MBA Drills & Vocab 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Communication includes tone of voice, body language, facial expressions etc. This type of communication refers to which of the following option?

A

Non-verbal communication

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2
Q

Listening is a very important aspect of effective communication. Good listener has to develop certain characteristics. Which one of the following is NOT one of those characteristics?

A

Continue to talk in between

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3
Q

Throughout the development process, teams pass through distinct stages. Examine the statements and choose the one that is true for Tuckman’s team development ‘Storming’ stage.

A

A period of conflict and struggle and team members may disagree, and team performance may suffer.

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4
Q

Leadership theories focus on the characteristics of a leader. This trait theory of Leadership emphasised common traits and personal characteristics of an individual. Identify the theory from the following options.

A

Allport’s Trait Theory

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5
Q

Many of the business organizations in India follow the principles of avoiding conflicts with their supply chain partners. Which one of the following principles relates to
the same?

A

Principle of harmony

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6
Q

Presentation visuals grab the audience attention. Some of the illustrative visual aids used in a presentation to make it more impactful may comprise of which of the
following?

A

Models, graphs, maps, photographs and tables

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7
Q

We express our thoughts, ideas by speaking or writing. Talking is an effective tool of communication, but it has limited reach. Talking comes under which type of communication?

A

Verbal

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8
Q

There is a similarity of background between the sender and the receiver such as age, language, nationality, religion. Which of the following option refers to this context?

A

Cultural

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9
Q

“Employees exhibit many styles of communication. When employees deliberately infringe on their rights, exhibit poor eye contact and avoid expressing their opinions;
which style of communication is indicated?”

A

Passiveness

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10
Q

“It is the most common yet powerful and stimulating audio-visual aid to create presentations. Identify the correct option for this computer-aided tool considered most
important for making presentations.”

A

Microsoft PowerPoint

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11
Q

“Most Indian business organizations believe in proper performance appraisal of their employees and based on the same, reward their employees. Which one of the
following relates to the same”

A

Principle of Reward

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12
Q

“In an organization, one group of managers wanted to introduce new sportswear different in design, colours and models from the previous ones, whereas other managers
wanted to do expansion more deliberately. What type of conflict is depicted in the example?”

A

Intergroup conflict

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13
Q

“Modern businesses pay attention to how their employees work in harmony to retain their productivity. What is defined as a significant dispute or arguments or struggle
between incompatible or opposing needs, wishes, ideas and is usually one that lasts a long time?”

A

Conflict

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14
Q

“Body language can tell a lot about how a person feels. At the time of presentation when the presenter resists or avoids eye contact, it is often considered a sign of
disinterest, lack of confidence and inattentiveness. What else might this behaviour suggest?”

A

Rudeness

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15
Q

The proper use of gestures is one of the most powerful tool for an effective presentation. What do we call the study that refers to body movement and expressions such as waving, pointing, touching, slouching, bending etc.?

A

Kinesics

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16
Q

“We find many leadership styles in business. In this style of leadership, leaders keep the power to take decisions majorly to self without others’ advice and suggestions
or anyone else’s interference. Identify what this style is commonly known as?”

A

Autocratic style

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17
Q

“Good teamwork helps build morale in the workplace. Which teams are formed for a temporary period to achieve a critical task say, problem-solving or new product
development from across geographics?”

A

Virtual Teams

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18
Q

“Body language plays an integral part in any presentation. During a presentation when the presenter keeps hands clasped or arms crossed on the chest or have legs
crossed with sunken shoulders, the body posture demonstrated is which of the following?”

A

Closed Posture

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19
Q

Team development is possible only when the team passes through various stages. Which of the following is not a stage of team development in an organization?

A

Maintainance Stage

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20
Q

When parties are willing to solve a problem mutually, there is a tool most widely used for conflict resolution. What is it called?

A

Negotiation

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21
Q

In any business, proposals are the document that seals the deal. Choose the option that is not included in the various sections of a business proposal?

A

Inside address

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22
Q

Leadership theories talk about the psyche of a leader. The High LPC score and Low LPC score are integral part to which style of Leadership Theory?

A

Contingency Theory(Fiedler)

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23
Q

“A business proposal, a written document sent to a prospective client, has many parts. This section of the proposal explains the objective of sending it, why the solutions
presented are the best, and what it is all about. This section briefly states how you will be able to help the clients. Which section of a business proposal is it being
indicated?”

A

Proposal

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24
Q

“Conflict resolution helps to resolve conflicts in a professional way. Which one refers to a technique of conflict resolution in which both parties are required to give up
their motives and think collectively to resolve a conflict?”

A

Compromise

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25
Q

“Presentations can be conquered through good body language. Despite the presenter’s mood or personal feelings, he/she sports a confident, composed and friendly look
during a presentation. Which of the following is the quality of the presenter expressed here?”

A

Facial Expressions

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26
Q

The presenter should avoid getting panicky and keep calm during presentation. Which of the following is a sign of getting nervous and anxious during a presentation?

A

Pacing/ Fidgeting/ Hand shaking

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27
Q

“Trust provides a sense of safety. When teams feel safe, they are more likely to open up, take risks, and expose flaws. Which team building game is played to build
trust?”

A

Mine Field

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28
Q

Present day Management adopts certain lessons from Mahabharata. One of these is to do with long term planning. Identify from the following the same?

A

Building Strategies

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29
Q

“Eye contact forms an important part of communication with an audience during presentation. What is the term used to define the study of eye movement, eye
behaviour and eye-related non-verbal communication?”

A

Oculesics

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30
Q

“Organizational culture needs to be nurtured and valued throughout an organization in order to establish a strong and healthy culture. Which of the following factors are
essential in the creation of organisation culture?”

A

Founders philosophy, selection criteria,socialisation,top management

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31
Q

“The Trait Theory categorizes the common traits of an individual in various categories. What is the category in which individuals have different degrees of traits such as
being friendly, loyal, jovial and more?”

A

Allport’s Trait theory.

(Central traits)

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32
Q

“The way we communicate plays an important role in professional life. A style in which individuals have developed a pattern of avoiding expressing their opinions or
feelings, protecting their rights, refers to which of the following behaviour?”

A

Passiveness

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33
Q

“Teamwork is critical to ensuring an enjoyable work environment. The employees from the same hierarchical level, but different work areas, who come together to
accomplish a task belong to which team?”

A

Cross-functional team

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34
Q

“Interactions happen through various communication styles. This kind of communication involves expressing aggressive feelings in an indirect way through passive
resistance rather than through open confrontation. This behaviour is identified as which of the following?”

A

Passive Aggressive

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35
Q

The majority of conflicts are rooted in a complex matrix of interests. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons for the cause of conflicts?

A

If the manager sets realistic expectations with the employees.

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36
Q

“In an organisation, there exist many types of conflicts. A type of conflict that occurs within a single group or between the members of a group refers to which of the
following?”

A

Intra-group conflict

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37
Q

“Conflict is a struggle between individuals with varied ideas, beliefs. There exist many reasons that may cause conflicts. Choose the option that is not a cause of
conflict.”

A

Good rapport between employees

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38
Q

“This style of Leadership was developed by Kenneth Blanchard and Paul Hersey. The former President of Coca-Cola, Jack Stahl demonstrated this style of Leadership.
What is it called?”

A

Situational Style

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39
Q

“Each individual has a distinct communication style, a way of interacting and exchanging information with others. Pick the option that best describes assertive style of
communication.”

A

Express feelings clearly, appropriately, and respectfully

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40
Q

“Team make work more efficient. People from different areas in the organization come together and work on a task and this saves on time and cost to the organization.
What would you call these teams?”

A

Cross Functional Team

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41
Q

“The emotions and behaviours of a team change with stage. During which stage of team growth do individuals begin to reconcile their own ambitions with the team’s
realities, dissolve conflicts, and develop a sense of unity to improve team performance?”

A

Norming

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42
Q

“Every person has a unique communication style. A person that is overly forceful, pushy, hostile or otherwise attacking , belongs to which type of the following
approach?”

A

Agressive

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43
Q

In this bargaining strategy, one party’s gain is dependent upon the other party’s loss. Which one in the given options suggests this type of bargaining strategies?

A

Distributive negotiation

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44
Q

Workplace need to follow some ethos and there are some important ethos. Which one of the following is Not one of the important ethos?

A

No sense of belongingness

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45
Q

“According to Keith Davis, this is the human factor that binds the group together and motivates it towards goals. This ability can be termed as which option of the
following?”

A

Leadership

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46
Q

“Credibility is characterized as a speaker’s competence. A speaker or a writer constructs the arguments based on his credibility. Which one of the following relates to
this?”

A

Ethos

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47
Q

“Employees communicate in a multitude of ways. A method of expressing needs and desires that do not take into account of the welfare of others refers to which of the
following options.”

A

Aggressive

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48
Q

In which of these, should the listener be able to make connection between different segments of speech.

A

Links between part of speech

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49
Q

According to Aristotle, a writer may persuade his audience by using three types of rhetorical appeals. Which one of the following is not one of the three appeals?

A

Mythos

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50
Q

“Vedas are considered as a treasure house that contains ancient value systems, which in turn, are based on various building blocks. Which one of the following is NOT
one of the building blocks?”

A

Adharma

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51
Q

When the group disagrees, it is usually over how the work should get done. Which type of conflict is experienced by the group?

A

Process Conflict

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52
Q

Official communication is highly dependent on written documents. Which of the following options about written communication is false?

A

Restricts revision

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53
Q

“Businesses use multiple modes to communicate. Which of the given options is a significant tool of verbal communication used in the decision-making process that can
help the management to review and evaluate the performance of various departments in the organization?”

A

Report

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54
Q

“Communication means the way a message travels from a sender to a receiver. The information which is transferred to the receiver has to be interpreted. What is this
process called as?”

A

Decoding

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55
Q
  1. It is a vital part of any human interaction:

A. Reasoning
B. Communication
C. Marketing skills
D. Exchange

A

B. Communication

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56
Q
  1. Non-standard words and phrases used in informal communication are:

A. Selective retention
B. Selective listening
C. Slang words
D. Distance

A

C. Slang words

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57
Q
  1. How many C’s are involved in effective communication?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

A

D. 7

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58
Q
  1. This relates to the mental process of understanding & acquiring knowledge:

A. Conditioning
B. Cognitive
C. Storming
D. Forming

A

B. Cognitive

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59
Q
  1. It is the most natural form of communication gifted to us since birth:

A. Closed communication
B. open communication
C. Written communication
D. Oral communication

A

D. Oral communication

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60
Q
  1. Which communication is a free form of communication and does not follow any fixed pattern?

A. Formal
B. Informal
C. Diagonal
D. Downward

A

B. Informal

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61
Q
  1. How many elements of reading do we have?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

A

C. 5

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62
Q
  1. Which of these is not an element of reading?

A. Expression
B. Fluency
C. Phonics
D. Vocabulary

A

A. Expression

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63
Q
  1. A process of speedy reading to gain the gist of a text:

A. Normal reading
B. Scanning
C. Surveying
D. Skimming

A

D. Skimming

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64
Q
  1. It is a file that can be used as a starting point for a new document:

A. Notice
B. File
C. Template
D. Attachment

A

C. Template

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65
Q
  1. Which of the following informs people about the date, time, venue & the reason of the meeting:

A. Inquiry letter
B. Agenda
C. Minutes
D. Notice

A

D. Agenda

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66
Q
  1. In the business world the abbreviation NB stands for:

A. Please reply
B. Please note
C. Signed
D. Noted

A

B. Please note

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67
Q
  1. Putting yourself in someone else’s shoes is an example of which element of emotional intelligence?

A. Sympathy
B. Empathy
C. Motivation
D. Social-skills

A

B. Empathy

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68
Q
  1. Which of the following types of personality acts warm and friendly and also cooperates with others?

A. The relator
B. The director
C. The socializer
D. The thinker

A

A. The relator

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69
Q
  1. A leader translates ideas to their team and listens to their needs and complaints. Which element of emotional intelligence does it fit into?

A. Motivation
B. Self-regulation
C. Sympathy
D. Social-skills

A

D. Social-skills

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70
Q
  1. Finding the right people and motivating them to work towards your vision is called:

A. Team Management
B. Change Management
C. People Management
D. Organizational Management

A

C. People Management

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71
Q
  1. They shape our nation’s communities & organizations. Who are they?

A. Political Leaders
B. Leaders
C. People Management
D. Bollywood Actors

A

B. Leaders

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72
Q
  1. Self- Awareness, Gratitude, Respect, courage & Empathy are the characteristics of:

A. Team Management
B. Human resource professionals
C. Good Leader
D. Leadership skills

A

C. Good Leader

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73
Q
  1. The element in a presentation which should have a description set in a framework that the audience can comprehend the information easily, absorb data and make sense out of it is?

A. Introduction
B. Background Information
C. New Information
D. Review of new Information

A

C. New Information

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74
Q
  1. Avoiding or resisting eye contact during presentation and lack of confidence is often considered to be a sign of the following?

A. Rudeness
B. Politeness
C. Fight
D. Aggressiveness

A

A. Rudeness

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75
Q
  1. A presentation is a form of oral communication in which person shares factual information with an audience refers to which of the following?

A. Specific
B. Large
C. Small
D. Mixed

A

A. Specific

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76
Q
  1. Unclear roles, fixed mindset, lack of vision & poor decision making leads to:

A. Sense of unity
B. Team management
C. Team Growth
D. Team Failure

A

D. Team Failure

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77
Q
  1. Who among the following propounded the five stages of team development?

A. John Mayer.
B. Daniel Goleman
C. Bruce Tuckman
D. Peter Salovey

A

C. Bruce Tuckman

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78
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a stage in team development?

A. Performing
B. Adjourning
C. Norming
D. Perceiving

A

D. Perceiving

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79
Q
  1. Which type of conflict occurs between two or more organizations?

A. Inter-organizational
B. Heterogeneous
C. Homogeneous
D. Intra-Organizational

A

A. Inter-organizational

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80
Q
  1. A win-win solution in which both the parties are mutually benefited:

A. Integrative negotiation
B. Conflict management
C. Distributive negotiation
D. Inter-individual conflict

A

A. Integrative negotiation

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81
Q
  1. It is a struggle between incompatible or opposing needs, wishes, ideas, interests or people; identify the correct option that matches this statement

A. Agreement
B. Management
C. Conflict
D. Resolution

A

C. Conflict

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82
Q
  1. Which law focusses about taking ownership of one’s life?

A. The Law of Responsibility
B. The Law of focus
C. The law of connection
D. The law of giving & Hospitality

A

A. The Law of Responsibility

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83
Q
  1. What means desire less while Karma means action?

A. Ethics
B. Value
C. Integrity
D. Nishkam

A

D. Nishkam

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84
Q
  1. Which type of value is considered as the goal that an individual wants to achieve in their lifetime?

A. Cultural values
B. Instrumental values
C. Terminal values
D. Social values

A

C. Terminal values

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85
Q
What sort of process is communication?
A. Triarchic Process
B. Two-way process
C. Three-way process
D. Triangular process
A

Two-way process

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86
Q

A finance executive speaking with the Vice President of Human Resources about a change in the
organization’s objectives is an example of what type of communication?
A. Diagonal communication
B. Grapevine communication
C. Horizontal communication
D. Downward communication

A

Diagonal communication

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87
Q

When is communication considered unsuccessful?
A. When the message is understood
B. When the message is ambiguous
C. When the purpose of the sender is fulfilled
D. When feedback is received

A

When the message is ambiguous

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88
Q
How should a confident handshake be?
A. Limp
B. Firm
C. Loose
D. Double
A

Firm

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89
Q
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of oral communication?
A. Lowers the risk of misunderstanding
B. Saves time
C. Lack of retention
D. Provides quick feedback
A

Lack of retention

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90
Q

Which of the following is an effective method of maintaining eye contact while speaking with a group of five people?
A. Look at the individual with whom you are now conversing.
B. Maintain eye contact with each of the five as you go from one to the next.
C. For the first few minutes, stare at just 2 people
D. Not required to directly have eye contact with anyone

A

Maintain eye contact with each of the five as you go from one to the next.

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91
Q

Which of the following statements about listening is incorrect?
A. Listening is a passive activity and hearing is an active activity
B. A conscious decision is made to listen
C. The listener concentrates on the speaker’s words
D. Listening helps to assess critically

A

Listening is a passive activity and hearing is an active activity

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92
Q
Why is listening essential during the communication process?
A. For Coding
B. For Transmission
C. For Repetition
D. For Feedback
A

For Feedback

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93
Q
What type of listening takes place when people engage in multi-tasking?
A. Critical listening
B. Effective Listening
C. Active Listening
D. Partial Listening
A

Partial Listening

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94
Q
Where does a memorandum, which is a short type of written communication, fit in?
A. Legal use
B. Formal use
C. Internal use
D. External use
A

Internal use

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95
Q
What characteristics must a business letter have?
A. Incompleteness
B. Jargons
C. Faultiness
D. Coherence
A

Coherence

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96
Q
Which of the following is not a proposal types?
A. Formally Solicited
B. Informally Solicited
C. Unwanted Business Proposals
D. Issue proposal
A

Issue proposal

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97
Q
What word is used to refer to the ability to recognise and appreciate one's own emotions?
A. Self awareness
B. Self-satisfaction
C. Empathy
D. Self-motivation
A

Self awareness

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98
Q
Which of the following is not a component of Emotional Intelligence?
A. Cognitive Skills
B. Self Awareness
C. Self Management
D. Motivation
A

Cognitive Skills

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99
Q

What competence will a person possess if he or she is capable of identifying a problem,
obstacle, or opportunity and acting on it?
A. Ability to take initiative
B. Accurate self-awareness
C. Sympathy
D. Self-control

A

Ability to take initiative

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100
Q
What word is used to define the 'abilities that individuals possess to direct workers toward the accomplishment of corporate objectives, inspire them and produce results'?
A. Social skills
B. Task skills
C. Performance skills
D. Leadership skills
A

Leadership skills

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101
Q

Which of the following is false regarding effective delegation?
A. Delegate larger and tougher tasks to newer staff
B. Pick the right person
C. Requirements of the job to match the abilities of the person
D. Communicate clear expectations

A

Delegate larger and tougher tasks to newer staff

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102
Q

Which of the following is not a feature or attribute of a successful leader?
A. Trust worthiness
B. Strong motivation
C. Because they are self-confident, they think they can manage anything.
D. High energy

A

Because they are self-confident, they think they can manage anything.

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103
Q

How would you define the action or process of motivating and collaborating a group of
individuals to operate successfully as a team?
A. Team building
B. Group
C. Individuals
D. Collaboration

A

Team building

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104
Q
What is the first stage in team development called?
A. Storming
B. Performing
C. Norming
D. Forming
A

Forming

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105
Q

What happens in adjourning stage of team development?
A. The team disbands as members move on to other ventures
B. Individual identities emerge
C. Members get to know each other
D. The team performs effectively

A

The team disbands as members move on to other ventures

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106
Q
Who is the person who talks about an already agreed-upon topic?
A. Presenter
B. Audience
C. Listener
D. Receiver
A

Presenter

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107
Q

Which of the following is a misleading statement about the beginning of a presentation?
A. Establishing your presence
B. Establishing your credibility
C. Preparing your audience for what will follow
D. Try to be someone you’re not

A

Try to be someone you’re not

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108
Q

Which presenting style enables the presenter to have a clear picture of the topic and the
audience to feel as if the presenter is speaking freely throughout the presentation?
A. Memorizing
B. Extempore
C. Reading
D. Manuscript Speech

A

Extempore

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109
Q
What is defined as a significant dispute or argument and is usually one that lasts a long time?
A. Conflict
B. Resolution
C. Ethics
D. Intention
A

Conflict

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110
Q
A conflict between two countries is an example of what type of conflict?
A. Racial conflict
B. Personal conflict
C. Political conflict
D. International conflict
A

International conflict

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111
Q
Who can influence others either to buy or not buy a company's products?
A. Suppliers
B. Employees
C. Investors
D. Customers
A

Customers

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112
Q
Who are internal stakeholders?
A. Government
B. Society
C. Creditors
D. Employees
A

Employees

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113
Q
What is the word used to express "choosing between two options, either of which may be right
or wrong."
A. Ethical Code
B. Ethical Dilemma
C. Ethical Climate
D. Ethical Decision
A

Ethical Dilemma

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114
Q
Which of the following is true for 'Ethics'?
A. One-off program
B. Optional for organizations
C. Not required in business
D. Ongoing journey
A

Ongoing journey

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115
Q
  1. Adam Smith was the proponent of which of the following views of economics?

A. Scarcity
B. Wealth
C. Growth
D. Welfare

A

B. Wealth

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116
Q
  1. How is the loss of the highest-valued alternative termed as?

A. Entrepreneurship
B. Scarcity
C. Marginal benefit
D. Opportunity cost

A

D. Opportunity cost

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117
Q
  1. Which theory is helpful in deciding the type of product to be produced, production levels & pricing decisions?

A. Demand theory
B. Capital theory
C. Profit theory
D. Welfare theory

A

A. Demand theory

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118
Q
  1. The law of demand states as price increases the demand of the product decreases. How do we term those goods whose demand changes in direct proportion to their price?

A. Normal Goods
B. Inferior goods
C. Veblen Goods
D. Substitutes

A

C. Veblen Goods

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119
Q
  1. When the income elasticity of a good is negative, what kind of good is it?

A. Superior good
B. Inferior good
C. Normal good
D. Veblen Goods

A

B. Inferior good

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120
Q
  1. Demand is the desire for a commodity to satisfy human wants backed by purchasing power. Which of the following options has a negative effect on demand?

A. Price of the product
B. Income of the Consumer
C. Advertising
D. Taste & Preferences

A

A. Price of the product

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121
Q
  1. Under which of the condition the law of diminishing returns will be applicable?

A. There is increasing scarcity of factors of production.
B. The price of extra units of a factor is increasing.
C. There is at least one fixed factor of production.
D. Capital is a variable input

A

C. There is at least one fixed factor of production.

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122
Q
  1. Which of the following would be an implicit cost for a firm?

A. Worker wages and salaries
B. Rent for the building
C. Payment for raw material
D. Wages foregone by the owner of the firm.

A

D. Wages foregone by the owner of the firm.

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123
Q
  1. How can we express Variable Costs?

A. They are multiplied by fixed costs.
B. The change in total cost resulting from the production of an additional unit of output.
C. Costs that change with the level of production.
D. They are sunk costs.

A

C. Costs that change with the level of production.

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124
Q
  1. Which of the following is true in case of a perfectly competitive market structure?

A. The firm’s marginal revenue is less than the market price of its product.
B. The firm’s marginal revenue decreases as the firm produces more output.
C. The firm’s marginal revenue increases as the firm produces more output.
D. The firm’s marginal revenue equals the market price of its product.

A

D. The firm’s marginal revenue equals the market price of its product.

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125
Q
  1. Perfect competition has many characteristics - number of sellers, type of products etc. Which of the following is true regarding the number of sellers and buyers in a perfect competition?

A. Small number
B. One seller and buyer
C. Large number
D. Few in number

A

C. Large number

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126
Q
  1. How do you classify a market system, where there is only one seller?

A. Monopoly
B. Monopolistic competition
C. Monopsony
D. Oligopoly

A

A. Monopoly

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127
Q
  1. In an oligopolistic market, what does kink demand curve indicate?

A. Price flexibility
B. Price rigidity
C. Price Infinity
D. Price negativity

A

B. Price rigidity

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128
Q
  1. Which of the following does not represents the Cournot model, for a firm?

A. Assume that rival firms will keep their production constant
B. Produce the quantity where marginal revenue equals marginal cost
C. Respond to changes in production by rival firms by adjusting its production
D. Assume that rival firms will never keep their production constant

A

D. Assume that rival firms will never keep their production constant

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129
Q
  1. According to the Bertrand model, a firm will assume that rival firms will

A. Keep their rates of production constant
B. Keep their prices constant
C. Match price cuts but not price increases
D. Match price increases but not price cuts

A

B. Keep their prices constant

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130
Q
  1. The World Bank’s environmentally sustainable development division has established a new index called:

A. Social Progress Indicator
B. Genuine Progress Indicator
C. Green Index
D. Gender-Related Development Index

A

C. Green Index

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131
Q
  1. What is the full form of GNI?

A. Gross national income
B. Gross net income
C. Green national income
D. Gross number income

A

A. Gross national income

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132
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of developing countries?

A. High unemployment
B. Low per capita income.
C. High per capita real income.
D. High percentage of people are below the poverty line.

A

C. High per capita real income.

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133
Q
  1. Monetary policy objectives include:

A. Price stability and credit availability
B. Price stability and food availability
C. Social happiness and government spending
D. Luxury of the rich classes

A

A. Price stability and credit availability

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134
Q
  1. An increase in CRR would mean:

A. Decreases credit and money supply
B. Increases credit and money supply
C. Increases credit and decreases money supply
D. Decreases credit and increases money supply

A

A. Decreases credit and money supply

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135
Q
  1. Monetary policy should aim primarily at:

A. Exchange rate control
B. Inflation control
C. Investment growth
D. Economic growth

A

B. Inflation control

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136
Q
  1. In which of the following sectors the employment terms are fixed and regular and the employees get assured work?

A. Unorganised sector
B. Public sector
C. Private sector
D. Organised sector

A

D. Organised sector

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137
Q
  1. In which of the following sectors the employment terms are not fixed and regular and the enterprises are not registered with the government?

A. Private sector
B. Organised sector
C. Unorganised sector
D. Public sector

A

C. Unorganised sector

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138
Q
  1. Which of the following sectors is controlled by the government or government entities?

A. Organised sector
B. Unorganised sector
C. Public sector
D. Private sector

A

C. Public sector

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139
Q
  1. Which of the following seeks to regulate the financial system in india?

A. Commercial bank
B. The Reserve Bank of India
C. Cooperative Banks
D. Specialised banks

A

B. The Reserve Bank of India

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140
Q
  1. The bank has to deposit a certain percentage of the total bank deposits to be kept in the current account with RBI. What is this ratio called?

A. Statutory Liquidity Ratio
B. Repo Rate
C. Cash reserve Ratio
D. Reverse Repo Rate

A

C. Cash reserve Ratio

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141
Q
  1. The Reserve Bank of India has announced that the commercial banks have to invest 5% of their deposits in government bonds. Which monetary policy instrument is discussed above?

A. Cash reserve Ratio
B. Reverse Repo Rate
C. Open Market Operations
D. Statutory Liquidity Ratio

A

D. Statutory Liquidity Ratio

142
Q
  1. Which from these cannot be classified as Qualified Institutional Buyers?

A. Banks
B. Financial Institutions
C. Insurance Cos.
D. High Net-worth Individual

A

D. High Net-worth Individual

143
Q
  1. Which entity is responsible for getting subscription from investors for public issues?

A. Custodians
B. Merchant Bankers
C. Registrars
D. Stockbrokers

A

B. Merchant Bankers

144
Q
  1. Without possessing this document investing in an IPO is not permitted; identify the document

A. Passport
B. Driving License
C. Voters ID
D. PAN Card

A

D. PAN Card

145
Q
Microeconomics deals with the study of Individual unit, what will be the scope under
Macroeconomics?
A. Industry
B. Business Unit
C. Economy
D. World
A

Economy

146
Q
. How significant is the role of Government in a free market economy?
A. Highly significant
B. Moderately significant
C. Moderately insignificant
D. Highly insignificant
A

Moderately significant

147
Q
What is the Primary goal of a Command Economy?
A. Public welfare
B. Economic welfare
C. Human welfare
D. Business welfare
A

Public welfare

148
Q
The Law of Supply indicates the Relationship between?
A. Price and Quantity
B. Price and Quality
C. Price and Supplier
D. Price and Supply
A

Price and Supply

149
Q
In case of Unitary Elastic demand if price changes by15% then it will lead to?
A. No change in demand
B. 35% change in demand
C. 25% change in demand
D. 15% change in demand
A

15% change in demand

150
Q
Survey method of demand forecasting is more appropriate for?
A. Long term predictions
B. Short term predictions
C. Medium term predictions
D. Very long term predictions
A

Short term predictions

151
Q
At the equilibrium point between Iso cost and Iso quant, what is the position of the Iso quant?
A. Tangent to Iso cost
B. Rectangular hyperbola
C. Concave to Iso cost
D. convex to Iso cost
A

Tangent to Iso cost

152
Q
The condition achieved at the Break Even Point is?
A. AR=AC
B. MR=MC
C. TR=TC
D. Sales = Profit
A

TR=TC

153
Q
Production function explains the technical relationship between which of the two factors?
A. Input and Output
B. Production and Cost
C. Cost and Profit
D. Production and Profit
A

Input and Output

154
Q
What is the necessary condition for a firm to arrive at equilibrium condition in market competition?
A. AR=AC
B. MR=MC
C. TR=TC
D. MC= AC
A

MR=MC

155
Q
What is the key characteristic of Monopoly market condition?
A. Large number of seller
B. More Close substitutes
C. Price discrimination
D. Price perfection
A

Price discrimination

156
Q
Which market characteristics are observed in Monopoly market?
A. More use of labour
B. More substitutes
C. Free entry and Exit
D. Blocked entry & exit
A

Blocked entry & exit

157
Q
Which of the following characteristics is always present in Oligopoly market?
A. Non Price competition
B. Collusion
C. Price Stability
D. Interdependency of firms
A

Interdependency of firms

158
Q

If all the firms in the Oligopoly market Collude, what is the outcome?
A. Profit of the industry is maximized
B. Each firm makes a loss
C. Industry output is minimized
D. Profit of the industry is at its lowest

A

Profit of the industry is maximized

159
Q
In which type of Oligopoly market conditions, Cartels are formed?
A. Collusive Oligopoly
B. Non collusive oligopoly
C. Pure oligopoly
D. Open oligopoly
A

Collusive Oligopoly

160
Q
What is the fundamental reason for Increase in Poverty in India?
A. Over utilisation of resources
B. Under utilisation of resources
C. Full employment
D. Dependence on Agriculture
A

Under utilisation of resources

161
Q

Expand NITI Aayog.
A. National Institute to Transform India
B. National Institution for Transforming India
C. National Institute Transformation India
D. National Institute to Transact India

A

National Institution for Transforming India

162
Q
The total of all kinds of Income received by an Individual from various sources is called as?
A. Personal Disposable Income
B. National Income
C. GDP
D. Personal Income
A

Personal Income

163
Q
Identify the act that was abolished after the New Economic Policy was passed?
A. MRMP
B. MDPE
C. MRRP
D. MRTP
A

MRTP

164
Q
What is the other name associated with Fiscal policy?
A. Monetary policy
B. Trade policy
C. Budgetary policy
D. Money policy
A

Budgetary policy

165
Q
Which of the following is NOT a type of GST?
A. SGST
B. CGST
C. UGST
D. RGST
A

RGST

166
Q
Which two factors are considered while formulating Saving Function?
A. Income and consumption
B. Price and saving
C. Saving and income
D. Consumption and saving
A

Income and consumption

167
Q
Product method of calculating national income is also known as?
A. Value added method
B. Income method
C. Expenditure method
D. Saving method
A

Value added method

168
Q
What is the ultimate Outcome when Business cycle is at its lowest point?
A. Recession
B. Recovery
C. Shut down the economy
D. Open up the economy
A

Shut down the economy

169
Q
Which type of occupation is still considered as Primary occupation in India?
A. Manufacturing economy
B. Service economy
C. Single economy
D. Agricultural economy
A

Agricultural economy

170
Q
Which of the following is NOT included in Primary occupation of India?
A. Agriculture
B. Fishery
C. Animal Husbandry
D. Nuclear power
A

Nuclear power

171
Q
Who is the Supreme Banking authority in India?
A. SEBI
B. RBI
C. FCCI
D. SBI
A

RBI

172
Q
Which of the following is NOT a role of Financial Intermediaries?
A. Maturity transformation
B. Brokerage
C. Risk Transformation
D. Setting exchange rates
A

Setting exchange rates

173
Q

What is Open Market Operations?
A. Borrowing by Scheduled banks from RBI
B. Lending by commercial banks to industry
C. Purchase and sale of govt securities by the RBI
D. Lending by Commercial banks to RBI

A

Purchase and sale of govt securities by the RBI

174
Q
Who regulates money supply in India?
A. Commercial banks
B. SBI
C. RBI
D. NABARD
A

RBI

175
Q
  1. Which from the given option expresses how often something occurs?

A. Frequency
B. Mid Value
C. Class Interval
D. Cumulative Frequency

A

A. Frequency

176
Q
  1. Which one of the following methods is used for the estimation of the population in a country?

A. Census method
B. Sampling method
C. Random method
D. Stratummethod

A

A. Census method

177
Q
  1. What kind of data are contained in the census of population and national income estimates, for the government?

A. Primary data
B. Secondary data
C. Internal data
D. External data

A

B. Secondary data

178
Q
  1. Geometric mean is better than other means when?

A. The data are positive as well as negative
B. The data are in ratios or percentages
C. Thedataarebinary
D. Thedataareonintervalscale

A

B. The data are in ratios or percentages

179
Q
  1. The A.M of two numbers is 6.5 and their G.M is 6 .What are the two numbers?

A. 9,6
B. 9,5
C. 7,6
D. 4,9

A

D. 4,9

180
Q
  1. If the grouped data has open end classes which one cannot calculate?

A. Median
B. Mode
C. Mean
D. Quartiles

A

C. Mean

181
Q
  1. The mean of the absolute deviation of the observations from an appropriate average is known as which dispersion?

A. Q.D
B. M.D
C. Range
D. S.D

A

B. M.D

182
Q
  1. Mean deviation taken from which measures of central tendency is least?

A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. G.M

A

B. Median

183
Q
  1. If all the values taken by a variable ‘x’ is a constant k, what is the M.D?

A. 0
B. 1
C. Infinity
D. N

A

A. 0

184
Q
  1. What is the method of selecting a desirable portion from a population which describes the characteristics of whole population is called as?

A. Sampling
B. Segregating
C. Dividing
D. Implanting

A

A. Sampling

185
Q
  1. What type of events are A and B, if P(A ∩ B) = 0 ?

A. Mutually Exclusive
B. Exhaustive
C. Equally Likely
D. Independent

A

A. Mutually Exclusive

186
Q
  1. If there is a perfect agreement between the masks in geography and statistics, then what would be the value of rank correlation coefficient?

A. 0
B. 1
C. -1
D. N

A

B. 1

187
Q
  1. What is the quickest method to find correlation between two variables?

A. Scatter diagram
B. Karl Pearson coefficient of correlation
C. Spearman’s rank correlation
D. Coefficient of concurrent deviation method

A

A. Scatter diagram

188
Q
  1. If the data is collected for two variables simultaneously, which is called as?

A. Bi-variate data
B. Uni-variate data
C. Multi-variatedata
D. Simpledata

A

A. Bi-variate data

189
Q
  1. If the critical region is equally distributed then what is the test is referred as?

A. One Tailed
B. Two Tailed
C. Left Tailed
D. Right Tailed

A

B. Two Tailed

190
Q
  1. What is the Probability of Type I error is referred as?

A. 1-α
B. α
C. β
D. 1–β

A

B. α

191
Q
  1. What is the region of acceptance of H0 called?

A. Critical Region
B. Test statistics
C. Type-I Error
D. Acceptance Region

A

D. Acceptance Region

192
Q
  1. Among the following steps in LPP, what is the first step?

A. Mention the constraints
B. Identify the decision variables
C. Write the objective function
D. Explicitly state the non-negativity restriction

A

B. Identify the decision variables

193
Q
  1. The general structure of an LP model consists of how many basic components?

A. Three
B. Four
C. Two
D. Five

A

A. Three

194
Q
  1. Application software is used to accomplish specific tasks other than just running the computer system. Which of the following are an example of Application software.

A. Linux and Unix
B. DOS and Mac OSX
C. MS PowerPoint and word
D. MS windows and opera

A

C. MS PowerPoint and word

195
Q
  1. A multi-user computer capable of supporting from 10 to 100 users simultaneously. the type of computer from the statement.

A. Personal computer
B. Workstation
C. Mainframe
D. Minicomputer

A

D. Minicomputer

196
Q
  1. The main component of the computer which is responsible for all the functions and processes. Identify the component of the computer.

A. Hard drive
B. CPU
C. Monitor
D. Projector

A

B. CPU

197
Q
  1. Extension name helps in identifying the type of file. What is the extension name of MS word?

A. .xlsx
B. .pptx
C. .txt
D. .docx

A

D. .docx

198
Q
  1. The bar is at the bottom and displays the page number, Line number, word count, zoom, etc. Identify the type of bar stated.

A. Title bar
B. Status bar
C. Quick bar
D. File menu bar

A

B. Status bar

199
Q
  1. The Quick access Toolbar is a customizable toolbar that provides easy access to any command in the application. Identify the commands included in this toolbar.

A. Update and view
B. Save, Undo and Redo
C. Page number and Line number
D. Word count and zoom

A

B. Save, Undo and Redo

200
Q
  1. Which of the following controls all the main slide control tasks for your presentation?

A. Task Pane
B. Task Bar
C. Control Panel
D. MSPPT

A

A. Task Pane

201
Q
  1. Which of the following is not available in Task Pane?

A. Getting Started
B. Clip Art
C. Word Art
D. Search Results

A

C. Word Art

202
Q
  1. Which from the given options is NOT a product of MS Office?

A. PPT
B. Edge
C. Excel
D. PDF

A

D. PDF

203
Q
  1. The South African government is concerned about the high incidence of HIV/AIDS in South Africa. They wish to estimate the actual number of people in South Africa who are HIV positive. A random sample of 5000 people was tested, and 1980 of them were HIV positive. What is the statistic?
    A. The 5000 people sampled
    B. All the people in South Africa
    C. The 1980 people sampled who were HIV positive
    D. Impossible to calculate from the given information
A

C. The 1980 people sampled who were HIV positive

204
Q
  1. A college is trying to estimate the percentage of their MBA (Finance) students who have access to a home computer. A random sample of 550 students of the college were picked and asked. What is the population of interest in this experiment?
    A. All the MBA students who are registered in the finance faculty
    B. All the MBA students of the college
    C. All the 550 students who were interviewed
    D. All the MBA students who have computers at home
A

A. All the MBA students who are registered in the finance faculty

205
Q
  1. For a business unit the following data represents the number of employees interested in various sports: Football - 10; Hockey - 5; Cricket - 5; Basketball - 10 and Badminton - 10
    On a Pie chart, what is the degree of pie sector for Cricket and Basketball?
    A. 25 degrees and 60 degrees respectively
    B. 45 degrees and 90 degrees respectively
    C. 25 degrees and 50 degrees respectively
    D. 5 degrees and 10 degrees respectively
A

B. 45 degrees and 90 degrees respectively

206
Q
  1. For a business unit the following data represents the number of employees interested in various sports: Football - 10; Hockey - 5; Cricket - 5; Basketball - 10 and Badminton - 10
    On a Pie chart, what is the degree of pie sector for Hockey?
    A. 5 degrees
    B. 25 degrees
    C. 90 degrees
    D. 45 degrees
A

D. 45 degrees

207
Q
  1. A sports company is assessing the market for the launch of a new shoe style for school kids. The following data shows the number of school kids who liked the new shoe style from 17 different schools: 4; 5; 6; 6; 6; 7; 7; 7; 7; 7; 7; 7; 8; 8; 8; 9; and 10
    What is the inference of central tendency statistics?
    A. Mean >Median < Mode B. Mean < Median < Mode C. Mean > Median > Mode D. Mean = Median = Mode
A

D. Mean = Median = Mode

208
Q
6. For a cricket match, the home team won with marginal runs. The score card showed that 3 players made runs with a score lower than the average, 1 got out on zero, 4 players scored runs which are very low, and only 2 players made the highest scores and which resulted in the team's success. How does skewness of the score-player distribution look like in a frequency distribution graph?
A. Positively skewed
B. Negatively skewed
C. No skewness showing symmetry
D. No skewness but showing asymmetry
A

B. Negatively skewed

209
Q
7. An economy shows a wide gap between the earnings of its population. The data shows a right skewness of the earnings wherein maximum population has low salary. How can central tendency measures be interpreted from above data?
A. Mean> Median> Mode
B. Mean< Median> Mode
C. Mean< Median< Mode
D. Mean= Median= Mode
A

A. Mean> Median> Mode

210
Q
8. 500 undergrads were tested on their Quantitative aptitude. What is the statistical term for half of the difference between upper and lower quartiles?
A. Interquartile Range
B. Quartile Deviation
C. Mean Deviation
D. Standard Deviation
A

A. Interquartile Range

211
Q
9. A data set shows a symmetrical distribution. If Q3 – Q1= 20 and the Median= 15. What is the value of Q3?
A. 25
B. 20 
C. 15 
D. 5
A

A. 25

212
Q
  1. A company has three projects running- P, Q and R. Number of workers in each are 100, 200 and 300 respectively. The mean of the wages for workers is the same in all the three projects. Which of the following statements is TRUE in the given scenario?
    A. Standard deviation in Project P is the smallest
    B. Standard deviation in all the three projects are equal
    C. Standard deviation in Project R is the smallest
    D. Standard deviation in Project Q is the smallest
A

C. Standard deviation in Project R is the smallest

213
Q
  1. A box contains 6 Red and 5 Green gift packages of same size. A package is drawn at random without replacement. What is the probability of picking the second green package in 2nd attempt, if the 1st package drawn was Green?

A. (4/10)
B. (2/10)
C. (4/11)
D. (2/11)

A

A. (4/10)

214
Q
12. Under what given condition the multiplication law is potentially helpful when we are interested in computing the probability?
A. For Mutually exclusive events
B. For the union of two events
C. For the intersection of two events
D. For independent events
A

C. For the intersection of two events

215
Q
13. In an experiment, two events A and B are found to be mutually exclusive events with P(A)=0.3 and P(B)=0.5 then what is P(A∪B) equal to?
A. 0
B. 0.15 
C. 0.8 
D. 0.2
A

C. 0.8

216
Q
  1. Regression analysis is a technique for finding the best-fitting line for 2 or more given set of data.
    Which among the following is the exact use of a regression line shown as: y = mx + b?
    A. To determine if any y-values are outliers
    B. To determine if any x-values are outliers
    C. To estimate the change in y for a one-unit change in x
    D. To determine if a change in x causes a change in y
A

C. To estimate the change in y for a one-unit change in x

217
Q
15. Regression analysis was applied between sales (y) and advertising (x) for an MNC. The following regression function was obtained. Y = 5000 + 7.5x. Which value in this equation represents the intercept and the slope of the regression line?
A. Intercept = 5000; Slope= 7.5
B. Intercept = 7.5; Slope= 5000
C. Intercept = 2500; Slope= 15
D. Intercept = 15; Slope= 2500
A

A. Intercept = 5000; Slope= 7.5

218
Q
16. Operations Research takes tools from different discipline such as mathematics, statistics, economics, psychology, engineering etc. and combines these tools to make a new set of knowledge for:
A. Decision making
B. Advertisement
C. Sales
D. Manufacturing
A

A. Decision making

219
Q
  1. For a problem to be a Linear Programming Problem, the decision variables, objective function and constraints all have to be ________ functions.

A. Linear
B. Exponential
C. Non-linear
D. Optimal

A

A. Linear

220
Q
18. Decision Variables are: 
A. Controllable
B. Uncontrollable 
C. Parameters
D. Quantitative
A

D. Quantitative

221
Q
19. Which method is used to find IBFS for a given transportation problem?
A. Graphical method
B. Least cost method
C. MODI method
D. Hungarian method
A

B. Least cost method

222
Q
20. Transportation problem is a Special type of:
A. Network Problem
B. Linear Programming Problem
C. Travelling Salesman Problem
D. Queuing Problem
A

B. Linear Programming Problem

223
Q
21. Which of the IBFS method is close to the optimal solution in transportation problem?
A. North-West Corner Rule
B. Least Cost Method
C. Vogel's Approximation Method
D. Hungarian Method
A

C. Vogel’s Approximation Method

224
Q
22. In an assignment problem, the number of allocation in each row and column are:
A. Zero
B. Not equal
C. Equal
D. Can't be determined
A

C. Equal

225
Q
23. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is used to balance an assignment problem.
A. Destinations, Sources
B. Units supplied, Units demanded
C. Dummy row, Dummy column
D. Artificial cells, Degenerate cells
A

C. Dummy row, Dummy column

226
Q
  1. An assignment problem requires that:
    A. Only one activity be assigned to each resource
    B. One activity be assigned to many resources
    C. One activity be assigned to three resources
    D. One activity be assigned to two resources
A

A. Only one activity be assigned to each resource

227
Q
25. CPM in the context of project management stands for:
A. Critical Path Method
B. Critical Project Management
C. Critical Path Management
D. Computer Parts Management
A

A. Critical Path Method

228
Q
26. The optimistic time=1, Pessimistic time = 7 and Most likely time = 1. The Expected Duration and Variane for this activity is:
A. 2 and 1 respectively
B. 1 and 2 respectively 
C. 2 and 0 respectively 
D. 1 and 0 respectively
A

A. 2 and 1 respectively

229
Q
27. Which is the default alignment in word?
A. Left
B. Right 
C. Center 
D. Justify
A

A. Left

230
Q
28. A number or letter that appears little below the normal text is called: 
A. Superscript
B. Subscript
C. Supertext 
D. Bottomtext
A

B. Subscript

231
Q
  1. In MS Excel, the name box to the left of the formula bar:
    A. Stores the address of the activated cell or range
    B. Stores the name of the active shett
    C. Stores the name of the workbook
    D. Is always empty
A

A. Stores the address of the activated cell or range

232
Q
30. The basic unit of a worksheet into which you enter data in Excel is called as a:
A. Cell
B. Table 
C. Column
D. Row
A

A. Cell

233
Q
  1. Which model embodies a team concept, based on the principle of mutual contribution by employer and employees?

A. Autocratic model
B. Collegial Model
C. Custodial model
D. Supportive Model

A

B. Collegial Model

234
Q
  1. Which model believes in the model “might is right”?

A. Autocratic model
B. Collegial Model
C. Custodialmodel
D. Supportive Model

A

A. Autocratic model

235
Q
  1. As a manager, one of Mukesh’s duties is to present awards to outstanding employees within his department. Which Mintzberg managerial role is James acting in when he does this?

A. Liaison Role
B. Figurehead Role
C. Monitor Role
D. Leadership Role

A

B. Figurehead Role

236
Q
  1. Identify the work behaviour by which employee try to usurp other employees’ duties.

A. Commander
B. Attacker
C. Pleaser
D. Avoider

A

A. Commander

237
Q
  1. Identify the job related attitude in which employee actively take part in the job and consider performance important to self-worth.

A. Organisational Commitment
B. Job involvement
C. Employee engagement
D. Organisational support

A

B. Job involvement

238
Q
  1. Identify the personality trait in which individual try to be himself and not being social.

A. Introvert
B. Extrovert
C. Narcissism
D. Machiavellianism

A

A. Introvert

239
Q
  1. What is this power known as: Power of Doctor to decide in an operation theatre?

A. Expert
B. Referrent
C. Reward
D. Coercive

A

A. Expert

240
Q
  1. What is the synonym of Positive conflict?

A. Functional
B. Dysfunctional
C. Diagnostic
D. Systematic

A

A. Functional

241
Q
  1. They are considered to be critics as a team members. Who are they?

A. Devils advocacy
B. Authority
C. Coalition
D. Catalyst

A

A. Devils advocacy

242
Q
  1. Who defined the division of labour?

A. Robert Owen
B. Henry Fayol
C. Adam Smith
D. Edward D Binno

A

C. Adam Smith

243
Q
  1. Which theory states an organisation as a system?

A. Modern
B. Classical
C. Neo Classical
D. Geo Classical

A

A. Modern

244
Q
  1. In which country can Albiet organisation be traced early as 2900 BC?

A. America
B. London
C. India
D. Egypt

A

D. Egypt

245
Q
  1. Which structure is also called as entrepreneural organisation?

A. Combined
B. Simple
C. Comples
D. Matrix

A

B. Simple

246
Q
  1. Which oranisation is know as innovative organisation?

A. Personal
B. Adhocracy
C. Divisional
D. Professional

A

B. Adhocracy

247
Q
  1. Who is regarded as Father of Strategic Management?

A. Igor Ansoff
B. Adam SMith
C. Webber
D. F W Taylor

A

A. Igor Ansoff

248
Q
  1. What refers to degree of authority in an organisation?

A. Resources
B. Alliances
C. Influence
D. Security

A

C. Influence

249
Q
  1. Which organisational structure is also known as Flat organisation structure?

A. Horizontal
B. Matrix
C. Vertical
D. Virtual

A

A. Horizontal

250
Q
  1. In which of the following sectors, organisations are owned by individuals?

A. Secondary sector
B. Primary sector
C. Publicsector
D. Private sector

A

D. Private sector

251
Q
  1. Identify the kind of culture where there is less need for detailed policies and procedures.

A. Strong culture
B. Basic culture
C. Weakculture
D. Mini-culture

A

A. Strong culture

252
Q
  1. An organization’s culture defines and guides the way to behave within the organization. Which organizational culture is related to individualism?

A. Weak culture
B. Strong culture
C. Dominant culture
D. Market culture

A

A. Weak culture

253
Q
  1. A good organizational culture requires a spirit of cooperativeness and an amicable environment. Identify the name of the process wherein all the employees and owners of the organization interact with each other.

A. Socialization
B. Openness
C. Consultative process
D. Adaptability process

A

A. Socialization

254
Q
  1. What do we call the process of determining whether the firm will be able to secure employees with the necessary skills and from what sources?

A. Forecasting availability of resources
B. Market Analysis
C. Supplyofresources
D. Social Security

A

A. Forecasting availability of resources

255
Q
  1. What is the other name given to Voluntary Retirement Schemes /VRS?

A. GoldenAircraft
B. Golden Handcuff
C. Golden Parachute
D. Golden Handshake

A

D. Golden Handshake

256
Q
  1. What is the process of ensuring that the qualified person is available to assume a managerial position once a position is vacant called?

A. Human Resource Planning
B. Career Planning
C. Succession Planning
D. Organization Planning

A

C. Succession Planning

257
Q
  1. Identify from the options given the internal factor where remuneration can be decided on the basis of employees ‘performance, experience in a particular area, skills, knowledge, and competencies.

A. Productivity
B. Cost of living
C. Effectiveness
D. Employee capability

A

D. Employee capability

258
Q
  1. There are various ways by which organizations try to motivate and engage the employees. One such is the Stock Options which can be also called as:

A. Retirement benefits
B. Bonus
C. Perquisites
D. Co-partnership

A

D. Co-partnership

259
Q
  1. Provided by businesses over and above the monthly wages of an employee, often of a non-monetary type is termed as the following:

A. Productivity
B. Perquisites
C. Cost of living
D. Balance of Work-Life

A

B. Perquisites

260
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of trade union?

A. Voluntaryassociation
B. Common goals
C. Intermediary
D. Individual actions

A

D. Individual actions

261
Q
  1. Which kind of union is focused on making the skills of its members valuable and not easily replaceable in the organization?

A. Industrialunion
B. Occupational union
C. Generalunion
D. White-collar union

A

B. Occupational union

262
Q
  1. The International Labour Organization (ILO) was established shortly after the First World War in which year?

A. 1935
B. 1930
C. 1929
D. 1919

A

D. 1919

263
Q
The standards that an individual adopts when making an appraisal of someone or something is
referred to as:
A. Values
B. Change
C. Attitude
D. Culture
A

Values

264
Q
This is known as the ability to affect others for the sake of accomplishing only one goal:
A. Introversion
B. Conservatism and Dynamism
C. Machiavellianism
D. Dynamism
A

Machiavellianism

265
Q
The extent to which a person considers himself to be capable and important is referred as what?
A. Inquisitiveness
B. Tolerance
C. Self-Esteem
D. Practical
A

Self-Esteem

266
Q

What is the temporary alliance of two or more individuals or organisations that, for the shared
objective, combine their efforts and resources?
A. Power
B. Politics
C. Authority
D. Coalition

A

Coalition

267
Q
In contemporary organisations what is a part of the power struggle?
A. Legitimation of Tactics
B. Coalition Tactics
C. Pressure Tactics
D. Expert Power
A

Pressure Tactics

268
Q
Use of intimidation, personal attacks and deceit is an example of:
A. Organizational Dispute
B. Dysfunctional Conflict
C. Grievance
D. Functional Conflict
A

Dysfunctional Conflict

269
Q
What brings together different departments by combining similar and related workers under a
common specialization?
A. Efficient Administration
B. Resource Optimization
C. Promotes effectively communication
D. Expansion and Growth
A

Efficient Administration

270
Q
Which structure will suit an organization which has several different product lines and business
divisions?
A. Entrepreneurial Organization
B. Professional Association
C. Adhocracy
D. Divisional (Diversified Organization)
A

Divisional (Diversified Organization)

271
Q
It is important that the learning of all its employees be encouraged and maintained by what kind
of Organizations?
A. Entrepreneurial Organization
B. Professional Association
C. Adhocracy
D. Learning Organizations
A

Learning Organizations

272
Q
Realistic steps to accomplish the vision and aim that a company has planned is referred as:
A. Mission
B. Strategy
C. Plan
D. Operative goals
A

Operative goals

273
Q

Leaders need to know the demographic composition, culture of the organisation’s consumers
and consumer patterns to design goods and services for unique populations, what does this
attributes to?
A. Factors in sociology
B. Factors of economic and political importance
C. Engineering
D. Factors in psychology

A

Factors in sociology

274
Q

. To help the organisation adapt to technology, leaders must adapt this management style. What
can transform the business climate drastically?
A. Organizational Climate
B. Engineering Technology
C. Roles of Employee
D. Factors in sociology

A

Engineering Technology

275
Q
How does a business maintain responsibility and rewards of the workers based on professional
conduct?
A. Horizontal communication
B. Vertical communication
C. Consistently communication
D. Reporting relationships
A

Reporting relationships

276
Q

. Since managers in large organizations may have trouble keeping track of all the products and
activities of their business, specialized departments may follow which kind of Organization
Structure?
A. Matrix structure
B. Divisional Structure
C. Organization structure
D. Network structure

A

Divisional Structure

277
Q

Whose behaviour may not be regulated by you, but you can research it and learn how to
respond to changes that might affect your sales?
A. Competitors
B. Customer
C. Leadership
D. Employees

A

Customer

278
Q
The set of principles, standards, and behaviours that direct the activities of all team members
can be referred as:
A. Organisational culture
B. Dominant culture
C. Subculture
D. Institutional subculture
A

Organisational culture

279
Q

Which of the following explains that the Organizational leaders must also practice what they
preach and be confident that they model the ideal habits they want to nurture within their
organizations for others?
A. Provide remedial input
B. Modelling Desirable Behaviour
C. Skill Building and Problem Solving emphasis
D. Provide the tools that people need to behave ethically

A

Modelling Desirable Behaviour

280
Q

Organizations should create employees who think of the organisation as their own and make
choices to make things happen, these employees are referred as:
A. Teams
B. Team players
C. Employees
D. Intrapreneurs

A

Intrapreneurs

281
Q
The method of aggressively searching, identifying applicants for a particular job or position is
referred as:
A. Promotion
B. Transfer
C. Man power planning
D. Recruitment
A

Recruitment

282
Q
Education institutions, including colleges and universities, give alternatives for hiring students,
this is an example of?
A. External Recruitment
B. Advertising
C. Campus Recruiting
D. Placement
A

Campus Recruiting

283
Q
Process of seeking prospective applicant from inside or outside the company who is eligible to
apply for the vacancy is referred as:
A. Scrutiny of Applications
B. Inviting Application
C. Scanning Applications
D. Selecting
A

Inviting Application

284
Q
Every business is becoming data-driven enterprise due to which there is an ever-growing
demand for:
A. Artificial Intelligence (AI)
B. Gamification
C. Virtual Reality
D. Augmented Reality
A

Artificial Intelligence (AI)

285
Q
With regard to the qualities / attributes of an employee, database is maintained as “Yes or No",
in which method of appraisal?
A. Critical Incidents
B. Ranking Appraisal
C. Checklist Scale
D. Project Evaluation Review
A

Checklist Scale

286
Q

In which method the employees are provided with information about an imaginary enterprise,
its operations and goods, employed HR, and all company-related details?
A. Role Playing
B. Lectures
C. Grid training
D. In - basket method

A

In - basket method

287
Q
What is the amount of money paid over and above the salary or compensation to an employee
as a reward for his good work termed as?
A. Bonus
B. Profit-Sharing
C. Retirement benefits
D. Perquisites
A

Bonus

288
Q
What refers to the environmental characteristics of an organization that are perceived by its emloyees and have a major influence on their behaviour?
A. Organizational Climate
B. Organization culture
C. Organization structure
D. Organization function
A

Organization culture

289
Q
Which of the following is usually not an objective of industrial relations?
A. Contentedness
B. Collective wisdom
C. Conflict prevention
D. Expanding Market share
A

Expanding Market share

290
Q
What can be used for recruiting the right employees in an organization?
A. HR Analytics
B. Internship
C. Fellowship
D. Research
A

HR Analytics

291
Q

The scope of international human resource management (IHRM) includes:
A. Staff recruitment
B. Staff development
C. Compensation
D. Staff recruitment, staff development and Compensation

A

Staff recruitment, staff development and Compensation

292
Q
Web-based technology is included in:
A. EHRM
B. HRCS
C. HR
D. HRCC
A

EHRM

293
Q
  1. Income is measured on the basis of which concept?

A. Entity concept
B. Accounting period concept
C. Going concern concept
D. Business entity concept

A

B. Accounting period concept

294
Q
  1. Human resources will not appear in the balance sheet according to which concept?

A. Accrualconcept
B. Going concern concept
C. Money measurement concept
D. Business entity concept

A

C. Moneymeasurementconcept

295
Q
  1. Fresh capital introduction will increase which from the given components?

A. AssetsandLiabilities
B. Assets and Equity
C. Liabilities and Equity and Bank Balance
D. Capitaland Liabilities

A

B. Assets and Equity

296
Q
  1. Gopal is our debtor for Rs. 10,000. He became insolvent and only 60 paise in a Rupee is received from him. The balance of Rs. 4,000 would be entered to which account?

A. DebitdiscountA/c.
B. Credit discount A/c.
C. Debit bad debt A/c.
D. Credit bad debt A/c.

A

C. Debit bad debt A/c.

297
Q
  1. Payment of Rs. 6,000 as wages to workmen for installation of a machine should be debited to which account?

A. WagesA/c.
B. Installation A/c.
C. Machinery A/c.
D. Repairs A/c.

A

C. Machinery A/c.

298
Q
  1. Which of the following is recorded on the credit side of the Cash Book?

A. Credit Purchases
B. Salary paid
C. Dividend received
D. Cash Sales

A

B. Salary paid

299
Q
  1. Certain resources are owned by the business with purpose of using it for generating future profit. What are they known as?

A. Capital
B. Asset
C. Liability
D. Surplus

A

B. Asset

300
Q
  1. Where does Cash Account get classified under the golden rules of accounting principles?

A. Personal Account
B. Nominal Account
C. Real Account
D. Suspense Account

A

C. Real Account

301
Q
  1. What is the difference between revenue received and cost of goods sold?

A. GrossProfit/Loss
B. Revenue
C. Cost of goods sold
D. Expenses

A

A. GrossProfit/Loss

302
Q
  1. Total revenue from operations Rs.9,00,000; Cash revenue from operations Rs.3,00,000; Debtors Rs.1,00,000; B/R Rs.20,000. Debtors Turnover Ratio will be:

A. 5 Times
B. 6 Times
C. 7.5 Times
D. 9 Times

A

A. 5 Times

303
Q
  1. Revenue from Operations Rs.6,00,000; Gross Profit 20%; Office Expenses Rs.30,000; Selling Expenses Rs.48,000. Calculate operating expense ratio.

A. 80%
B. 85%
C. 96%
D. 93%

A

D. 93%

304
Q
  1. A firm has a capital of Rs. 10 lakhs, sales of Rs. 5 lakhs, gross profit of Rs. 2 lakhs and expenses of Rs. 1 lakh. What is the Gross Profit Ratio?

A. 0.5
B. 0.4
C. 0.2
D. 0.1

A

B. 0.4

305
Q
  1. Which analysis is a system for determination of that level of activity where total cost equals total selling price?

A. Break even analysis
B. CVP analysis
C. Absorption costing
D. Marginal costing

A

A. Break even analysis

306
Q
15. What is the effect on total fixed cost if the level of activity increases by 20%?
A. Decreases by 20%
B. Increases by 20%
C. Increases by 40%
D. Does not change
A

D. Does not change

307
Q
  1. Treasurers and Controllers are:

A. Financial Manager
B. CFO
C. CEO
D. CFO and CEO

A

A. Financial Manager

308
Q
17. Which concept of increasing the value of a business in order to increase the value of the shares?
A. Profit maximization
B. Wealth maximization
C. BothProfitandWealth
D. Neither Profit nor wealth
A

B. Wealth maximization

309
Q
  1. What is Long Term Investment decision also referred to?

A. Working capital
B. Liquidity
C. Capital budgeting
D. Capital rationing

A

C. Capital budgeting

310
Q
  1. The difference between present value of cash inflows and present value of cash outflows

A. Gross present value
B. Net Working Capital
C. Net present value
D. Fair Market Value

A

C. Net present value

311
Q
  1. The process of finding the present value is the reverse of finding the?

A. Intrinsic Value
B. Nominal value
C. Future Value
D. Fair Value

A

C. Future Value

312
Q
  1. If an organization deals with several products, its break-even point can be calculated with the help of:

A. Cash BEP
B. Composite BEP
C. Cost BEP
D. Simple BEP

A

B. Composite BEP

313
Q
  1. The Excel function for calculating the present value of a single future cash flow is as follows: = P V (rate, nper, pmt, fv, type),. What does pmt stand for?

A. The recurring cash flow
B. The number of payment periods
C. The future value of the cash flow
D. The rate of interest

A

A. The recurring cash flow

314
Q
  1. The cost of an equipment amounted to Rs 240,000 and the salvage value of Rs 30,000 at the end of 10 years. The annual cash flow amount to Rs 30,000. Compute the payback period.

A. 10 Years
B. 5 Years
C. 8 Years
D. 7 Years

A

C. 8 Years

315
Q
25. What is the formula to calculate Weighted Average Cost of Capital?
A. kc = kd - Wd + ke ∗ We
B. kc= kd+ Wd+ ke∗We
C. kc= kd- Wd- ke∗We
D. kc = kd ∗ Wd + ke ∗ We
A

D. kc = kd ∗ Wd + ke ∗ We

316
Q
26. Which factor is in favor of using more of debt capital?
A. Tax advantage
B. Debt equity norms
C. Leverage effect
D. Security of assets
A

A. Tax advantage

317
Q
27. The tax benefit is present in which of the following sources of capital :
A. Cost of Equity
B. Cost of Debt
C. Cost of Preference Shares
D. Cost of Retained Earnings
A

B. Cost of Debt

318
Q
28. Which net working capital will arise when current liabilities exceed current assets?
A. Positive
B. Excessive 
C. Negative 
D. Summative
A

C. Negative

319
Q
  1. The firm’s investment in current assets is also referred by what?

A. Zero working capital
B. Gross working capital
C. Net working capital
D. Distinctive working capital

A

B. Gross working capital

320
Q
30. Which of these is not a suggestive Working Capital financing options?
A. Factoring
B. Line of Credit
C. Invoice Discounting
D. Long-term loan against fixed assets
A

D. Long-term loan against fixed assets

321
Q
1. Which is the first book of entry?
A. Ledger
B. Journal
C. Subsidiary book
D. Trial balance
A

B. Journal

322
Q
2. 'The loyalty of workers being intangible cannot be quantified, and thus the same can find no place in the books of accounts'. This is an example of which accounting principle?
A.Money measurement concept
B. Separate Business Entity 
C. Cost concept
D. Matching concept
A

A.Money measurement concept

323
Q
3. What is the independent accounting body based in London, known as?
A. ICAI
B. ASB
C. IASB
D. GAAP
A

C. IASB

324
Q
4. What is the collective process of recording, processing, classifying, and summarizing the business transactions in financial statements is known as?
A. Accounting period
B. Accounting Cycle
C. Accounting equation 
D. Book-keeping cycle
A

B. Accounting Cycle

325
Q
  1. What is the golden rule of nominal account?
    A. Debit the receiver, credit the giver
    B. Debit what comes in, credit what goes out
    C. Debit all expenses and losses, credit all incomes and gains
    D. Debit all incomes and gains, credit all expenses and losses
A

C. Debit all expenses and losses, credit all incomes and gains

326
Q
6. Which is the secondary book of accounts in which all the business transactions would ultimately find their place under various accounts in a duly classified form?
A. Ledger
B. Journal
C. Subsidiary Book
D. Trial Balance
A

A. Ledger

327
Q
7. Which date?
 is a statement containing all ledger accounts' debit and credit balances on a particular A. Ledger
B. Journal
C. Subsidiary Book
D. Trial Balance
A

D. Trial Balance

328
Q
8. A firm bought a machinery for Rs.38,000 on 1-4-2019 and its life was estimated to be 8 years. Its break up value at the end of the period was Rs.6,000. Find out the amount of Depreciation.
A. Rs.4,000
B. Rs.2,000 
C. Rs.3,000 
D. Rs.1,000
A

A. Rs.4,000

329
Q
9. Which book maintains the record of banks deposits and withdrawals?
A. Pass book
B. Cash book
C. Purchase book 
D. Sales book
A

A. Pass book

330
Q
  1. Which statement is a summary of banking and business activity that reconciles an entity’s bank account with its financial records?
    A. Financial Statement
    B. Bank Reconciliation Statement
    C. Financial statement and Bank Reconciliation Statement
    D. Neither financial statement nor Bank Reconciliation Statement
A

B. Bank Reconciliation Statement

331
Q
  1. In cash book, bank charges of Rs.5,000 was not recorded. Name the correct cash book adjustment.
    A. It will be credited in cash book
    B. It will be debited in cash book
    C. No adjustment needed in the cash book
    D. Charges will be added to the cash book balance
A

A. It will be credited in cash book

332
Q

Which of the following statements are true about Ratio Analysis?
A) Ratio analysis is useful in financial analysis.
B) Ratio analysis is helpful in communication and coordination.
C) Ratio Analysis is not helpful in identifying weak spots of the business. D) Ratio Analysis is helpful in financial planning and forecasting.
A. A,B and D
B. A, C and D.
C. A,B and C
D. A,B,C and D

A

A. A,BandD

333
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true about ratio analysis?
    A. It is affected by price level changes
    B. It is difficult to evolve a standard ratio
    C. It can give false and misleading results
    D. It is not useful in iter-firm and intra-firm comparison
A

D. It is not useful in iter-firm and intra-firm comparison

334
Q
14. Which ratio is computed to determine the rate at which the amount is collected from the debtors?
A. Inventory turnover ratio
B. Working capital turnover
C. Quick ratio
D. Debtors turnover ratio
A

D. Debtors turnover ratio

335
Q
15. Which ratio is calculated on the basis of elements drawn from either the Trading or Profit and Loss Account, like Gross Profit Ratio, etc.?
A. Accounting ratio
B. Income statement ratio
C. Balance Sheet ratio 
D. Composite ratio
A

B. Income statement ratio

336
Q
16. Which ratios are calculated on the basis of elements which belong both to the Trading and Profit and Loss Account as well as to the Balance Sheet, like Debtors Turnover Ratio, etc.?
A. Accounting ratios
B. Income statement ratios
C. Balance Sheet ratios
D. Composite ratios
A

D. Composite ratios

337
Q
  1. From the following information, find out P/V Ratio.
    Fixed Cost = Rs.40,000; Profit = Rs.20,000; and BEP = Rs.80,000
    A. 25%
    B. 50%
    C. 75%
    D. 40%
A

B. 50%

338
Q
18. Which analysis is a system for determination of that level of activity where total cost equals total selling price?
A. Break Even analysis
B. CVP analysis
C. Absorption costing
D. Marginal costing
A

A. Break Even analysis

339
Q
  1. A student wants to save money in order to pay for his college fees after a few years. In order to have an increase in the future value of the amount, he should check that the interest rate should be flexible and change. How should the interest rate change?
    A. It should increase over time
    B. It should decreases over time
    C. It should first increase and then decrease over time
    D. It should first decrease and then increase over time
A

A. It should increase over time

340
Q
20. Assume that a development bank issues bonds to raise funds of value Rs.20,00,000. If the bank has the lump sum bond liability after 10 years with interest at the rate of 10%, what is the annual amount the bank needs to save as sinking fund to fulfil the requirement after 10 years? (Note: FVIFA10%, 10 = 15.937)
A. Rs.2,00,000 
B. Rs.2,25,494 
C. Rs.1,25,494 
D. Rs.1,00,000
A

C. Rs.1,25,494

341
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is most correct?

A. The future value of an annuity due is greater than an otherwise identical ordinary annuity.
B. A reduction in the discount rate will increase the future value of an otherwise identical cash flow stream.
C. Continuous compounding will result in a higher present value relative to an otherwise identical investment that is compounded monthly at the same nominal rate.
D. The FVIFA (i%, N periods) equals the sum of the PVIF (i%, n) for n=1 to N periods.

A

A. The future value of an annuity due is greater than an otherwise identical ordinary annuity.

342
Q
22. A firm needs to raise funds for a new market expansion. Which of the following is considered to costliest source of funds?
A. Equity share capital
B. Retained earnings 
C. Long-term loans 
D. Preference share capital
A

A. Equity share capital

343
Q
  1. A firm
    following is a CORRECT statement regarding a firm’s Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC)?
    is evaluating its market value with respect to the capital structure. Which one of the
    A. An increase in the market risk premium will tend to decrease a firm’s WACC
    B. A 5 percent increase in a firm’s debt-equity ratio will tend to increase the firm’s WACC
    C. A reduction in the risk level of a firm will tend to increase the firm’s WACC
    D. The WACC can be used as the required return for all new projects with similar risk to
    that of the existing firm
A

D. The WACC can be used as the required return for all new projects with similar risk to
that of the existing firm

344
Q
24. How do the firms refer to the minimum rate of return to be earned in order to satisfy its investor?
A. Average Return on Investment
B. Weighted Average Cost of Capital
C. Net Profit ratio
D. Average Cost of Lending
A

B. Weighted Average Cost of Capital

345
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about working capital management?
    A. Gross working capital is an amount invested in total asset of an enterprise
    B. Working capital management is concerned with management of capital
    C. Working capital management looks into raising of funds for day-to-day activities
    D. Shortage of working capital reduces return on investment
A

A. Gross working capital is an amount invested in total asset of an enterprise

346
Q
26. A firm has a total sales of Rs.1,00,000 which includes cash sales of Rs.20,000. If the total of bills receivable and debtors is Rs.11,000; what is the Average Aollection Period of debtors, in closest number of days, for the firm? (Assume number of days in a year = 365)
A. 55 days
B. 50 days
C. 40 days 
D. 2655 days
A

B. 50 days

347
Q
  1. When a company decides to raise funds by issuing long term securities, which among the following is TRUE regarding the offer price of a company’s security?
    A. Offer price of a company’s security is usually discussed under Capital Budgeting
    B. Offer price of a company’s security is usually discussed under Capital Structure
    C. Offer price of a company’s security is usually discussed under Working Capital Management
    D. Offer price of a company’s security is usually discussed under Marketing Management
A

B. Offer price of a company’s security is usually discussed under Capital Structure

348
Q
28. Operating profit (EBIT) of the firm is Rs.4,50,000. The contribution is recorded as Rs.7,00,000. If the Financial leverage of the firm is found out to be 1.125, what is the Combined Lleverage of the firm?
A. Combined Leverage = 17.4
B. Combined Leverage = 1.74
C. Combined Leverage = 7.2
D. Combined Leverage =0.72
A

B. Combined Leverage = 1.74

349
Q
29. If a firm wants to pay dividends, which one of the following is NOT a a very good reason for paying dividends?
A. Investor preference for dividends 
B. Information signaling
C. Temporary excess cash
D. Clientele effect
A

C. Temporary excess cash

350
Q
30. For any dividend decision, the firm needs to finalize the proportion of earnings that are paid to common shareholders in the form of a cash dividend. What is this proportion referred to as?
A. Retention rate
B. 1 plus the retention rate
C. Growth rate
D. Dividend payout ratio
A

D. Dividend payout ratio