don’t represent colours - they are
information about wavelength - not until signals get
to brain that it translates to colour

283
Q

What do rods do?

A

□ Rod shape

□ Receptive to very low levels of light - wha we use in dark conditions

284
Q

How do photoreceptors connect to ganglion cells?

A
  • Photoreceptors do not directly connect with ganglion cells
    □ Connect to bipolar cells which connect to
    Ganglion cell
    □ Other cell types with modulatory role:
    - At junction between bipolar cells and
    photoreceptors: horizontal cells
    - At junction between bipolar cells and ganglion
    cells: amacrine cells
    - Cells play a role in processing visual info
    before it’s sent to the brain
285
Q

What are the visual pathways to the brain?

A

○ Objects from right visual field
- Left eye: light passes through cornea and lens and
projects onto temporal retina
□ Axons from retinal ganglion cells project out
through optic nerve, down to the left LGN
(lateral geniculate nucleus - specialised
nucleus of the thalamus for processing visual
information)
- Right eye: light goes through cornea and lens and
projects onto nasal retina (closest to nose)
□ Signal goes down optic nerve and cross over
at the optic cavern
□ Also project to left LGN
- Objects in right visual field are processed in left
thalamus
□ From there neurons project to the left primary
visual cortex

286
Q

What does the ventral stream do?

A

puts together receptive fields in a way that enables us to recognise common objects

287
Q

What does the dorsal pathway do?

A

distinction of ‘where and what’

288
Q

What does damage to the primary visual cortex do?

A

○ Can occur because of bloackage to a particular artery that supplies blood to that part of the brain
○ If cells die, we have a loss of visual perception that is related to the visuotopic arrangement of V1
○ People with right visual field loss - would see thing son the left side, not the right
-Damage does not always cause a loss in sight

289
Q

What is hemiachromatopsia?

A

□ Damage to V4 - results in loss of colour in right visual field

290
Q

What is akinetopsia?

A

-Motion blindness
□ Damage to MT (important for perception of motion)
□ Rather than seeing smooth motion, you see series of still images that change in position

291
Q

What is visual object agnosia?

A

□ Temporal lobe damage
□ Difficulties recognising familiar objects
□ It isn’t that they don’t know what the object is - if you show them the actual thing they will know, it’s just they can’t translate the visual representation of something into an object they know

292
Q

Are faces processed separately from other objects?

A

○ Face inversion effect:
- Normally see upright faces
- Parts of neuron that see a face are particularly
tuned to seeing faces in that orientation
○ Face blindness (prosopagnosia)
- Lesion to right fusiform gyrus - particularly active
when looking at faces
- Able to recognise other objects

293
Q

What are the three components of emotional responses?

A
○ Behavioural
○ Autonomic
	- physiological responses in body prepare for 
          fight/flight response
○ Hormonal
	- Reinforce physiological changes
294
Q

Describe neural control of emotional response patterns

A

○ Bard - used ablation to study effects of removal of different brain parts removed from cats’ on their agression
○ Observed ‘sham rage’ in cats whose cerebral hemispheres had been surgically removed
- Sham rage = overt aggressive responses to stimuli
that wouldn’t display the same agression
○ Sham rage was absent when hypothalamus was removed
○ Posed that hypothalamus was responsible for generating aggressive responses, but cerebral hemispheres play a key role in controlling the emotional expression

295
Q

How is the limbic system connected to emotion?

A

○ Consists of amygdala, hippocampus, fornix, medial surface of both hemispheres
- Proposed by Papez and McLean to be important in
emotional processing

296
Q

Describe Klüver-Bucy syndrome

A

○ Used bilateral ablation to temporal lobes in monkeys
○ Caused impaired visual recognition (psychic blindness)
○ Also develop hyperphagia (oral exploration of objects)
○ Displayed impulsive and stereotyped actions, aberrant sexual behaviour
○ Developed absence of fear

297
Q

What is the structure of the amygdala?

A

○ Comprised of large number of subnuclei
○ At the top - information coming in from thalamus and cortex into lateral nucleus
○ From there, there are connections that ultimately stimulate central nucleus
○ Central nucleus - particularly important
- Outputs to the hypothalamus (important for
regulating autonomic arousal)
- Ideally suited to cause physiological changes
which are important component of emotional
processing
- Lesions abolish fear response
- Stimulation is sufficient to cause fear and agitation

298
Q

What are the remarkable things about the case of Phineas Gage?

A

• Demonstrated importance of frontal lobes in certain types of emotional response
• Tamping iron went through skull and all the way through his head - landed behind him
• Remarkable things about case:
○ He survived injury and infection afterwards
○ Survived long enough for behavioural changes to
be observed
○ No longer the person he was before - changes in
emotional responses
• Iron broke his cheekbone - important because it allowed the left side of the skull to lever slightly off
○ Normally if something penetrates skull, there is an
increase pressure on the brain having detrimental
effects on the entire brain
○ In this case, brain injury was likely to be restricted
to the part of the brain penetrated by iron, not
spread throughout the brain
○ Missed optic nerve and all the parts of brain
regulating arousal and consciousness
- Would have died instantly if they were
damaged

299
Q

What were the emotional changes experienced by Phineas Gage?

A
○ Personality changes profoundly
	- Fitful, irreverant, profane
		□ Swore a lot
	- Impatient, obstinate, capricious
		□ Unable to settle on a plan or follow a course 
                   of action
	- Unable to plan for future
	- Not employable in old job
○ Had to have jobs where he didn't make decisions
○ Died from seizures due to brain damage
300
Q

What is the relationship between the orbitofrontal cortex and decision making?

A
  • Involved in social and emotional decision making
  • Processes, evaluates and filters emotional and social information
  • Damage impairs decisions that rely on feedback from social and emotional cues
  • Evidence that people who have higher levels of antisocial behaviour have reduced levels of grey matter in this area too
301
Q

What is the Lames-Lange theory on the relationship between feelings and emotions?

A

○ Threat leads to behavioural and physiological responses
○ Leads to pounding of heart and running away
○ Somatosensory signals are then interpreted as emotion

302
Q

What is the Cannon-Bard theory on the relationship between feelings and emotions?

A

○ Said that people have cogitive appreciation of their motion, so James-Lange theory doesn’t seem right
○ Emotion-inducing stimulus, and there are automatic behavioural and physiological changes
○ Importantly, suggested that we can appreciate the emotional aspect of the stimulus without the physiological changes

303
Q

What are the key differences between the Lames-Lange and the Cannon-Bard theories?

A

○ Importance of somatosensory feedback from body
- James-Lange theory: people who don’t have
somatosensory feedback (spinal injury) - would
expect them to have no emotion in response to
emotion-inducing stimuli
- Cannon-Bard theory: we don’t need physiological
changes to experience the emotion
○ People with spinal lesions - do have emotional response (supporting Cannon-Bard theory)
-But their emotional response is diminished
(suggesting neither theory is actually correct)

304
Q

How do thoughts and memories shape feelings associated with emotions?

A

○ Schachter and Singer’s two-factor theory of emotion
- Physical arousal plays a primary role in emotion
- But arousal is the same for a wide variety of
emotions
○ We must identify the arousal to feel the emotion
- Depends on context and memories of previous
experience
- Feelings are an interaction between physical
arousal and the cognitive label given to that arousal
- Eg - being on a rollercoaster can have same arousal as seeing a bear

305
Q

What is the somatic marker hypothesis?

A
  • Decision making guided by an evaluation of the consequences of our actions
  • Faced with the same decision activates memories of past events
  • These representations activate traces of the bodily responses to previous behaviour
  • Feelings steer us towards decisions that increase positive feelings and decrease negative feelings
  • Allows us to anticipate the emotional consequences of our actions
306
Q

How does damage to the frontal lobe effect responses to affective stimuli?

A

○ Patients with frontal lobe damage compared emotional responses with those who didn’t have frontal lobe damage
○ Found images that people usually have strong emotional response to and had previously been shown induce a change in skin conductance due to sweat
○ Showed images to both groups of patients and some neutral to compare their emotional responses
○ Found that when an emotional image was shown, the control group had an increase in skin conductance
○ Frontal-lobe impaired patients showed no change in skin conductance across the whole series of photos
- Not getting trace physiological response, and
presumably can’t use that to help guide behaviour

307
Q

How do frontal lobe impairments effect emotional responses on gambling tasks?

A

○ Two decks of cards: pile A and B
○ Both piles are similar in that they have cards with a monetary value, and either a ‘win’ or a ‘loss’
○ Pile A has larger money values on each card compared with pile B
○ If you choose from pile B, in the long run you’ll win money, if you choose from pile A you will loose money
○ Control subject
- Contemplating choosing from pile A - leads to
physiological respons that makes them think they
should choose from pile B
○ Frontal-lobe impaired people
- Continue to be lured by large amounts of money in
pile A and will continue to choose from it, despite
loosing money
- Do have emotional response to loss, but they will
continue to choose from pile A despite this

308
Q

How does damage to the amygdala affect fear conditioning?

A

• Blue square would appear on screen immediately followed by electric shock
• In normal patients, after fear conditioning, there will be an increase in skin conductance after seeing the blue square
• Patient with amygdala damage, only have a change of skin conductance after electric shock, not the square
○ Doesn’t mean they don’t have capacity to
experience the fear, it just means that the fear
conditioning was insufficient to cause a
physiological response
○ While the blue square was not the CR, patients
knew that the blue square signalled an electric
shock
○ Despite cognitively knowing, the amygdala was
unable to help the patients learn that the blue
square was something to be feared

309
Q

What are the amygdala pathways that contribute to fear conditioning?

A

○ Le Doux: two parallel pathways
- ‘Low road’
□ Quick but dirty information to amygdala
(thalamus –> amygdala)
- ‘High road’
□ Slow but detailed picture of sensory
information (thalamus –> sensory cortex –>
amygdala)
○ Fear response starts with something potentially dangerous in world around us - brain needs to get sensory information from eyes and possibly ears
- Sensory information comes back via sensory
thalamus
□ From there - direct link to amygdala
□ Because this pathway involves low amount of
sensory processing, call it ‘dirty’
□ Not signal that corresponds to conscious
recognition of incoming sensory information
□ Example is jumping because you see an
object that could be a snake
□ Enables you to respond quickly in potentially
fatal situations
- High road enables cognitive awareness of the
situation - could realise it’s a stick not a snake so
don’t need to react
□ Takes longer

310
Q

Describe polygraphs (lie detectors) and how they work

A

• Emotional reactions to questions are used to determine ‘truthfulness’ of answers
• Measures physiological responses associated with activity of autonimic ervous system
• Still used routinely by law enforcement in many countries
• Effectiveness of lie detection can be evaluated by ‘mock crime’ procedure
• Two approaches to questioning:
○ ‘Control-question’ technique
- Establishing a baseline by asking a number of
neutral questions and then asking a question
which might relate to someone’s guilt
- 80% detection of liars
- False positives
○ ‘Guilty-knowledge’ technique
- Relies on fact that if someone has been
involved in a crime, they will have knowledge
about the crime scene
- Makes them recall the crime
- 88% detection of liars
- No false positives

311
Q

What is the purpose of attention?

A
  • Plays an important role in regulating what we’re aware of in the world around us
  • Involves prioritising processig information for objects of interest at the cost of less awareness of other things around us
  • Is conscious awareness essential for our ability to orient the world around us?
312
Q

What are the visual pathways and how do visual deficits occur?

A

• V1 (primary visual cortex) - important for conscious visual experience
• Artery that supplies blood to visual cortex in both hemispheres
○ Interruption of blood supply will result in neuron
death in V1
- Lose conscious visual experience in the part of
visual field process by those neurons
• Neurons in right hemisphere = process info coming from left visual field
○ Lesion of primary visual cortex in left hemisphere =
complete loss of visual consciousness in right
visual field
○ Homonymous hemianopia

313
Q

What is Blindsight?

A

• Occurs following unilateral damage restricted to the primary visual cortex
• Above-chance visual performance in the ‘blind hemifield’
○ Patients may say they have no ability to process
visual information in that area, but there is
evidence that there is some happening
• When testing to see the processing, shows preservation of:
○ Pupillary reflexes
- Where puils restrict
○ Manual and saccadic localisation
- Pointing and looking
○ Wavelength and motion discrimination
- Can discriminate against objects that are
different colours/moving
○ Orientation and shape discrimination

314
Q

Describe parametric testing in blindsight

A

○ Patient looks directly ahead
○ Lights can be turned on in right, left, upper, lower visual fields
○ Two tones are played, with one of them a lights is turned on - patient is asked if it was turned on during first or second tone
○ If light was turned on in blind region, they would believe they were guessing
- If that were the case they woul get 50% right
- But they had correct responses 90+% of the time in
the blind region
- In one particular area (outside of blind region) -
much lower results
□ Performed by chance
□ When light is being presented in optic disk
- Part of the retina where the myelinated
ganglion cells exit eye - don’t have any
photoreceptors there, so person should
be performing at chance

315
Q

Describe manual pointing in people with blindsight

A

○ Lights presented in left and right, and patients would have to point at where it is
○ When patients do it in their blind region, they don’t think they can
- But their performance was not much worse than in
their intact visual field, despite the fact that they
thought they were guessing

316
Q

How does visual information get to the brain in blindsight

A

○ Some fibres to go from the LGN (in the thalamus) back to the primary visual cortex
- Project to the Superior colliculus
□ Evolutionary older sensory processing
pathway
□ presumable these areas play a role in
helping animals orient to the world around
them without conscious experience
□ May explain how information can be
processed in vestidual information that are
still intact
- From there to the Pulvinar

317
Q

What are the key aspects of attention?

A
○ Selectivity
			§ Spatial
			§ Temporal
			§ Motoric
		○ Capacity limitation
		○ Vigilance ('sustained attention')
		○ Perceptual set ('expectation')
		○ Switching
318
Q

Describe Hermann von Helmholtz study on the effects on covert attention allocation on visual perception

A

○ Screen with letters on it
○ Central fixation point
○ Device with a switch that would provide a very brief light spark
○ Helmholtz would look at middle of screen but shift his attention covertly to another location
○ Couldn’t report letters of where he was looking, but had enhanced processing of letter where he had been attending covertly
○ Can concentrate attention on a particular part of our peripheral nervous system, while excluding attention from all other parts
- Limited resources - need to priorise some visual
input, so need to take resources from other
locations

319
Q

What is the relationship between spatial attention and processing speed?

A

• Spatial attention alters neural processing speed
○ Central focal point
○ A target
○ Before target appeared, a cue was presented
indicating the side the target would be on
- Valid trials - cue was right
- Invalid trial - cue was wrong
- Neutral trial - indicated both sides
○ 80% of trials were valid
○ Did shifting attention away from or towards target
have an impact on how quickly you processed the
target?
- Response times were faster on valid trials
than neutral trials
□ Enhanced processing of info at location
we are attending to
- Invalid condition - much slower response
times
□ Slower neural processing times at
locations that we are not attending to

320
Q

What is the relationship between neurons in the parietal cortex and attention?

A

• Neurons in parietal cortex are modulated by attention
○ Monkeys were trained to maintain fixation at a
certain location
○ Target can appear to the left or right
○ Monkey keeps looking at fixation point, but we
can look at the action potentials generated when
light stimulus is flashed on in the receptive field
for that neuron
○ If there is no reason for the monkey to shift its
attention there, presume its attention would be
used to maintain fixations
○ How do we get monkey to covertly shift attention
from where it’s looking to the location of the
receptive fields?
- Got monkeys to shift attention away from
where they were looking by dimming the light
very subtly
- Monekys could only get juice reward if
attention had shifted to that location
- When light dimmed they would press a lever
and get a reward
- If they didn’t notice, they wouldn’t press the
lever
- High motivation
- Much larger number of action potentials very
soon after light is turned on
□ Could reflect speed of processing

321
Q

What does damage to the parietal lobe do?

A

○ Causes unilateral spatial neglect
○ Occurs after damage to one side of brain (usually in right hem)
○ Patients behave as if the affected side of space has ceased to exist
- Ignore food on one side of plate
- Fail to shave one side of face
- Bump into objects on one side
- Fail to read text from one side of the page

322
Q

What are some clinical tests for spatial neglect?

A

○ Line by section task
- Need to draw a vertical line bisecting the
horizontal line in half
- Patients draw that line significantly to the right of
the horizontal line - not in centre - as though left
hand side doesn’t exist
○ When asked to draw house or tree
- Aspects missing from left hand side
- Position of features on left hand side of objects
seems to be disarrayed
□ As though the parietal lobe is necessary to
work out where things have to go together to
make the whole form

323
Q

What are other brain regions involved in spatial neglect?

A

○ Medial frontal gyrus
○ Inferior frontal gyrus
○ Superior temporal gyrus
○ Inferior parietal lobule

324
Q

Describe unconscious perception of spatial neglect

A

○ When presented images of two houses, one of which had a fire on the left hand side - patient asked if houses were the same or different
- Patient said they were the same
○ If fire was on the right-hand side (and they had left unilateral spatial neglect) they would say they were different
○ When asked ‘which house would you prefer to live?’
- If fire was on the right - would say the house
without fire
- When fire was on left side - would expect them to
have no awareness of fire
□ Still routinely choose house without fire
□ Have no insight into why they would make
that choice